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Question 1
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica presents to her General Practitioner with a sudden loss of vision in her right eye. For the previous few days, she had been suffering from right-sided temporal headache, muscle aches and tiredness. She also noticed her jaw was getting painful after a few minutes of chewing.
What single investigation would most strongly support the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Giant cell infiltrate on temporal artery biopsy
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Features of Giant Cell Arteritis
Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a type of vasculitis that affects medium- and large-sized arteries. The gold standard for diagnosing GCA is a biopsy of the temporal artery, which will show vasculitis characterized by a predominance of mononuclear cell infiltration or granulomatous inflammation, usually with multinucleated giant cells. A positive biopsy is a strong indicator of GCA.
While there are other tests that may be performed, such as the Treponema pallidum haemagglutination (TPHA) test for syphilis and the C-reactive protein (CRP) level test, these are not specific to GCA. However, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is often elevated in GCA, with levels usually exceeding 50 mm/hour and sometimes exceeding 100 mm/hour.
One of the most concerning symptoms of GCA is homonymous hemianopia, a visual field defect that affects either the two right or two left halves of the visual fields of both eyes. This is caused by lesions in the retrochiasmal visual pathways, which are located anterior to the optic chiasm in GCA patients.
Overall, understanding the diagnostic features of GCA is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) on routine review. The physician notes that there are no visual symptoms or headaches and on examination, there are no visual field defects demonstrated. The optic disc appears normal and specifically, there is no cupping or pallor.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient in primary care?Your Answer: Advise the patient to go to the emergency department or same-day ophthalmological assessment
Correct Answer: Referral to ophthalmology
Explanation:Management of Raised Intraocular Pressure
Raised intraocular pressure (IOP) is a common finding in adults over 40 years of age, with up to 2% having an IOP > 21 mmHg without signs of glaucoma. While chronic glaucoma is usually asymptomatic, it can cause deterioration in visual fields and peripheral sensitivity, leading to tunnel vision. Patients with raised IOP require lifelong follow-up and should be referred to an ophthalmologist.
In cases of acute angle closure glaucoma, patients may experience pain and nausea due to a rapid increase in IOP. This condition requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent permanent visual loss. However, if the patient is asymptomatic and there are no signs of acute angle closure glaucoma, reassurance may be provided.
Treatment of glaucoma and intraocular hypertension is typically initiated and monitored by specialists. Topical latanoprost and timolol are commonly prescribed medications for glaucoma management. However, these medications should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care.
In summary, patients with raised IOP require lifelong follow-up and referral to an ophthalmologist. Acute angle closure glaucoma requires urgent ophthalmology review, while chronic glaucoma is usually asymptomatic and requires specialist management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 76-year-old male who complains of experiencing a recent onset of yellowish tint in his vision. He mentions being on multiple medications but cannot recall their names. His medical history includes heart failure, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and COPD. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Yellow-green vision may be a side effect of digoxin.
The use of digoxin carries a significant risk of toxicity due to its limited therapeutic range. One of the symptoms of toxicity is the appearance of yellow-tinted vision, also known as xanthopsia.
Similarly, sildenafil use may result in cyanopsia or blue-tinted vision.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.
Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.
If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches that have been ongoing for two weeks. The headaches are felt on both sides of her forehead, persist throughout the day, and intensify when she bends over. She doesn't experience any aura with the headaches. During a fundoscopy, the doctor notices blurring of the optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Migraine headache
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a possible diagnosis for a young woman with a high BMI, headache, and visual symptoms, as it is associated with papilloedema. Cluster headaches, migraines, and sinus headaches do not account for papilloedema and have different characteristics.
Understanding Papilloedema
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition typically affects both eyes. During a fundoscopy, several signs may be observed, including venous engorgement, loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and Paton’s lines.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia or vitamin A toxicity.
It is important to diagnose and treat papilloedema promptly, as it can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the increased intracranial pressure, such as surgery to remove a tumor or medication to manage hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her four-week-old baby for review. She has noticed that the baby's eyes have been watering a lot over the last few days. She describes clear fluid running out of both eyes. The baby was born at term by vaginal delivery and is doing well. On examination, the baby's sclerae are white, corneas are clear, and red reflex is present bilaterally. The conjunctiva is not inflamed and there is no purulent discharge.
What is the most probable reason for the baby's watery eyes?Your Answer: Retinoblastoma
Correct Answer: Delayed development of the nasolacrimal ducts
Explanation:Babies often experience watery eyes due to the delayed development of their nasolacrimal ducts. This typically occurs 1-2 weeks after birth when tear production begins. Instead of draining properly, tears overflow and run out of the eye. Fortunately, this condition usually resolves by the time the baby reaches 12 months of age. Massaging the side of the nose gently can help to open the nasolacrimal duct. It is rare for babies to experience allergic conjunctivitis, which would involve inflammation of the conjunctiva. Watery eyes are not a symptom of amblyopia, although squinting is common in young babies and should be monitored until it resolves by 4 months of age. Ophthalmia neonatorum, on the other hand, causes severe conjunctivitis with eyelid swelling and purulent discharge.
Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that causes persistent watery eyes in infants. It occurs when there is an imperforate membrane, usually at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. This condition affects around 1 in 10 infants, with symptoms typically appearing at around one month of age.
Fortunately, nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be managed with simple techniques. Parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct, which can help to alleviate symptoms. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve on their own by the time the child reaches one year of age.
However, in cases where symptoms persist beyond this point, it may be necessary to seek further medical intervention. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child to an ophthalmologist for consideration of probing. This procedure is typically done under a light general anaesthetic and can help to resolve any remaining issues with the nasolacrimal duct.
Overall, while nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be concerning for parents, it is a manageable condition that typically resolves on its own. By understanding the causes and treatment options for this condition, parents can help to ensure their child’s eyes stay healthy and comfortable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies any recent trauma to the eye but reports seeing floaters and experiencing discomfort when moving her eye. She also notes blurred vision. This is the fourth time she has experienced these symptoms.
Upon examination, the left eye appears red and the pupil is irregular. The patient's visual acuity is slightly worse in the left eye compared to the right. Corneal staining reveals no abnormalities, but there are some cells present in the anterior chamber.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the recommended management plan?Your Answer: Prescribe oral aciclovir and arrange same day assessment at eye casualty
Correct Answer: Arrange same day assessment in eye casualty
Explanation:If a patient displays symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis, such as a red and painful eye with reduced vision and flashes/floaters, urgent referral for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day is the most appropriate course of action. Anterior uveitis is characterized by inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, with the presence of cells in the aqueous humour and an abnormally shaped or differently sized pupil compared to the unaffected eye. While the pain is not as severe as scleritis, prompt evaluation by a specialist is crucial for proper treatment.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male with known Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus presents to your GP clinic. He complains of pain in his left eye accompanied by nausea and vomiting. During the examination, you observe that the left eye is red. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover that he was recently prescribed an antidepressant. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stroke
Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:When faced with such questions, it can be helpful to eliminate possible conditions. Stroke is unlikely to cause eye pain. Temporal arteritis may be a possibility, but it usually causes a one-sided headache over the temporal arteries and doesn’t result in fixed pupils. Chronic primary angle closure glaucoma is often symptomless and develops gradually. Acute angle closure glaucoma, on the other hand, is characterized by sudden pain, especially in dark rooms. The patient in this case is an elderly woman with Type 2 Diabetes, which puts her at high risk for acute angle closure glaucoma. Additionally, the fact that she recently started taking an antidepressant is another clue that points to this diagnosis. Certain medications, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, can trigger an acute glaucoma attack.
Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, haloes around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 6-month history of dermatitis on her right eyelid only. She denies any other symptoms of allergy and her serum IgE level is within normal limits. She doesn't use any eye makeup products. What is the most likely allergen causing her dermatitis?
Your Answer: Nail varnish
Explanation:Unilateral Eyelid Contact Dermatitis: Causes and Symptoms
Unilateral eyelid contact dermatitis is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a substance comes into contact with the skin. This reaction is often caused by agents transferred to one eye from the hands, such as nail polish, artificial nails, hand moisturizers, and soaps. The symptoms of this condition include asymmetrical and unilateral eyelid dermatitis, sometimes accompanied by linear areas of dermatitis on the face and neck caused by absent-minded habitual rubbing of these areas with freshly painted fingernails.
Egg white, house dust mite, peanut, and shampoo are not likely to cause unilateral eyelid contact dermatitis. Eggs may produce urticaria or dermatitis and systemic symptoms, while house dust mite causes upper respiratory symptoms and conjunctivitis. Peanut causes a type I hypersensitivity reaction that can result in anaphylaxis, and shampoo may cause bilateral itching and swelling of the skin on the scalp or contact irritant dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a one week history of anisocoria, the right pupil being larger than the left. This was initially noticed by her concerned mother, who insisted that she come to see you for advice.
She also brought with her a recent close-up photograph of herself taken one month ago which showed equal size pupils. She doesn't complain of any headaches or diplopia or reduced vision. She is otherwise fit and healthy.
On examination, the anisocoria is more pronounced in a well lit room than a dim lit room. The eyes appeared white and not inflamed.
Which one of the following statements best describes the patient's condition?Your Answer: This presentation is in keeping with an ischaemic stroke at the parietal lobe of the left side
Correct Answer: This is an efferent pupillary defect of the right eye
Explanation:Understanding Pupillary Light Reaction Pathways
Pupillary light reaction pathways are crucial in neuro-ophthalmology and can aid in formulating differential diagnoses. It is important to note that these pathways do not involve the parietal and temporal lobes of the brain. Anisocoria in a healthy patient without any previous ocular problems may indicate an efferent problem affecting the pathway between the Edinger-Westphal nucleus and the innervation of the sphincter pupillae. In such cases, a relative pupillary defect would not be expected as the afferent pathway remains unaffected.
Optic neuritis, on the other hand, may cause ocular pain, reduced vision, and occasionally, a relative afferent pupillary defect in the affected eye. However, the diagnosis in this case is Adie’s tonic pupil, which is of no clinical significance and requires only reassurance. Nonetheless, a thorough physical examination should be conducted to rule out other treatable conditions such as berry aneurysm or other intracranial compressive lesions, especially if the patient is symptomatic.
In summary, understanding pupillary light reaction pathways is crucial in neuro-ophthalmology and can aid in formulating differential diagnoses. Anisocoria in an otherwise healthy patient may indicate an efferent problem, while optic neuritis may cause ocular pain and reduced vision. The diagnosis of Adie’s tonic pupil requires reassurance, but a thorough physical examination should be conducted to rule out other treatable conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Incorrect
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This 65-year-old individual with diabetes is experiencing a decline in their ability to read newsprint. The lens clouding is making it difficult to visualize the retina on fundoscopy.
What is the probable reason for this person's vision impairment?Your Answer: Hypopyon
Correct Answer: Rubeosis iridis
Explanation:Premature Cataracts and Diabetic Retinopathy
Cataracts can develop prematurely due to various factors such as diabetes, steroid therapy, Cushing’s syndrome, and trauma. When this happens, it is important to treat the cataract to assess the back of the eye for any signs of diabetic retinopathy. Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision loss. By treating the cataract, doctors can examine the retina and determine if any further treatment is necessary to prevent or manage diabetic retinopathy. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other risk factors for premature cataracts to have regular eye exams to detect and address any potential issues early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You see a 23-year-old male patient with a 4-day history of a red painful left eye. He denies any recent trauma to the eye. He complains of seeing floaters, experiencing pain when reading, and having blurred vision. He has a history of ankylosing spondylitis but is not currently undergoing any treatment as his symptoms are under control.
During the examination, you observe that his left eye is red and the pupil is irregular. He experiences pain when you test the movements of his eye. His visual acuity is lower in the left eye compared to the right. After staining the eye, you find no abnormalities on the cornea.
Based on the patient's history and examination findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Scleritis
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is commonly associated with anterior uveitis, which is an inflammation in the front part of the eye. Symptoms include a painful, red eye with reduced vision and the presence of cells in the aqueous humour. Scleritis, on the other hand, is an inflammation of the sclera that causes severe pain and can be linked to connective tissue disorders like rheumatoid arthritis and SLE. Episcleritis is a less severe inflammatory disease that affects the episclera and presents with a painful red eye with segmental redness. Acute glaucoma, which causes a significant increase in intraocular pressure, is a medical emergency that presents with a painful red eye, severe eye pain, headaches, nausea, vomiting, halos around lights, and decreased vision.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a gradual onset of visual disturbance. She reports difficulty in recognizing facial details and increasing difficulty in reading. She also experiences bending of road edges while driving and sees a floating grey patch in her vision. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Presbyopia
Correct Answer: Age related macular degeneration
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this description is age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). In the initial stages, patients may experience difficulty in reading or identifying details. A common symptom of ARMD is the perception of straight lines appearing bent or distorted, as mentioned in the description. This can be assessed in a clinical setting using an Amsler grid.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Correct
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A 67-year-old man was put on treatment for glaucoma and came back for a review after a month. Although his eye pressures had improved, he reported an increase in the length of his eyelashes. Which medication is responsible for this side effect?
Your Answer: Latanoprost
Explanation:Prostaglandin analogues are associated with several side effects, including longer eyelashes, iris pigmentation, and periocular pigmentation.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.
The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up due to concerns about his friend's recent diagnosis of type two diabetes mellitus. He has no symptoms, medical history, or smoking history. His mother has open-angle glaucoma and his father was diagnosed with prostate cancer at age 75. During the examination, his BMI is 24 kg/m² and blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg. What is the recommended health screening for this patient?
Your Answer: Faecal immunochemical screening for bowel cancer
Correct Answer: Intraocular pressure screening for glaucoma
Explanation:Individuals with a family history of glaucoma should undergo annual screening from the age of 40. As this patient is over 40 and has a mother with glaucoma, this is the most appropriate health screening to initiate.
Routine chest X-ray screening for lung cancer is not recommended for asymptomatic individuals, and as this patient is a non-smoker with no symptoms, it is not the most appropriate option.
Faecal immunochemical screening for bowel cancer is typically initiated at age 60 unless there are concerning symptoms or a family history. As this patient has neither, this is not the most appropriate screening to commence.
While PSA screening for prostate cancer is controversial, the patient’s father’s diagnosis at age 75 would not significantly increase his risk. It could be discussed with the patient and initiated at age 50, but it is not necessary at this time.
Although blood tests to check HbA1c could be considered, the patient has no symptoms, no family history of diabetes, and is at a healthy weight. Therefore, this is not the most important health screening to initiate.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.
Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.
The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with a painful and red right eye that started 10 days ago. He complains of a foreign body sensation but cannot recall any incident of something entering his eye. His eye is swollen and tearing, and he experiences blurred vision and light sensitivity. Despite washing his eye with water daily, there has been no improvement. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and hypertension and wears contact lenses regularly. He denies having a history of cold sores.
During the examination, the patient's right eye appears diffusely red, and his visual acuity is slightly reduced. The pupil reaction is normal, but there is a small, circular area on the cornea that takes up the dye.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Artificial tears and advise the patient not to wear contact lenses for 7 days
Correct Answer: Urgent, same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms and signs that are consistent with a corneal ulcer, the most appropriate course of action is to urgently refer them to an ophthalmologist for assessment on the same day. Typically, a corneal ulcer is seen in patients who wear contact lenses and experience a foreign body sensation in the eye, along with a red eye and an ulcer on staining. While ophthalmic herpes may present similarly, the ulcer would be dendritic, and the patient would have a history of facial herpes. In such cases, the treatment involves aciclovir and topical ganciclovir, along with same-day ophthalmology assessment.
A corneal ulcer is a condition where there is a defect in the cornea, usually caused by an infection. This is different from a corneal abrasion, which is a defect in the cornea caused by physical trauma. Risk factors for corneal ulcers include using contact lenses and having a vitamin A deficiency, which is more common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can be caused by bacterial, fungal, viral, or Acanthamoeba infections. Bacterial keratitis, fungal keratitis, and viral keratitis (such as herpes simplex or herpes zoster) can lead to a dendritic ulcer. Acanthamoeba keratitis is often associated with contact lens use.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and watering of the eye. The cornea may also show focal fluorescein staining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of visual difficulties. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, depression, and is on medication for hypertension. She has been experiencing headaches and blurred vision for the past few days, and today she noticed a significant decrease in vision in her right eye. During the examination, her right eye appeared red, her pupil was sluggish, and her corrected visual acuity was 6/30. Her medication was recently altered. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of this occurrence?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Anticholinergics and tricyclic antidepressants are drugs that can cause acute glaucoma.
Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 17
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman complains of a continuous watery left eye that has been bothering her for the last 4 days. Upon examination, there is redness and puffiness in the inner corner of her left eye. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dacryocystitis
Explanation:Lacrimal Duct Problems: Dacryocystitis and Congenital Obstruction
Lacrimal duct problems can manifest in two ways: dacryocystitis and congenital obstruction. Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac that causes a watering eye (epiphora) and swelling and redness at the inner corner of the eye. Treatment involves systemic antibiotics, and intravenous antibiotics may be necessary if there is associated periorbital cellulitis.
On the other hand, congenital lacrimal duct obstruction affects 5-10% of newborns and is bilateral in 20% of cases. It causes a watering eye, even when the baby is not crying, and may lead to secondary infections. However, in 99% of cases, symptoms resolve by the time the baby reaches 12 months of age.
It is important to identify and manage lacrimal duct problems promptly to prevent complications and ensure proper eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 18
Correct
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A 46-year-old man with a history of ankylosing spondylitis visits the GP clinic complaining of severe pain in his left eye that has been worsening over the past three hours. Upon examination, you observe that his left eye is red, watering, and he is sensitive to light. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:When a patient shows signs and symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis, the most suitable course of action is to urgently refer them for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day. The diagnosis can be established by taking into account the patient’s medical history, particularly if they have ankylosing spondylitis. Anterior uveitis is a condition that can cause sudden redness in the eye and is often linked to ankylosing spondylitis. According to NICE guidelines, any patient suspected of having uveitis should be referred to an ophthalmologist for assessment within 24 hours. Since this is an ophthalmological emergency, a routine referral would not be appropriate. The treatment plan will depend on the ophthalmologist’s confirmation of the diagnosis, so it would not be appropriate for the GP to prescribe topical steroids, chloramphenicol eye drops, or oral aciclovir.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man complains of itching and burning of his eyelid margins for two weeks. Upon examination, redness and scaling are observed on the edges of his eyelids.
Which of the following is the correct statement?Your Answer: He has a contact dermatitis
Correct Answer: He should be advised to use dilute baby shampoo to clean the eyelids twice a day
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Blepharitis
Blepharitis is a chronic condition that can be caused by staphylococcal infection, seborrhoeic dermatitis, meibomian gland dysfunction, or a combination of these factors. It is characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margins and can be managed with self-care measures. Good eyelid hygiene is crucial in treating blepharitis, and patients should be advised to clean their eyelids twice a day using dilute baby shampoo.
While topical or oral antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, they should be reserved for second-line use when eyelid hygiene alone is ineffective. Contact dermatitis and acute conjunctivitis are not the same as blepharitis, and treatment with artificial tears is not always necessary.
In some cases, chronic blepharitis may be a symptom of rosacea and can be treated with oral tetracycline. It is important for patients to understand the causes and treatment options for blepharitis in order to effectively manage their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man who had a left cataract surgery one week ago, presents with a one day history of intense dull, painful, red left eye with markedly reduced vision. He also has a left frontal headache and feels nauseated.
Which one of the following would be the best next step in managing this man's condition?Your Answer: Refer urgently to an optometrist for same day appointment
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to an ophthalmologist for same day appointment
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Patients with Recent Eye Operations
Patients who have undergone recent eye operations and present with symptoms such as dull, painful, red eye and significantly reduced vision should be treated as endophthalmitis until proven otherwise. It is crucial to refer these patients to an ophthalmologist immediately via phone to ensure prompt intra-vitreal antibiotics can be administered. Vitreous sampling should also be done for culture and sensitivity. Any delays in treatment may result in a worsened prognosis. Therefore, urgent referral is necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with an acute red eye.
Of the following conditions which is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Closed angle glaucoma
Explanation:Causes of Acute Red Eye
There are several causes of acute red eye, with glaucoma being the most likely to present with this symptom. Other possible causes include anterior uveitis, corneal ulcers, conjunctivitis, scleritis and episcleritis, and subconjunctival haemorrhage. It is important to note that optic neuritis presents with a specific type of central visual loss known as a central scotoma, while retinal vein occlusion, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage typically present as visual loss or disturbance. Understanding the various causes of acute red eye can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent burning and itching in his eyes. He frequently wakes up with red, sticky eyes and has received treatment for conjunctivitis multiple times, but with no lasting improvement. During the examination, the doctor observes red and inflamed lid margins and mild conjunctival injection.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition is commonly seen in adults and can be divided into anterior and posterior blepharitis. Anterior blepharitis affects the skin and eyelashes, while posterior blepharitis involves the meibomian glands. Symptoms include red and swollen eyelids, crusts at the base of eyelashes, a gritty or burning sensation in the eyes, and excessive watering. Regular lid cleaning with baby shampoo is key to effective management, and topical antibiotics may be used if there is an infection.
Viral Conjunctivitis: Those with viral conjunctivitis typically have a recent history of upper respiratory tract infection or contact with a sick individual. Symptoms include redness, watering, and discharge from the eyes. This condition usually settles in 1-2 weeks and is not chronic.
Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: This condition is characterized by chronic low-grade conjunctivitis that may persist for 3-12 months if left untreated. Symptoms include a green stringy discharge in the morning. Recurrent conjunctivitis in sexually active patients should raise the possibility of chlamydia.
Contact Dermatitis: Excessive eye makeup use can lead to contact dermatitis. Symptoms include redness, itching, and swelling in the periorbital area. A history of new cosmetics or makeup use should be explored.
Meibomianitis: Symptoms of meibomianitis include dry and gritty eyes, skin flaking around the eyes, and crusty eyes after sleeping. This condition responds to long courses of systemic antibiotics. However, the symptoms described here are more consistent with blepharitis than meibomianitis.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has a 3-week history of persistent conjunctivitis in his right eye. He has tried using over-the-counter medication but this has not helped. Of note, he returned from a visit to Amsterdam four weeks ago, following which he was treated for urinary symptoms at the local walk-in centre. On examination, he has some mucopurulent discharge and hyperaemia. The inferior tarsal conjunctival follicles are obvious.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gonococcal conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Chlamydial conjunctivitis
Explanation:Differentiating Conjunctivitis: Causes and Symptoms
Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. It can be caused by various factors, including bacteria, viruses, allergens, and sexually transmitted infections. Here are some of the different types of conjunctivitis and their distinguishing features:
Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis is transmitted through autoinoculation or eye-to-eye spread and is associated with urethritis or cervicitis. It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and can last for up to 12 months if left untreated. It is usually unilateral and presents with chronic follicular conjunctivitis.
Trachoma: This type of conjunctivitis is caused by poor sanitation and is the third most common cause of blindness in the world. It is caused by serotypes A to C of C. trachomatis and presents with severe conjunctival scarring and secondary corneal ulceration and scarring.
Allergic Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis occurs in atopic individuals and presents with itchy, watering eyes.
Gonococcal Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis is caused by gonorrhea and presents with a rapid onset of unilateral/bilateral red eyes with a severe purulent discharge and tender preauricular lymph nodes.
Simple Bacterial Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis is usually bilateral and should have resolved by three weeks. The discharge is mucopurulent but less copious than in gonococcal conjunctivitis.
Viral Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis is usually bilateral and should have resolved by three weeks. The discharge is usually watery, and follicles may be seen on eyelid eversion.
In summary, the type of conjunctivitis can be determined by the symptoms and the underlying cause. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of gradual deterioration of his vision. He has been experiencing difficulty recognizing faces and distinguishing colors for several months. The patient also reports that his central vision appears somewhat blurry. He has a smoking habit of 10 cigarettes per day and a blood pressure of 124/76 mmHg. Recent blood tests, including an HbA1c of 38 mmol/mol, are unremarkable.
What is the expected finding on fundoscopy when examining the patient's macula, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Blot haemorrhages
Correct Answer: Drusen
Explanation:Dry macular degeneration, also known as drusen, is a common cause of visual loss in individuals over the age of 50. The accumulation of lipid and protein debris around the macula is a key indicator of this condition. Wet macular degeneration, on the other hand, is characterized by choroidal neovascularization. Hypertensive retinopathy is typically associated with blot hemorrhages and cotton wool spots, while microaneurysms can indicate either hypertensive retinopathy or diabetic retinopathy. However, given the patient’s normal blood pressure and HbA1c levels, it is less likely that these findings are present.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 25
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of blurred vision in his left eye and difficulty reading, with lines appearing wavy. The GP suspects age-related macular degeneration. How urgently should the patient be referred for further assessment?
Your Answer: Urgent - seen with 1 week
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Age-Related Macular Degeneration
If there is suspicion of age-related macular degeneration, it is crucial to refer the patient urgently for further assessment. Ideally, they should be seen within one week of referral, especially if they present with rapid visual distortion. The assessment should be conducted by a macular clinic, a local hospital eye service, or an optometrist who can refer to an ophthalmologist.
According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, if there is a delay of more than one week in being seen by an optometrist or ophthalmologist, or if symptoms worsen while waiting to be seen, the patient should attend eye casualty, if available, as soon as possible, or seek other immediate medical attention to expedite urgent specialist assessment.
Once neovascular age-related macular degeneration is confirmed, treatment in secondary care should be given as soon as possible to prevent any visual loss. Therefore, urgent referral and assessment are crucial in managing age-related macular degeneration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents to your clinic. She recently recovered from multiple myeloma and is currently taking diuretics for leg swelling. She reports painless blurring in her right eye that started a few days ago. She denies any redness, itching, or irritation in either eye, and her left eye vision is unchanged.
During the examination, her blood pressure is 150/94 mmHg, and all other physical findings are unremarkable. Her left eye has a corrected acuity of 6/9, while her right eye can only differentiate light and dark. Due to the primary care setting, you are unable to perform a thorough fundoscopy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute open angle glaucoma
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:Central retinal vein occlusion is characterized by sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. The absence of itching or redness suggests that an infective cause such as conjunctivitis or episcleritis is unlikely, especially since episcleritis is typically painful. The fact that the condition is unilateral and has a relatively sudden onset makes diabetic retinopathy or glaucoma less likely. However, it should be noted that not all patients with CRVO present with a clear history of sudden and complete vision loss, and a thorough fundoscopy examination may not always be possible in a primary care setting. If a fundoscopy examination is performed, the retina may exhibit a typical blood and thunder appearance due to extensive haemorrhages across all four quadrants.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a condition that can cause sudden, painless loss of vision. It is often associated with risk factors such as increasing age, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, and polycythemia. When a vein in the central retinal venous system is occluded, it can lead to widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
A key differential diagnosis for CRVO is branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO), which occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked. This type of occlusion is thought to occur due to blockage of retinal veins at arteriovenous crossings and results in a more limited area of the fundus being affected.
While the majority of patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, there are indications for treatment in some cases. For example, patients with macular edema may benefit from intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents, while those with retinal neovascularization may require laser photocoagulation. Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for providing effective care to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents to your clinic with a painful, red left eye that has been bothering him for the past week. He denies any history of trauma to the eye, but the pain has been progressively worsening. The pain is exacerbated by eye movement and he is experiencing photophobia. He also reports a possible decrease in vision in the affected eye. The patient has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, the left eye appears diffusely red and is tearing. Visual acuity is decreased in the left eye, but there are no abnormalities on staining. The left pupil reaction is slower than the right, but the shape appears normal. The anterior chamber appears normal.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral aciclovir and urgent referral to ophthalmology
Correct Answer: Same day urgent referral to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents with sudden loss of vision in his left eye, associated with a relative afferent pupillary defect.
He has poorly controlled systemic hypertension and raised cholesterol.
What is the most likely cause of his condition?Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa
Correct Answer: Retinal vascular occlusion
Explanation:Tips for Answering Tricky Questions in the AKT Exam
When faced with a tricky question in the AKT exam, it can be easy to feel overwhelmed and unsure of how to proceed. However, there are strategies you can use to help narrow down your options and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.
One approach is to look for key information in the question stem, such as the presence of certain risk factors or the sudden onset of symptoms. By considering which answer option is most likely given this information, you can eliminate some of the less plausible choices.
It’s important to remember that you won’t know the answer to every question in the exam, and that’s okay. By using these strategies and taking a methodical approach, you can increase your hit rate and feel more confident in your overall performance.
To see an example of this approach in action, check out the Endgames scenario on sudden unilateral painless loss of vision in the BMJ article linked above. With practice and preparation, you can tackle even the trickiest questions on the AKT exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 54-year-old gentleman for his diabetic annual review appointment. He has type 1 diabetes which was diagnosed when he was 12-years-old. He tells you that over the last 72 hours he has noticed new onset flashers and floaters in his right eye. Today he has felt that the vision in his right eye has become 'extremely blurry'.
You can see that his last diabetic retinopathy screening was performed just over a month ago and the report you have states that the retinal photographs taken showed 'pre-proliferative retinopathy' in his left eye and 'proliferative retinopathy' in the right eye. Following this the screening service has referred him for outpatient ophthalmological assessment at the local hospital, which is pending.
On examination there is a loss of the red reflex in the right eye and right eye visual acuity is reduced to 'hand movements'.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Routine optician review within the next one week
Correct Answer: Urgent same-day ophthalmological assessment
Explanation:Diabetic Retinopathy Screening and Urgent Ophthalmological Assessment
All individuals with diabetes should undergo an annual retinal assessment through the local diabetic retinopathy screening service. This assessment aims to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy and refer patients for further specialist ophthalmological assessment if necessary. However, in cases where a diabetic presents with acute eye problems, urgent same-day ophthalmological assessment is required to prevent the progression of eye problems.
Retinal detachment is a serious complication of diabetic retinopathy that may present with floaters and flashing lights. Unfortunately, these symptoms may not prompt patients to seek medical attention, and early detachment of the retina may go unnoticed until it progresses to the macula. At this point, central vision is significantly affected, and urgent intervention is required.
During examination, the typical red reflex is lost, and the fundus reveals a grey retina that protrudes forward. The extent of the detachment determines the degree to which the red reflex is diminished.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision on his right side for several days. He reports seeing a cobweb-like opacity that moves around. When he closes his right eye, the opacity disappears. His visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes, and he has not experienced any visual field loss. Upon examination with an ophthalmoscope after dilatation, his retina appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Vitreous Detachment: This condition is characterized by flashing lights and a mobile opacity in the visual field of one eye. A slit-lamp examination can reveal the opacity, which may be a sign of a retinal tear. Urgent referral to Eye Casualty is necessary to evaluate the retina and prevent retinal detachment.
Cataract: Cataracts cause a stable reduction in vision and appear as grey, white, or yellow-brown opacities in the lens.
Corneal Erosion: Often caused by trauma, a corneal erosion is painful and can be detected with fluorescein stain.
Macular Degeneration: This condition causes distortion of the central visual field and is visible on an Amsler chart. It is slowly progressive over months or years.
Retinal Detachment: Symptoms include photopsia, floaters, and a curtain descending over the field of vision. Macular involvement results in severe reduction in visual acuity. An obvious detachment appears as an elevation of the retina, which appears grey with dark blood vessels that may lie in folds. Comparing the suspected area with an adjacent normal area can help detect any change in retinal transparency. Vitreous haemorrhage may also occur.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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- Eyes And Vision
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