00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia on Chest X-Ray. He appears unwell to you. His urea level is 8 mmol/l, and respiratory rate is 38 breaths per minute. His pulse rate is 89, and blood pressure is 120/58 mmHg.

      What is the patient's CURB 65 score?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      95.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man with a history of recurrent lower respiratory tract infections has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of recurrent lower respiratory tract infections has been diagnosed with bilateral bronchiectasis after undergoing a high resolution CT scan. What is the most crucial factor in managing his symptoms in the long run?

      Your Answer: Mucolytic therapy

      Correct Answer: Postural drainage

      Explanation:

      To manage symptoms in individuals with non-CF bronchiectasis, a combination of inspiratory muscle training and postural drainage can be effective.

      Managing Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      Spacing:

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.

      The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.

      The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      81.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 47-year-old woman visits the local clinic with her husband, who reports that...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman visits the local clinic with her husband, who reports that his wife has been experiencing chills, night sweats, coughing up yellow phlegm, and is having difficulty answering basic questions.
      Which of the following is NOT part of the scoring evaluation for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?

      Your Answer: Creatinine

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CURB65 Score and its Criteria

      The CURB65 score is a tool used to assess the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients. It consists of five criteria, including confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, age, and urea levels. However, creatinine does not play a role in this score.

      While the CURB65 score helps determine the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP, it is important to note that acute kidney injury and high creatinine levels may still be independent risk factors for morbidity and mortality.

      The criteria for the CURB65 score are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates that the patient can be managed at home, a score of 2-3 suggests hospital management with close monitoring, and a score of 4-5 indicates the need for admission and observation, potentially in an intensive therapy unit.

      Age greater than 65 years old is one of the defining criteria of the CURB65 score, while confusion, respiratory rate > 30 breaths per minute, and blood pressure systolic < 90 mmHg or diastolic < 60 mmHg are also included. Additionally, a blood urea nitrogen level higher than 7 mmol/l is another criterion. In summary, understanding the CURB65 score and its criteria is essential in determining the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP. However, it is important to consider other risk factors, such as creatinine levels, in predicting morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      81.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following statements regarding elderly advanced life support is accurate?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding elderly advanced life support is accurate?

      Your Answer: Chest compressions should continue whilst the defibrillator is charged

      Explanation:

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone is initiated. However, there is no improvement. What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The routine use of non-invasive ventilation in asthmatics is not supported by current guidelines.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65 year old man presents to the emergency department with a productive...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough that has been ongoing for three days. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, weakness, and lethargy over the past two days. He also reports fevers and rigors. His wife brought him in as she is concerned about his rapid deterioration. On examination, his heart rate is 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, Sa02 is 90% on room air, temperature is 38.9º, and blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg. He appears distressed but is not confused. Initial investigations show a Hb of 134 g/l, platelets of 550 * 109/l, WBC of 18 * 109/l, Na+ of 141 mmol/l, K+ of 3.7 mmol/l, urea of 9.2 mmol/l, and creatinine of 130 µmol/l. A CXR shows left lower zone consolidation. What is his CURB-65 score based on this information?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The patient is currently in a room with normal air temperature of 38.9º and has a blood pressure reading of 130/84 mmHg. Although he appears distressed, he is not experiencing confusion. Initial tests reveal that his hemoglobin level is at 134 g/l and his platelet count is yet to be determined.

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      460.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of increasing shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of increasing shortness of breath, especially during physical activity. He has also been experiencing a persistent dry cough for the past 8 weeks. The doctor suspects pulmonary fibrosis and orders spirometry testing.

      The patient's predicted spirometry values are as follows:
      FEV1 4.25L
      FVC 5.10L
      Transfer capacity (TLCO) Normal

      What are the probable spirometry findings for this individual?

      Your Answer: FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.34, TLCO = Decreased

      Explanation:

      Once the predicted values are obtained, the FEV1:FVC ratio can be evaluated. If this ratio is less than 70, it indicates a potential issue.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      219.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old HIV positive man presents to your clinic with complaints of haemoptysis...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old HIV positive man presents to your clinic with complaints of haemoptysis and worsening shortness of breath after completing treatment for pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. A chest x-ray shows an apical mass in the right lung lobe. He responds well to treatment with itraconazole and steroids. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      Aspergilloma is a type of fungal growth that typically affects individuals with weakened immune systems or those who have pre-existing lung conditions like tuberculosis or emphysema. Common symptoms include coughing, fever, and coughing up blood. Treatment typically involves the use of antifungal medications like itraconazole.

      Haemoptysis, or coughing up blood, can be caused by a variety of conditions. Lung cancer is a common cause, especially in individuals with a history of smoking. Symptoms of malignancy, such as weight loss and anorexia, may also be present. Pulmonary oedema, which is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, can cause dyspnoea (shortness of breath) and is often accompanied by bibasal crackles and an S3 heart sound. Tuberculosis, a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs, can cause fever, night sweats, anorexia, and weight loss. Pulmonary embolism, a blockage in the pulmonary artery, can cause pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and tachypnoea (rapid breathing). Lower respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia, typically have an acute onset and are characterized by a purulent cough. Bronchiectasis, a chronic lung condition, is often associated with a long history of cough and daily production of purulent sputum. Mitral stenosis, a narrowing of the mitral valve in the heart, can cause dyspnoea, atrial fibrillation, and a malar flush on the cheeks. Aspergilloma, a fungal infection that often occurs in individuals with a past history of tuberculosis, can cause severe haemoptysis and is characterized by a rounded opacity on chest x-ray. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, an autoimmune disease, can affect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts and is associated with symptoms such as epistaxis (nosebleeds), sinusitis, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. Goodpasture’s syndrome, another autoimmune disease, can cause haemoptysis and systemic symptoms such as fever and nausea, as well as glomerulonephritis (inflammation of the kidney’s filtering units).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In the diagnosis of asthma, which statement is the most appropriate? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the diagnosis of asthma, which statement is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: 15% reversibility by bronchial dilators is an essential diagnostic test in making this diagnosis

      Correct Answer: Cough is an important diagnostic feature

      Explanation:

      Myths and Facts about Asthma Diagnosis and Treatment

      Cough is a crucial diagnostic feature in asthma, especially if it occurs at night. However, it is not the only symptom, and other factors must be considered to reach a diagnosis. While asthma often presents in childhood, it can also appear later in life, and some patients may experience a recurrence of symptoms after a period of remission. The 15% reversibility test is useful but not essential for diagnosis, and there is no single test that can definitively diagnose asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids are not bronchodilators and do not have an immediate effect, but they are essential for managing inflammation and preventing irreversible airway damage. Finally, family history is a crucial factor in asthma diagnosis, as there is a strong genetic component to the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      91
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old female presents for follow-up. She was diagnosed with asthma four years...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents for follow-up. She was diagnosed with asthma four years ago and is currently utilizing a salbutamol inhaler 100mcg as needed in combination with beclometasone dipropionate inhaler 200 mcg twice daily. However, her asthma remains poorly controlled. Upon examination, her chest is clear and she demonstrates proper inhaler technique. In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Add salmeterol

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      According to NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, the first step should be to add a LTRA rather than a LABA.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      84.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman presents for her yearly asthma check-up. She reports experiencing her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents for her yearly asthma check-up. She reports experiencing her typical symptoms of chest tightness, wheezing, and shortness of breath about three times per week, usually at night. She also wakes up feeling wheezy once a week. At present, she only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed, which provides her with good relief. The patient has no medical history, takes no other medications, and has no allergies. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Add a budesonide inhaler

      Explanation:

      According to NICE (2017) guidelines, patients with asthma should be prescribed a SABA as the first step of treatment. However, if a patient experiences symptoms three or more times per week or night waking, they should also be prescribed a low-dose ICS inhaler as the second step of treatment. This is also necessary for patients who have had an acute exacerbation requiring oral corticosteroids in the past two years. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are not well-controlled with a SABA alone, and she experiences frequent symptoms and night waking. Therefore, she requires a low-dose ICS inhaler, and the only option available is budesonide.

      Adding a salmeterol inhaler is not appropriate at this stage, as LABAs are only used as the fourth step of treatment if a patient is not controlled with a SABA, low-dose ICS, and a trial of LTRAs. Similarly, adding montelukast and a beclomethasone inhaler is not appropriate, as LTRAs are only added if a patient is still not controlled on a low-dose ICS and a SABA. However, it may be appropriate to trial beclomethasone without montelukast.

      Continuing with the current salbutamol-only treatment is not appropriate, as the patient’s asthma is poorly controlled, which increases the risk of morbidity and mortality. Regular salbutamol has no role in the management of asthma, as it does not improve outcomes and may even worsen them by downregulating beta receptors that are important for bronchodilation.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      262.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. What is the preferred diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High-resolution CT scan

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of breathlessness and a productive cough with green sputum.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option for him?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for COPD Exacerbations: Antibiotics and Corticosteroids

      COPD exacerbations are characterized by a sudden worsening of symptoms beyond the patient’s usual stable state. These symptoms include increased breathlessness, cough, sputum production, and changes in sputum color. To treat exacerbations, a combination of antibiotics and corticosteroids is often used.

      Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, should be prescribed for five days to patients experiencing a significant increase in breathlessness that interferes with daily activities. Antibiotics are recommended for exacerbations associated with purulent sputum, with first-line agents including amoxicillin, doxycycline, and clarithromycin.

      It is important to follow local microbiologist guidance when initiating empirical antibiotic treatment. Flucloxacillin and clindamycin are not useful in treating COPD exacerbations and are recommended for other conditions such as skin infections and bacterial vaginosis, respectively. Nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim are used for urinary tract infections and may be considered as first or second-line agents depending on antibiotic resistance and previous sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.

      Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Lung Abscess

      A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.

      The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.

      To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given...

    Correct

    • A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given birth to her first child. She experienced a sudden worsening of her asthma symptoms and was prescribed 30mg of oral prednisolone. She is now concerned about the safety of taking prednisolone while breastfeeding and wonders if she should switch to a different medication.

      Your Answer: It is safe to continue 30mg prednisolone and breastfeed

      Explanation:

      When a mother who is breastfeeding takes prednisolone, the amount of the drug that is transferred to the breast milk is minimal. Therefore, it is unlikely to have any negative impact on the baby.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty breathing....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of left ventricular systolic dysfunction with an ejection fraction of 20%. A chest x-ray confirms acute pulmonary edema, which is immediately treated with high dose IV furosemide. Her vital signs on repeat assessment are as follows: oxygen saturation of 94% on 15L oxygen, heart rate of 124 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 74/50 mmHg. What is the next management option to consider?

      Your Answer: Inotropic support on the high dependency unit (HDU)

      Explanation:

      For patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction who are experiencing potentially reversible cardiogenic shock with hypotension, inotropic support on the high dependency unit (HDU) should be considered. This is because diuresis, which is the primary aim of management in acute pulmonary oedema, could lower blood pressure further and worsen the shock. Inotropes can help increase cardiac contractility and support blood pressure while diuresis is ongoing.

      Biphasic positive airway pressure (BiPAP) is not an immediate consideration for this patient as it is used primarily for non-invasive ventilation in hypoxic and hypercapnic patients. Pulmonary oedema does not typically lead to hypercapnia.

      Giving IV fluid for hypotension would not be appropriate as the hypotension is secondary to cardiogenic shock, not hypovolaemic shock. Administering further fluid in this scenario would worsen the patient’s condition by contributing to fluid overload.

      Bisoprolol is contraindicated in this scenario as it suppresses the compensatory tachycardia that occurs in acute heart failure to maintain cardiac output, which would worsen the cardiogenic shock. However, outside of an acute scenario, a patient can continue on their routine bisoprolol if they are already prescribed this for heart failure, unless they are bradycardic.

      Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments for all patients including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be necessary, with guidelines suggesting oxygen saturations be kept at 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may have a role in cases of concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect/contraindication. Patients with respiratory failure may require CPAP, while those with hypotension or cardiogenic shock may require inotropic agents like dobutamine or vasopressor agents like norepinephrine. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be necessary. Regular medication for heart failure should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped in certain circumstances. Opiates should not be routinely offered to patients with acute heart failure due to potential increased morbidity.

      In summary, acute management of heart failure involves a range of treatments depending on the patient’s specific condition. It is important to carefully consider the potential side-effects and contraindications of each treatment, and to continue regular medication for heart failure where appropriate. Opiates should be used with caution, and only in cases where they are likely to reduce dyspnoea/distress without causing harm. With appropriate management, patients with acute heart failure can receive the care they need to improve their outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and is diagnosed with lung...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and is diagnosed with lung cancer. He asks if his occupation could be a contributing factor. What is the most probable occupational risk factor for developing lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Passive smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a deadly disease that can be caused by various factors. The most significant risk factor for lung cancer is smoking, which increases the risk by a factor of 10. However, other factors such as exposure to asbestos, arsenic, radon, nickel, chromate, and aromatic hydrocarbon can also increase the risk of developing lung cancer. Additionally, cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis has been linked to an increased risk of lung cancer.

      It is important to note that not all factors are related to lung cancer. For example, coal dust exposure has not been found to increase the risk of lung cancer. However, smoking and asbestos exposure are synergistic, meaning that a smoker who is also exposed to asbestos has a 50 times increased risk of developing lung cancer (10 x 5). Understanding these risk factors can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and take steps to reduce their risk of developing lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department experiencing an asthma attack. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department experiencing an asthma attack. Despite being a known asthmatic, his condition is usually well managed with a salbutamol inhaler. Upon assessment, his peak expiratory flow rate is at 50%, respiratory rate at 22/min, heart rate at 105/min, blood pressure at 128/64 mmHg, and temperature at 36.7 ºC. During examination, he appears distressed and unable to complete sentences. A chest examination reveals widespread wheezing and respiratory distress.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Severe asthma attack

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      118.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic for review. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic for review. She has a past medical history of depression and gout. The patient was initiated on lisinopril for hypertension two months ago, with gradual titration of the dose and monitoring of her urea and electrolytes. During today's visit, she reports a dry cough that has been progressively worsening over the past four weeks. The cough is described as really annoying and is causing sleep disturbance. The patient is a non-smoker, and a chest x-ray performed six weeks ago during an Emergency Department visit was normal. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding her antihypertensive medications?

      Your Answer: Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      A dry cough is a common side effect experienced by patients who begin taking an ACE inhibitor. However, in this case, the patient has been suffering from this symptom for four weeks and it is affecting her sleep. Therefore, it is advisable to switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.

      Angiotensin II receptor blockers are a type of medication that is commonly used when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the development of a cough. Examples of these blockers include candesartan, losartan, and irbesartan. However, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with renovascular disease. Side-effects may include hypotension and hyperkalaemia.

      The mechanism of action for angiotensin II receptor blockers is to block the effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. These blockers have been shown to reduce the progression of renal disease in patients with diabetic nephropathy. Additionally, there is evidence to suggest that losartan can reduce the mortality rates associated with CVA and IHD in hypertensive patients.

      Overall, angiotensin II receptor blockers are a viable alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who cannot tolerate the latter. They have a proven track record of reducing the progression of renal disease and improving mortality rates in hypertensive patients. However, as with any medication, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man presents with worsening dyspnea. He has been a smoker for...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with worsening dyspnea. He has been a smoker for the past 20 years. Upon conducting pulmonary function tests, the following results were obtained:
      - FEV1: 1.3 L (predicted 3.6 L)
      - FVC: 1.6 L (predicted 4.2 L)
      - FEV1/FVC: 80% (normal > 75%)

      What respiratory disorder is most likely causing these findings?

      Your Answer: Neuromuscular disorder

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern in individuals with neuromuscular disorders, while obstructive patterns may be caused by other conditions.

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.

      Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.

      On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the most effective antibiotic for treating Chlamydia pneumonia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective antibiotic for treating Chlamydia pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Chlamydia Pneumoniae Infections

      Chlamydia pneumoniae infections are commonly treated with macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin. These antibiotics are effective against atypical pneumonias and should be taken for a long period of time (usually 10-14 days) with strict compliance to avoid suboptimal doses. However, the most common side effects of these antibiotics are nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

      Clindamycin is not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. Piperacillin and ampicillin are also not indicated due to in vitro resistance shown by the bacteria. Imipenem is also not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and...

    Correct

    • At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and wheeze. Approaching her, you inquire if she is choking. She replies that she believes a sip of hot coffee went down the wrong way. What should be your initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Encourage him to cough

      Explanation:

      Dealing with Choking Emergencies

      Choking is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening. It occurs when the airway is partially or completely blocked, often while eating. The first step in dealing with a choking victim is to ask them if they are choking. If they are able to speak and breathe, it may be a mild obstruction. However, if they are unable to speak or breathe, it is a severe obstruction and requires immediate action.

      According to the Resus Council, mild airway obstruction can be treated by encouraging the patient to cough. However, if the obstruction is severe and the patient is conscious, up to five back-blows and abdominal thrusts can be given. If these methods are unsuccessful, the cycle should be repeated. If the patient is unconscious, an ambulance should be called and CPR should be started.

      It is important to note that choking can happen to anyone, so it is important to be prepared and know how to respond in an emergency. By following these steps, you can help save a life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In which of the following respiratory diseases is clubbing not a feature? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following respiratory diseases is clubbing not a feature?

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Correct Answer: Bronchitis

      Explanation:

      The Significance of Finger Clubbing in Respiratory and Non-Respiratory Diseases

      Finger clubbing, the loss of the natural angle between the nail and the nailbed, is a significant clinical sign that can indicate underlying respiratory and non-respiratory diseases. Suppurative lung diseases such as long-standing bronchiectasis, acute lung abscesses, and empyema are commonly associated with finger clubbing. However, uncomplicated bronchitis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) do not typically cause clubbing, and patients with COPD who develop clubbing should be promptly investigated for other causes, particularly lung cancer.

      Finger clubbing is also commonly found in fibrosing alveolitis (idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis), asbestosis, and malignant diseases such as bronchial carcinoma and mesothelioma. In cases where finger clubbing is associated with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, a painful osteitis of the distal ends of the long bones of the lower arms and legs, it is designated grade IV.

      Overall, finger clubbing is an important clinical sign that should prompt further investigation to identify underlying respiratory and non-respiratory diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old female with a past medical history of sickle cell anaemia complains...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female with a past medical history of sickle cell anaemia complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. A chest x-ray reveals infiltrates in both lung bases. On room air, arterial blood gases show the following results:
      pH 7.39
      pCO2 4.6 kPa
      pO2 8.2 kPa
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute sickle chest syndrome

      Explanation:

      This presentation is characteristic of acute sickle chest syndrome.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      235.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of chest tightness and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of chest tightness and shortness of breath on exertion for the past month. He reports that the symptoms subside after resting for 5 minutes. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hypertension, and obesity.
      During the examination, the patient's temperature is 37.2ºC, heart rate is 86 bpm, blood pressure is 132/75 mmHg, and the ECG is normal.
      What is the most appropriate prophylactic medication for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prescribe sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      To prevent angina attacks, the first-line treatment is either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker. This patient is displaying symptoms of stable angina, which includes shortness of breath and chest tightness that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest. The ECG results are normal, ruling out any serious conditions like myocardial infarction. According to NICE guidelines, all patients with stable angina should receive aspirin and a statin, unless there are contraindications. Additionally, sublingual glyceryl trinitrate spray (GTN) should be given to stop acute angina attacks. However, GTN spray does not prevent future attacks, so prophylactic medication should also be prescribed.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with shortness of breath that has been worsening over the past two days. The patient is experiencing wheezing and is unable to speak in full sentences. Upon examination, the patient has widespread wheezing and crackles. Vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 30/min, oxygen saturation 92% on FiO2 0.24, heart rate 100/min, blood pressure 115/66 mmHg. A chest x-ray reveals no pneumothorax. The patient is administered nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium bromide driven by air, as well as oral steroids. Intravenous amoxicillin and oral clarithromycin are also given. However, the patient fails to improve after an hour of treatment and is extremely fatigued. An arterial blood gas is performed with the patient on 24% O2, which shows:
      pH 7.30
      PCO2 8 kPa
      PO2 8.4 kPa
      Bicarbonate 29 mEq/l
      What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer: BIPAP

      Explanation:

      Patient has exacerbation of COPD with maximal treatment for an hour. Remains acidotic with high PCO2 and respiratory acidosis. BTS guidelines suggest starting NIV.

      Guidelines for Non-Invasive Ventilation in Acute Respiratory Failure

      The British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Royal College of Physicians have published guidelines for the use of non-invasive ventilation (NIV) in acute respiratory failure. NIV can be used in patients with COPD and respiratory acidosis with a pH of 7.25-7.35. However, patients with a pH lower than 7.25 require greater monitoring and a lower threshold for intubation and ventilation. NIV is also recommended for type II respiratory failure due to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease, or obstructive sleep apnea, as well as for cardiogenic pulmonary edema unresponsive to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and weaning from tracheal intubation.

      For patients with COPD, the recommended initial settings for bi-level pressure support include an expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) of 4-5 cm H2O, an inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) of 10-15 cm H2O, a back-up rate of 15 breaths/min, and a back-up inspiration-to-expiration ratio of 1:3. These guidelines aim to improve patient outcomes and reduce the need for invasive mechanical ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and dry cough. She denies fever or weight loss and there is no past medical history of note. She reports smoking 5 cigarettes a day for 3 years whilst at college but has since stopped. There are no known allergies.
      On examination, her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 94% on air. There are audible crackles at the lung bases with expiratory wheeze.
      She is referred for spirometry testing:
      Forced expiratory volume (FEV1): 60% predicted
      Forced vital capacity (FVC): 80% predicted
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Obstructive Lung Disease: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes emphysematous changes in the lungs due to the loss of elasticity. This disease presents similarly to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze. However, AAT deficiency typically affects young men between 30-40 years old and is exacerbated by smoking. Spirometry testing reveals an obstructive pattern of disease (FEV1/FVC < 0.7). Other potential diagnoses for obstructive lung disease include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, these are less likely in this patient’s case. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is caused by allergen exposure and presents with acute symptoms such as fever and weight loss. Kartagener’s syndrome is a genetic disease that leads to recurrent respiratory infections and bronchiectasis. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma and typically affects individuals between 50-70 years old. In contrast to AAT deficiency, spirometry testing in fibrotic disease would show a result greater than 0.7 (FEV1/FVC > 0.7).

      In conclusion, AAT deficiency should be considered in the differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with obstructive lung disease, particularly in young men with a smoking history. Spirometry testing can help confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      211.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is:

      Your Answer: Heart rate of 104 beats/min

      Correct Answer: Cannot complete full sentences

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Indicators of Acute Asthma Exacerbations

      Acute asthma exacerbations can range from mild to life-threatening, and it is important to recognize the indicators of each level of severity. In a severe exacerbation, the individual may not be able to complete full sentences, have a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of ≥25 breaths/min, a heart rate of ≥110 beats/min, use of accessory muscles, and oxygen saturation of ≥92%. A life-threatening exacerbation is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness. A moderate exacerbation may include talking in full sentences, a peak expiratory flow rate of >50-75% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of <25 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of <110 beats/min. Finally, a life-threatening exacerbation may also include a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness, as well as exhaustion and poor respiratory effort. It is important to understand these indicators in order to properly assess and treat acute asthma exacerbations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old retired ship-builder has a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old retired ship-builder has a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath, dull right-sided chest pain, loss of appetite and sweats. He is a non-smoker. Examination of his lungs reveals dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right base.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Mesothelioma from Other Lung Diseases

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and is almost always caused by exposure to asbestos. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, fever, weight loss, and fatigue. A pleural effusion is also common in mesothelioma cases.

      Small-cell lung cancer, on the other hand, is highly aggressive and life expectancy is only weeks without treatment. Smoking is the major risk factor, although asbestos can also cause this type of lung cancer. Symptoms are similar to mesothelioma, but lack of smoking history and longer onset of symptoms point more towards mesothelioma.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is usually caused by smoking and presents with progressive shortness of breath, productive cough, frequent chest infections, and wheeze. Examination could reveal cyanosis, barrel chest, hyperresonance on percussion, poor air entry, and wheeze or coarse crackles. However, this presentation does not fit with COPD.

      Chronic thromoboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CPTH) can develop months or years after a large pulmonary embolism (PE) or after several episodes. Symptoms include shortness of breath, chest pain on exertion, and fatigue. The patient can go on to develop right heart failure, but this diagnosis would not explain the weight loss and sweats.

      Tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise. In this patient, the symptoms, along with history of asbestos exposure, are highly suggestive of mesothelioma rather than tuberculosis.

      In summary, distinguishing mesothelioma from other lung diseases requires careful consideration of symptoms, risk factors, and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      133
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (24/30) 80%
Passmed