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  • Question 1 - Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is...

    Incorrect

    • Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is unsure if he has experienced a heart attack. Which statement from the list accurately describes non-ST elevation myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: Q waves are present instead of ST elevation

      Correct Answer: There is a risk of recurrent infarction in up to 10% in the first month

      Explanation:

      Understanding Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) and Unstable Angina

      Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is a condition that is diagnosed in patients with chest pain who have elevated troponin T levels without the typical ECG changes of acute MI, such as Q-waves and ST elevation. Instead, there may be persistent or transient ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion, flat T waves, pseudo-normalisation of T waves, or no ECG changes at all. On the other hand, unstable angina is diagnosed when there is chest pain but no rise in troponin levels.

      Despite their differences, both NSTEMI and unstable angina are grouped together as acute coronary syndromes. In the acute phase, 5-10% of patients may experience death or re-infarction. Additionally, another 5-10% of patients may experience death due to recurrent myocardial infarction in the month after an acute episode.

      To manage these patients, many units take an aggressive approach with early angiography and angioplasty. By understanding the differences between NSTEMI and unstable angina, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and timely treatment to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of his chest wall. He is generally healthy but mentions that his father passed away 10 years ago due to heart problems. Upon examination, he is 195 cm tall (>99th centile) and slender, with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. The doctor suspects that he may have Marfan syndrome. What is the most prevalent cardiovascular abnormality observed in adults with Marfan syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder that affects various systems in the body. The most common cardiac complication is aortic root dilatation, which occurs in 70% of patients. Mitral valve prolapse is the second most common abnormality, affecting around 60% of patients. Beta-blockers can help reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture. Aortic dissection, although not the most common abnormality, is a major diagnostic criterion of Marfan syndrome and can result from weakening of the aortic media due to root dilatation. Aortic regurgitation is less common than mitral regurgitation but can occur due to progressive aortic root dilatation and connective tissue abnormalities. Mitral annular calcification is more frequent in Marfan syndrome than in the general population but is not included in the diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There is no previous history of any abnormal cardiac findings.
      Select from the list the single most likely explanation of this murmur.

      Your Answer: Physiological

      Explanation:

      Systolic Murmurs in Pregnancy: Causes and Characteristics

      During pregnancy, the increased blood volume and flow through the heart can result in the appearance of innocent murmurs. In fact, a study found that 93.2% of healthy pregnant women had a systolic murmur at some point during pregnancy. These murmurs are typically systolic, may have a diastolic component, and can occur at any stage of pregnancy. They are often located at the second left intercostal space or along the left sternal border, but can radiate widely. If there is any doubt, referral for cardiological assessment is recommended.

      Aortic stenosis produces a specific type of systolic murmur that begins shortly after the first heart sound and ends just before the second heart sound. It is best heard in the second right intercostal space. Mitral murmurs, on the other hand, are best heard at the apex and can radiate to the axilla. Mitral incompetence produces a pansystolic murmur of even intensity throughout systole, while mitral valve prolapse produces a mid-systolic click. A ventricular septal defect produces a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard along the left sternal edge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      104.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.

      Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).

      One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.

      Repeat investigations show:

      Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)

      Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.

      What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?

      Your Answer: Increase digoxin to 0.25 mg daily alternating with 0.375 mg daily

      Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.

      ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.

      It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      144.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
    You saw her several weeks ago with a...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
      You saw her several weeks ago with a clinical diagnosis of heart failure and a high brain natriuretic peptide level. You referred her for echocardiography and cardiology assessment. Following the referral she now has a diagnosis of 'Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction'.
      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following combinations of medication should be used as first line treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor and angiotensin receptor blocker

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor and beta blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Heart Failure with Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The 2003 NICE guidance suggests starting with ACE inhibitors and then adding beta-blockers, but the 2010 update recommends using clinical judgement to determine which drug to start first. For example, a beta-blocker may be more appropriate for a patient with angina or tachycardia. However, combination treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to start drug treatment in a stepwise manner and to ensure the patient’s condition is stable before initiating therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      81.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension experiences sudden onset of severe...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension experiences sudden onset of severe chest pain, radiating to the back and left shoulder. On examination, he is hemiplegic, with pallor and sweating. His heart rate is 120 bpm and his blood pressure is 174/89 mmHg, but 153/72 mmHg when measured on the opposite arm.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dissection of the thoracic aorta

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hemiplegia in a patient with chest pain

      Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, intracranial haemorrhage, ruptured thoracic aneurysm, and ruptured ventricular aneurysm are among the possible causes of chest pain and hemiplegia in a patient with a history of hypertension. Aortic dissection is the most likely diagnosis, given the abrupt onset and maximal severity of chest pain at onset, as well as the potential for carotid involvement and limb blood pressure differences. Myocardial infarction may also cause chest pain but is less likely to present with hemiplegia. Intracranial haemorrhage may cause hemiplegia but is more likely to present with a headache. Ruptured thoracic aneurysm may cause acute chest, back, or neck pain, but is unlikely to cause hemiplegia. Ruptured ventricular aneurysm is a complication of myocardial infarction but typically doesn’t rupture. A careful differential diagnosis is essential for appropriate management and prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis....

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking 10 mg of ramipril once a day, 10 mg of amlodipine once a day, indapamide 2.5 mg once a day, 500mg of Metformin twice a day, co-codamol PRN and atorvastatin 20 mg at night.

      During her visit to the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is consistently elevated and today it is 160/98 mmHg. As per the NICE guidelines, you want to initiate another medication to help lower her BP. Her K+ level is 4.2 mmol/l.

      What would be the most suitable additional medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from poorly controlled hypertension despite being on three medications, including an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. If the patient’s potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l, the next step would be to add spironolactone to their treatment plan. However, if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, a higher dose of thiazide-like diuretic treatment should be considered. It is important to note that bendroflumethiazide is not suitable in this case as the patient is already taking indapamide, and chlortalidone is also a thiazide-like diuretic and should not be added. Additionally, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should not be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      140.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition where the left ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged, often affecting the interventricular septum and causing a blockage in the left ventricular outflow tract. Patients with HCM typically experience shortness of breath, but may also have angina or fainting spells. Physical examination may reveal a prominent presystolic S4 gallop, a harsh systolic ejection murmur, and a left ventricular apical impulse. The Valsalva manoeuvre and standing up from a squatting position can increase the intensity of the murmur. An echocardiogram is the preferred diagnostic test for HCM. Syncope occurs in 15-25% of HCM patients, and recurrent syncope in young patients may indicate an increased risk of sudden death. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, typically affects older patients and causes exertional syncope. The ejection systolic murmur associated with aortic stenosis is loudest at the upper right sternal border and radiates to the carotids. It increases with squatting and decreases with standing and isometric muscular contraction. Atrial fibrillation can also cause syncope, but if it is associated with HCM, the underlying cause is still HCM. Vasovagal syncope is usually triggered by prolonged standing or exposure to hot, crowded environments. The term syncope excludes other conditions that cause altered consciousness, such as seizures or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit registration medical.

      He is completely asymptomatic but his blood pressure measures 150/95 mmHg, then 148/90 mmHg and 155/98 mmHg on two further visits a few weeks apart. He is not taking any medication currently.

      What is the next best treatment option for this gentleman?

      Your Answer: Refer to a hypertension specialist

      Correct Answer: Organise a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Blood Pressure Monitoring

      The latest NICE guidelines recommend ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) before starting therapy, except for patients with severe hypertension (BP 180/120 mmHg). If the clinic blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, ABPM should be offered to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. When using ABPM to confirm hypertension, it is important to take at least two measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours (e.g., between 08:00 and 22:00). To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, the average value of at least 14 measurements taken during the person’s usual waking hours should be used. These guidelines aim to improve the accuracy of hypertension diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing for the past few weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Initially, she thought it was just a cold, but now she has noticed swelling in her feet. Upon examination, she has crackling sounds in both lungs, a third heart sound, and a displaced point of maximum impulse.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic heart disease

      Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Cardiomyopathy and Recent Travel History

      Cardiomyopathy is a myocardial disorder that can range from asymptomatic to life-threatening. It is important to consider this diagnosis in young patients presenting with heart failure, arrhythmias, or thromboembolism. While recent travel history may be relevant to other potential diagnoses, such as atypical pneumonia or thromboembolism, neither of these fully fit the patient’s history and examination. Rheumatic heart disease, pericarditis, and pulmonary embolus can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. The underlying cause and type of cardiomyopathy in this case are unknown but could be multiple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man with known congestive cardiac failure presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with known congestive cardiac failure presents to his General Practitioner for his annual review. He reports that his heart failure symptoms have been stable in recent months. On examination his heart rate is 68 bpm but is noted to be irregularly irregular, blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturations 95% in air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms atrial fibrillation (AF) with a stable ventricular rate of 72 bpm.
      Which single medication from the following list would be most beneficial from the point of view of this patient’s atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Sotalol

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: Anticoagulation with Warfarin as Initial Therapy

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) patients who are haemodynamically stable have an intermediate risk and require anticoagulation therapy. The initial treatment for such patients is anticoagulation with warfarin, which is also indicated in valvular heart disease and the elderly. Other options for anticoagulation include apixaban, dabigatran etexilate, and rivaroxaban, within their licensed indications. The decision to use anticoagulation in AF is guided by the CHA2DS2-VASc scores, which assess the risk factors for stroke. Patients with a very low risk of stroke (CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0 for men, or 1 for women) should not be offered stroke prevention therapy. Anticoagulation should be offered to people with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 (1 in men) or above, taking bleeding risk into account.

      While furosemide is a potential treatment for congestive cardiac failure, it is not urgently required in haemodynamically stable patients. Aspirin is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in any patient with AF. Digoxin is a potential rate-limiting medication in people with non-paroxysmal AF, but rate limitation is not the first priority in this case as the ventricular rate is normal. Sotalol, a cardioselective beta-blocker, is used in rate control for AF with a fast ventricular response, but is not required for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      74.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man is worried about his blood pressure and has used his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is worried about his blood pressure and has used his wife's home blood pressure monitor. He found his blood pressure to be 154/96 mmHg. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured twice, with readings of 156/98 mmHg and 154/98 mmHg. He has no significant medical history. To assess his overall health, you schedule him for a fasting glucose and lipid profile test. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Arrange ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      Prior to initiating treatment, NICE suggests verifying the diagnosis through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 62-year-old man presents with shortness of breath during physical activity. His heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with shortness of breath during physical activity. His heart rate is 102 and irregularly irregular. He has a loud first heart sound with an opening snap in early diastole. He also has a mid/late diastolic murmur.
      What is the most probable cause of his heart condition from the options given below?

      Your Answer: Degenerative valvular calcification

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Stenosis: Symptoms and Causes

      Mitral stenosis is a condition that can lead to atrial fibrillation and is characterized by a distinct heart murmur. The first heart sound is louder than usual and may be felt at the apex due to increased force in closing the mitral valve. An opening snap, a high-pitched sound, may be heard after the A2 component of the second heart sound, indicating the forceful opening of the mitral valve. A mid-diastolic rumbling murmur with presystolic accentuation is also present. Rheumatic fever is the most common cause, but degenerative changes and congenital defects can also lead to mitral stenosis. It is important to note that mitral regurgitation, not stenosis, is caused by ischemic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      56.9
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man with heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath. During...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath. During examination, his peripheral oedema has worsened since his last visit (pitting to mid shins, previously to ankles). He has bibasal crackles on auscultation of his lungs; his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg but his heart rate and oxygen saturations are within normal limits. His current medication includes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, loop diuretic and beta-blocker.
      What is the most appropriate management to alleviate symptoms and decrease mortality?

      Your Answer: Add spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Worsening Heart Failure

      When a patient with worsening heart failure is already on the recommended combination of an ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic, adding low-dose spironolactone can further reduce cardiovascular mortality. However, it is important to monitor renal function and potassium levels. Stopping beta-blockers suddenly can cause rebound ischaemic events and arrhythmias, so reducing the dose may be a better option if spironolactone therapy doesn’t improve symptoms. Adding digoxin can help reduce breathlessness, but it has no effect on mortality. If the patient has an atherosclerotic cause of heart failure, adding high-intensity statins like simvastatin may be appropriate for secondary prevention. Stopping ACE inhibitors is not recommended as they have a positive prognostic benefit in chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is accurate?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen therapy increases the risk of VTE

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual blood test at work. He is otherwise well with no symptoms reported.

      He was found to have a serum phosphate of 0.7.
      Other tests done include FBC, U+Es, LFTs, Calcium and PTH which were all normal.
      Serum phosphate normal range (0-8-1.4 mmol/L)

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound neck

      Explanation:

      Management of Mild Hypophosphataemia

      In cases of mild hypophosphataemia, monitoring is often sufficient. It may be helpful to check vitamin D levels as it can affect phosphate uptake and renal excretion, along with parathyroid hormone (PTH). If there is a concurrent low magnesium level, it may indicate dietary deficiencies.

      An ultrasound of the neck is not necessary unless there are signs of enlarged parathyroid glands. Oral phosphate is typically reserved for preventing refeeding syndrome in cases of anorexia, starvation, or alcoholism. Mild hypophosphataemia usually resolves on its own.

      Parenteral phosphate may be considered in acute situations but requires inpatient monitoring of calcium, phosphate, and other electrolytes. Referral should only be considered if the patient is symptomatic, has short stature or skeletal deformities consistent with rickets, or if the hypophosphataemia is chronic or severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 79-year-old man is being seen in the hypertension clinic. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man is being seen in the hypertension clinic. What is the recommended target blood pressure for him once he starts treatment?

      Your Answer: 140/85 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 150/90 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 75 year old woman comes to the Emergency Department with gradual onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old woman comes to the Emergency Department with gradual onset of dyspnea. During the examination, the patient exhibits an S3 gallop rhythm, bibasal crackles, and pitting edema up to both knees. An electrocardiogram reveals indications of left ventricular hypertrophy, and a chest X-ray shows small bilateral pleural effusions, cardiomegaly, and upper lobe diversion.

      Considering the probable diagnosis, which of the following medications has been demonstrated to enhance long-term survival?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits symptoms of congestive heart failure, which can be managed with loop diuretics and nitrates in acute or decompensated cases. However, these medications do not improve long-term survival. To reduce mortality in patients with left ventricular failure, ACE-inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin receptor blockers, aldosterone antagonists, and hydralazine with nitrates have all been proven effective. Digoxin can reduce hospital admissions but not mortality, and is typically used in patients with worsening heart failure despite initial treatments or those with co-existing atrial fibrillation.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling his heart skip a beat regularly but denies any other symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, chest pain, or fainting.

      Upon examination, his chest is clear and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral edema. His blood pressure is 126/64 mmHg and his ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no P waves and a heart rate of 82/min.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral for 24-hours ECG and commence on apixaban and bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Assessment using ORBIT bleeding risk tool and CHA2DS2-VASc tool

      Explanation:

      To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct an assessment using both the CHA2DS2-VASc tool and the ORBIT bleeding risk tool. This applies to all patients with atrial fibrillation, according to current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, the option to commence on apixaban and bisoprolol is not correct.

      The patient’s symptoms and ECG findings indicate atrial fibrillation, but there is no indication for a 24-hour ECG. Therefore, referral for a 24-hour ECG and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not necessary.

      As there are no signs or symptoms of heart failure and no evidence of valvular heart disease on examination, referral for an echocardiogram and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not the appropriate option.

      The patient is currently haemodynamically stable.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Her left ventricular ejection fraction is 55%. She has been experiencing orthopnoea and ankle swelling. The cardiology team has referred her to you for medication initiation.

      During the assessment, her vital signs are blood pressure 120/80 mmHg and heart rate 82/min.

      What should be the initial consideration in her management?

      Your Answer: Enalapril, carvedilol and furosemide

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is the appropriate choice for managing symptoms in individuals with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction using loop diuretics. Spironolactone is not recommended for this purpose. In cases of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists should be considered along with an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker if symptoms persist.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She enjoys walking her dog but has noticed a decrease in exercise tolerance. She reports experiencing fast, irregular palpitations at various times throughout the day.

      During the examination, you observe flushed cheeks, a blood pressure reading of 140/95, and a raised JVP. You suspect the presence of a diastolic murmur. In a subsequent communication from the cardiologist, they describe a loud first heart sound, an opening snap, and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral Stenosis and Palpitations

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension. Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap. Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures. AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

      Spacing:

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension.

      Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap.

      Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures.

      AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil prescription, which he has been taking for several years. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover that he suffered a heart attack four months ago. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Do not prescribe as contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil use is not recommended for patients who have had a recent myocardial infarction or unstable angina, as stated in both the BNF and NICE guidelines. As the patient in this question had a myocardial infarction just 4 months ago, prescribing sildenafil is contraindicated. Therefore, the answer to this question is do not prescribe.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?

      Your Answer: Omega 3 fatty acids

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy

      NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      75.9
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high resting blood pressure.

      Ambulatory testing revealed a level of 146/84 mmHg. He has no signs of end organ damage on standard testing.

      According to the latest NICE guidance (NG136), what would be your most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Assess his risk using a risk stratifier such as QRISK®2 to decide on a treatment plan

      Correct Answer: Start treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of NICE Guidance on Hypertension

      This passage discusses the latest NICE guidance on hypertension and its importance in evaluating the long-term balance of treatment benefit and risks for adults under 40 with hypertension. However, it also highlights the criticism that the guidance has received from some clinicians, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring. It is important to have a balanced view and be aware of other guidelines and consensus opinions in medicine. While AKT questions may not contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to consider the bigger picture and not solely rely on the latest guidance. Remember that the questions test your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion. Proper understanding of NICE guidance on hypertension is crucial, but it is equally important to have a broader perspective on the matter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A 78-year-old man presents at the clinic for follow-up of his heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents at the clinic for follow-up of his heart failure. He was referred by his GP through the rapid assessment pathway and has received the results of his recent Echocardiogram. The patient has a history of hypertension and an inferior myocardial infarction and is currently taking amlodipine and ramipril 5 mg. On examination, his BP is 150/82, his pulse is regular at 84 beats per minute, and there are bibasal crackles on chest auscultation, but no significant pitting edema is observed. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 132 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 9.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelet count of 179 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine level of 124 μmol/L (79-118). The Echocardiogram shows no significant valvular disease, with an ejection fraction of 31%. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for his heart failure?

      Your Answer: Add spironolactone 50 mg

      Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol 2.5 mg and titrate up the beta blocker and ramipril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Guidelines for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. According to the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106), combination therapy with a beta blocker licensed for the treatment of heart failure and an ACE inhibitor is recommended. The philosophy of start low and titrate up both therapies slowly in patients with a proven reduced ejection fraction is also emphasized.

      Carvedilol and bisoprolol are the two major beta blockers used for the treatment of cardiac failure, and both have well-characterized titration schedules. For second-line treatment, the addition of spironolactone at a low dose (25 mg) is recommended. In cases where patients are intolerant of both ACE inhibitors and ARBs, alternatives such as hydralazine combined with nitrate can be used.

      To follow the guidelines, it is recommended to add bisoprolol 2.5 mg and titrate up the beta blocker and ramipril. By following these guidelines, patients with chronic heart failure can receive the best possible care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      129.1
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  • Question 26 - A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th...

    Incorrect

    • A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th birthday. He is keen to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks about being started on a 'statin'.

      He has no significant past medical history and takes no medication. His father had a 'heart attack' aged seventy, but his father was obese and a heavy smoker. There is no other family history of note. There is no suggestion of a familial lipid condition.

      What is the most appropriate management approach at this point?

      Your Answer: In view of his family history refer him to lipid clinic for assessment

      Correct Answer: Optimise adherence to diet and lifestyle measures

      Explanation:

      Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      This patient has no history of cardiovascular disease (CVD), and therefore, the primary prevention approach is necessary. The first step is to use a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2 to evaluate the patient’s cardiovascular risk. If the patient has a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD, measuring their lipid profile and offering atorvastatin 20 mg daily would be appropriate. Additionally, providing advice to optimize diet and lifestyle measures is necessary. However, if the patient’s risk is less than 10%, then diet and lifestyle advice/optimization in isolation would be appropriate. At this point, there is no specific indication for lipid clinic input. The use of QRISK2 in this scenario is the best approach as it guides the management, including whether pharmacological treatment with a statin is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing her echocardiogram, it is found that she has a reduced ejection fraction of 40% and no significant valve disease. Her blood pressure is measured at 160/90 mmHg during the visit. There is no indication of fluid overload, and her weight has remained stable. The patient is currently taking bisoprolol and furosemide.

      After reviewing her blood work, it is discovered that her potassium levels are slightly elevated at 5.3 mmol/L. What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor and repeat urea and electrolytes in 2-3 weeks

      Correct Answer: Seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor owing to the raised potassium

      Explanation:

      Before initiating an ACE inhibitor in patients with heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, it is recommended to seek specialist advice if the potassium level is above 5 mmol/L. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests starting bisoprolol and ramipril for such patients. However, if the potassium level is high, it is advisable to repeat the urea and electrolytes in 2-3 weeks and seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor. As the patient is asymptomatic, increasing the dose of furosemide would not be beneficial. There is no need for same-day medical assessment as the patient is currently stable. Although bendroflumethiazide may be suitable for hypertension, NICE CKS recommends ACEi for heart failure treatment.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon conducting an ECG, it is revealed that she has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication should be prescribed to manage her heart rate?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - What is the typical target INR for a patient with a mechanical aortic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical target INR for a patient with a mechanical aortic valve?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 3.5

      Explanation:

      The recommended target INR for mechanical valves is 3.0 for aortic valves and 3.5 for mitral valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A patient is at highest risk of developing venous thromboembolism due to which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is at highest risk of developing venous thromboembolism due to which of the following options? Please select only one.

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Correct Answer: Hip fracture

      Explanation:

      Predisposing Factors for Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism is a serious medical condition that occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing pulmonary embolism.

      Strong predisposing factors, with an odds ratio greater than 10, include fractures (hip or leg), hip or knee replacement, major general surgery, major trauma, and spinal cord injury.

      Moderate predisposing factors, with an odds ratio between 2 and 9, include arthroscopic knee surgery, central venous lines, chemotherapy, chronic heart or respiratory failure, hormone replacement therapy, malignancy, oral contraceptive therapy, paralytic stroke, pregnancy/postpartum, previous venous thromboembolism, and thrombophilia.

      Weak predisposing factors, with an odds ratio of 2 or less, include bed rest for more than 3 days, immobility due to sitting (such as prolonged car or air travel), increasing age, laparoscopic surgery (such as cholecystectomy), obesity, pregnancy/antepartum, and varicose veins.

      It is important to be aware of these predisposing factors and take appropriate measures to prevent pulmonary embolism, especially in high-risk individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      36
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (9/30) 30%
Passmed