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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old female patient comes to see her doctor, 2 weeks after undergoing...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female patient comes to see her doctor, 2 weeks after undergoing a medical abortion. She has concerns that the procedure may not have been successful as her home pregnancy test still shows a positive result. What is the expected timeframe for the pregnancy test to become negative if the abortion was effective?

      Your Answer: Negative 2 weeks from today

      Explanation:

      After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. If the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it may indicate an incomplete abortion or persistent trophoblast. In this case, the correct answer to when the pregnancy test should be negative is 2 weeks from now, as the termination occurred 2 weeks ago. A negative result one week ago is not relevant, and 4 weeks from today or 8 weeks from today are both incorrect as they fall outside of the 4-week window.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.

      First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.

      Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.

      Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      517.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring and distortion of central vision and difficulty with night vision that has been going on for 2 years. She reports that her vision is sometimes poor and sometimes better. During the examination using a direct ophthalmoscope, yellow deposits were observed at the macula. What is the initial treatment for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Pan-retinal photocoagulation

      Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation

      Explanation:

      Vitamin supplementation containing vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc can delay the progression of dry age-related macular degeneration (AMD) from intermediate to advanced stages. However, there is no other treatment available for dry AMD, and management is mainly supportive. Pan-retinal photocoagulation is not used for either dry or wet AMD. Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection is reserved for wet AMD, where there is choroidal neovascularization. This treatment stops abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. Focal laser photocoagulation is sometimes used in wet AMD, but anti-VEGF injections are now the preferred treatment. Photodynamic therapy can be used in wet AMD when anti-VEGF is not an option or for those who do not want repeated intravitreal injections. The patient in question has dry AMD, with metamorphopsia as a symptom and yellow deposits at the macula known as drusen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      50.9
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  • Question 4 - A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling around her left eye over the past 48 hours. During the examination, she reports pain and double vision when her eye movements are assessed. There is also tenderness and erythema over the left eyelid. Her temperature is 38°C. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Topical ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Intravenous cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis by the presence of symptoms such as reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain when moving the eyes. If a person experiences painful eye movements and visual disturbances along with a red, swollen, and tender eye, it is a cause for concern and may indicate orbital cellulitis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer urgent empirical intravenous antibiotics that cover gram-positive and anaerobic organisms, such as Intravenous cefotaxime or clindamycin. On the other hand, preseptal cellulitis can be managed with oral co-amoxiclav and close monitoring. Unlike orbital cellulitis, preseptal cellulitis does not cause painful eye movements or visual disturbances and is less likely to cause fever.

      In rare cases, subperiosteal or orbital abscess may complicate orbital cellulitis, leading to symptoms such as proptosis, headache (facial, throbbing), and reduced visual acuity. In such cases, surgical drainage may be necessary, but intravenous empirical antibiotics would still be an essential part of the treatment. It is worth noting that these conditions are more likely to occur as a complication of sinusitis rather than orbital cellulitis.

      Bacterial keratitis, which is more common in contact lens users, can be treated with topical ciprofloxacin. This condition presents with symptoms such as eye pain, watering, and photophobia but does not cause eyelid swelling, diplopia, or fever.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old woman presents with increasing bloating and mild lower abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with increasing bloating and mild lower abdominal pain that started 3 hours ago. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness and ascites, but no guarding. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs include a heart rate of 98/minute, a blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 22/minute. The patient is currently undergoing IVF treatment and had her final hCG injection 5 days ago. She has been having regular, unprotected sex during treatment. A pregnancy test confirms she is pregnant. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a gynecological issue, possibly ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, which can occur as a side-effect of ovulation induction. The presence of ascites, low blood pressure, and tachycardia indicate fluid loss into the abdomen, but the absence of peritonitis suggests it is not a catastrophic hemorrhage. The recent hCG injection increases the likelihood of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, which is more common with IVF and injectable treatments than with oral fertility agents like clomiphene. Ovarian cyst rupture, ovarian torsion, red degeneration, and ruptured ectopic pregnancy are unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      97.4
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her doctor with symptoms of depression. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her doctor with symptoms of depression. She has been feeling withdrawn and neglectful of herself, with poor sleep and reduced appetite. Upon diagnosis of a depressive episode, her doctor prescribes citalopram 20 mg daily. What is the primary mechanism of action of citalopram?

      Your Answer: Inhibiting reabsorption of serotonin by the post-synaptic terminal

      Correct Answer: Inhibiting reabsorption of serotonin by the presynaptic terminal

      Explanation:

      Citalopram and Serotonin Modulation

      Citalopram is a type of antidepressant drug that belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the reabsorption of serotonin from the synaptic cleft, which is the space between neurons, by blocking its uptake by monoamine transporters on the presynaptic terminal. This increases the concentration of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, which is thought to improve symptoms of depression.

      Other drugs and substances that modulate serotonin concentration include monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), recreational drugs like ecstasy and amphetamines, the antibiotic linezolid, the analgesic drug tramadol, and herbal remedies like St John’s wort and yohimbe. However, flooding the synapse with serotonin can also activate autoreceptors that downregulate serotonin production, leading to a relative worsening of symptoms at the start of therapy. Prolonged use of SSRIs can also lead to downregulation of post-synaptic receptors and a loss of efficacy.

      Newer research has shown that modulating the serotonergic neurotransmitter system in different ways can also bring about antidepressant effects. For example, a drug that enhances selective serotonin reuptake has recently been licensed, which ensures a ready supply of presynaptic serotonin available for release. It is important to monitor patients during therapy to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who...

    Correct

    • A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who is worried about his child's decreased appetite and mouth ulcers for the past three days. During the examination, a few blisters are observed on the soles of his feet. Vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.8ºC, heart rate of 125/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% in room air.

      The father reports that his child was born at full term through a normal delivery, is following the growth chart appropriately, and has received all the recommended vaccinations. What is the most probable cause of the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Coxsackie A16

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms are indicative of hand, foot and mouth disease, which is caused by Coxsackie A16. The condition is characterized by mild systemic discomfort, oral ulcers, and vesicles on the palms and soles. It typically resolves on its own within 7 to 10 days, and the child may find relief from any pain by taking over-the-counter analgesics. Over-the-counter oral numbing sprays may also help alleviate sore throat symptoms. Kawasaki disease, on the other hand, is associated with a higher fever than what this child is experiencing, as well as some distinct features that can be recalled using the mnemonic ‘CRASH and burn’. These include conjunctivitis (bilateral), non-vesicular rash, cervical adenopathy, swollen strawberry tongue, and hand or foot swelling, along with a fever that lasts for more than 5 days and is very high.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      50.1
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an appointment for her first scan at 12+4 weeks’ gestation. She wants to know what the appointment will involve.
      Regarding the 11–13 week appointment, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: It can also include the ‘combined test’

      Explanation:

      Understanding Down Syndrome Screening Tests

      Down syndrome screening tests are important for pregnant women to determine the likelihood of their baby having the condition. One of the most common tests is the combined test, which is performed between 11+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation. This test involves a blood test and an ultrasound scan to measure serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and β-hCG, as well as nuchal translucency. The results are combined to give an individual risk of having a baby with Down syndrome.

      If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she can opt for the quadruple test, which is performed between weeks 15 and 16 of gestation. This test measures four serum markers: inhibin, aFP, unconjugated oestriol, and total serum hCG. Low aFP and unconjugated oestriol, as well as raised inhibin and hCG, are associated with Down syndrome.

      It is important to note that these tests are not diagnostic, but rather provide a risk assessment. Women who are classified as high risk may opt for a diagnostic test, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling, to confirm the presence of an extra chromosome. All pregnant women in the UK should be offered Down syndrome screening and given the opportunity to make an informed decision about participating in the test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      87.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - How is the distribution of a drug throughout the body quantified? ...

    Incorrect

    • How is the distribution of a drug throughout the body quantified?

      Your Answer: Bioactivity

      Correct Answer: Volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      Body Fluid Compartments

      Pharmacokinetics involves the processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs in the body. The distribution of a drug is determined by its chemical structure, size, and ability to transport itself across membranes. The volume of distribution (Vd) describes what happens to the drug once it is in the body. For a typical 70 kg adult, a Vd of ,14 L indicates that the drug is spread among the extracellular fluid space only, while a Vd greater than 42 L suggests that the drug is likely to be lipophilic and its distribution is not limited to the body’s fluid. Some drugs with very high Vds will be preferentially distributed in the body’s fat reserves.

      The Vd is a theoretical concept that essentially describes how much fluid is needed to hold the given dose of a drug to maintain the same plasma concentration. The body fluid compartments include the intracellular fluid (ICF), which is the fluid inside the cells, and the extracellular fluid (ECF), which is the fluid outside the cells. The ECF is further divided into the interstitial fluid (ISF), which is the fluid between the cells, and the plasma, which is the fluid component of blood. The distribution of a drug will depend on its ability to cross the cell membrane and its affinity for different body compartments. the body fluid compartments and the volume of distribution is important in determining the appropriate dosage and duration of drug therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During puberty growth spurt, in which area does the majority of growth occur?...

    Correct

    • During puberty growth spurt, in which area does the majority of growth occur?

      Your Answer: Spine

      Explanation:

      The Role of Axial Skeleton Growth in Puberty Height Gain

      During puberty, the axial skeleton growth plays a significant role in height gain. This growth spurt usually occurs after the development of other secondary sexual characteristics, with boys experiencing it at 12-14 years and girls at 10-12 years. The height gained during this period is dependent on bone growth at the epiphyseal plates, which fuse under the influence of sex hormones. While the peripheral growth plates begin to fuse from early puberty, those in the spine remain active until after the growth spurt.

      The majority of bone growth is stimulated by growth hormone, which is secreted in response to oestradiol and testosterone. Therefore, it is the action of growth hormone on the active epiphyseal plates in the spine that is responsible for the growth spurt. Overall, the axial skeleton growth is a crucial factor in determining the height gain during puberty, and it is essential to understand its role in the growth process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
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