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  • Question 1 - A young girl comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps that...

    Correct

    • A young girl comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps that occur every month. Her physician assures her that this is a common issue and prescribes mefenamic acid as a pain reliever. What is the mechanism of action of mefenamic acid?

      Your Answer: Inhibiting COX, decreasing prostaglandin production

      Explanation:

      Mefenamic acid is classified as an NSAID because it works by inhibiting COX, which ultimately leads to a decrease in prostaglandin production. Any response indicating an increase or alteration in prostaglandin levels would be inaccurate. The idea of blocking dorsal horn sodium channels is more characteristic of a neuropathic medication rather than an NSAID.

      Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.

      However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.

      Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A young woman presents with sudden palpitations and difficulty breathing, and her ECG...

    Correct

    • A young woman presents with sudden palpitations and difficulty breathing, and her ECG reveals tachycardia. Which cardiac component typically experiences the most rapid depolarization?

      Your Answer: Sino-atrial node

      Explanation:

      The heart’s conducting system is made up of specialized cardiac muscle cells and fibers that generate and rapidly transmit action potentials. This system is crucial for coordinating the contractions of the heart’s chambers during the cardiac cycle. When this system malfunctions due to conduction blockages or abnormal action potential sources, it can lead to arrhythmias.

      The conducting system has five main components:

      1. The sino-atrial (SAN) node, located in the right atrium, generates electrical signals.
      2. These signals stimulate the atria to contract and travel to the atrio-ventricular (AVN) node in the interatrial septum.
      3. After a delay, the stimulus diverges and is conducted through the left and right bundle of His.
      4. The conduction then passes to the respective Purkinje fibers for each side of the heart.
      5. Finally, the electrical signals reach the endocardium at the apex of the heart and the ventricular epicardium.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A middle-aged woman who is obese comes in with complaints of polyuria. She...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman who is obese comes in with complaints of polyuria. She has a history of squamous cell lung carcinoma. What could be the possible reason for her polyuria?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Polyuria is caused by all the options listed above, except for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. However, the patient’s age does not match the typical onset of type 1 diabetes, which usually occurs in young individuals. Furthermore, squamous cell lung carcinoma is commonly associated with a paraneoplastic syndrome that results in the release of excess parathyroid hormone by the tumor, leading to hypercalcemia and subsequent polyuria, along with other symptoms such as renal and biliary stones, bone pain, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, depression, and anxiety.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old man is on day 9 of his cycle from Land's End...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is on day 9 of his cycle from Land's End to John O'Groats. He made a wrong turn and ran out of fluids. After getting back on track, he found a shop and purchased a 2L bottle of water.

      Which part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing the majority of this water?

      Your Answer: Thin ascending loop

      Correct Answer: Proximal tubule

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the proximal tubule. This is where the majority of filtered water is reabsorbed, due to the osmotic force generated by Na+ reabsorption. Bowman’s capsule only allows for ultrafiltration, while the collecting duct allows for variable water reabsorption, but not to the same extent as the proximal tubule. The distal tubule also plays a role in Na+ reabsorption, but water reabsorption is dependent on this mechanism.

      The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology

      The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 79-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of swollen ankles and difficulty walking. She has previously experienced fluid retention due to her heart failure. During the examination, soft heart sounds are heard and pitting edema is observed in both lower limbs up to 15 cm above the ankles. The decision is made to increase her daily furosemide dose from 40mg to 80 mg. Which part of the nephron does furosemide target?

      Your Answer: Proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. It is commonly used to treat fluid retention in patients with heart failure. Other diuretic agents work on different parts of the nephron, such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors in the proximal and distal tubules, thiazide diuretics in the distal convoluted tubule, and potassium-sparing diuretics like amiloride and spironolactone in the cortical collecting ducts. Understanding the mechanism of action of diuretics can help clinicians choose the most appropriate medication for their patients.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which receptor is predominantly targeted by noradrenaline? ...

    Correct

    • Which receptor is predominantly targeted by noradrenaline?

      Your Answer: α 1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is derived from noradrenaline and has a potent effect on α 1 receptors, although it can also increase myocardial contractility. When administered through infusions, it causes vasoconstriction and a rise in overall peripheral resistance. Noradrenaline is the preferred inotrope for treating septic shock.

      Inotropes are drugs that primarily increase cardiac output and are different from vasoconstrictor drugs that are used for peripheral vasodilation. Catecholamine type agents are commonly used in inotropes and work by increasing cAMP levels through adenylate cyclase stimulation. This leads to intracellular calcium ion mobilisation and an increase in the force of contraction. Adrenaline works as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dopamine causes dopamine receptor-mediated renal and mesenteric vascular dilatation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses, resulting in increased cardiac output. Dobutamine is a predominantly beta 1 receptor agonist with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Noradrenaline is a catecholamine type agent and predominantly acts as an alpha receptor agonist and serves as a peripheral vasoconstrictor. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts specifically on the cardiac phosphodiesterase and increases cardiac output.

      The cardiovascular receptor action of inotropes varies depending on the drug. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act on alpha and beta receptors, with adrenaline acting as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dobutamine acts predominantly on beta 1 receptors with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Dopamine acts on dopamine receptors, causing renal and spleen vasodilation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses. The minor receptor effects are shown in brackets. The effects of receptor binding include vasoconstriction for alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors, increased cardiac contractility and heart rate for beta-1 receptors, and vasodilation for beta-2 receptors. D-1 receptors cause renal and spleen vasodilation, while D-2 receptors inhibit the release of noradrenaline. Overall, inotropes are a class of drugs that increase cardiac output through various receptor actions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Sarah, a 23-year-old female, complains of worsening pain in her right lower leg...

    Correct

    • Sarah, a 23-year-old female, complains of worsening pain in her right lower leg after it was casted for a fibular fracture. The medical team suspects compartment syndrome and initiates prompt treatment. Besides pain, what is another early symptom of compartment syndrome?

      Your Answer: Paresthesia

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is characterized by the 6 P’s: pain, paresthesia, paresis, pallor, perishingly cold, and pulselessness. Pain is an early symptom that is often not relieved by pain medication and is particularly noticeable during passive stretching. Paresthesia, which includes abnormal sensations like tingling, numbness, and burning, may progress to anesthesia.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Even if a pulse is present, compartment syndrome cannot be ruled out. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may experience myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      57.3
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with his daughter. They were...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with his daughter. They were having a conversation when she noticed he was having difficulty understanding her. He has a history of high blood pressure and has smoked for 40 years.

      During your assessment, you observe that he is able to speak fluently but makes some errors. However, his comprehension appears to be intact and he can correctly identify his daughter and name objects in the room. When asked to repeat certain words, he struggles and appears frustrated by his mistakes.

      Based on these symptoms, what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conduction aphasia

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing conduction aphasia, which is characterized by fluent speech but poor repetition ability. However, their comprehension remains intact. This type of aphasia is typically caused by a stroke that affects the arcuate fasciculus, the part of the parietal lobe that connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. Given the sudden onset of symptoms, it is likely an acute cause. The patient’s medical history and smoking habit put them at risk for stroke.

      Anomic aphasia, which causes difficulty in naming objects, is less likely as the patient was able to name some bedside objects correctly. This type of aphasia can be caused by damage to various areas, including Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas, the parietal lobe, and the temporal lobe, due to trauma or neurodegenerative disease.

      Broca’s aphasia, which results in non-fluent speech but intact comprehension, can be ruled out as the patient is fluent but struggles with repeating sentences. Broca’s area is located in the dominant hemisphere’s frontal lobe and can be damaged by a stroke or trauma.

      Global aphasia, which involves a lack of fluency and comprehension, is not the diagnosis as the patient has both. This type of aphasia is caused by extensive damage to multiple language centers in the dominant hemisphere, often due to a stroke, but can also be caused by a tumor, trauma, or infection.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A middle-aged woman with myasthenia gravis experiences a myasthenic crisis leading to respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman with myasthenia gravis experiences a myasthenic crisis leading to respiratory failure. Which nerve root is most commonly affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: T1

      Correct Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve receives input from C3, C4, and C5, which is essential for keeping the diaphragm functioning properly. In cases of medical emergencies, mechanical ventilation is often the first-line management. C2 primarily innervates muscles in the neck, while C7 and T1 are part of the brachial plexus and contribute to the formation of nerves in the upper limb.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man is scheduled for a fenestrated endovascular aortic repair (FEVAR) to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is scheduled for a fenestrated endovascular aortic repair (FEVAR) to treat a 12cm juxtarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm. Prior to the procedure, he is given propofol IV for induction of anesthesia and subsequent intubation and ventilation. Can you explain how this drug affects the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: AMPA receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GABA receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Propofol acts primarily by activating GABA receptors, which results in the influx of chloride ions and stabilization of the resting potential, leading to reduced excitatory activity. AMPA receptor antagonists may have potential in treating epilepsy, while flumazenil, a reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose, exhibits GABA antagonism. Ketamine, on the other hand, is a potent sedative that works by blocking NMDA receptors and is used as an induction agent in anesthesia in certain situations, such as pre-hospital care. Although H1 receptor activation in the tuberomammillary nucleus plays a crucial role in the sleep-wake cycle, drugs that activate this pathway have not been utilized as hypnotics.

      Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents

      Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and daycase surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.

      Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is a common clinical feature that is linked to hypovolemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common clinical feature that is linked to hypovolemia?

      Your Answer: Low sodium concentration in blood

      Correct Answer: Dry mucous membranes

      Explanation:

      Hypovolaemia

      Hypovolaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a decrease in the volume of blood in the body. This can be caused by severe dehydration, poor oral fluid intake, excessive fluid losses in diarrhoea or through stomas, and major haemorrhage. The symptoms of hypovolaemia include dry mucous membranes, normal or increased sodium concentration in the blood, reduced jugular venous pressure, reduced urinary flow rate, and increased respiratory rate.

      Dry mucous membranes are not a highly discriminating feature of hypovolaemia. The effect of hypovolaemia on sodium concentrations is highly variable. If hypovolaemia results from the loss of blood or fluid containing isotonic amounts of sodium, the sodium concentration is likely to stay within the reference range. However, if hypovolaemia is due to prolonged poor oral intake, hypernatraemia can result. Hypovolaemia alone is generally not associated with hyponatraemia unless there is concomitant infection, inflammation, or loss of sodium-rich fluids, for example, from a high-output stoma.

      Reduced jugular venous pressure is a common symptom of hypovolaemia. The low circulating volume will cause a low JVP. In normal circumstances, the body responds to hypovolaemia by reducing urinary flow rates. If circulation is impaired by loss of blood, a common response is an increase in the respiratory rate. This is often an early feature of significant blood loss. the symptoms of hypovolaemia is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      41.2
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently shows symptoms of rabies, including irritability, drooling, and seizures. The virus responsible for rabies is a rhabdovirus, which uses RNA polymerase to create a complementary RNA strand from a single strand of RNA. This newly-synthesised strand then acts as messenger-RNA (mRNA). What is the best description of the rhabdovirus genome?

      Your Answer: Single stranded DNA (ssDNA)

      Correct Answer: Negative-sense RNA (−RNA)

      Explanation:

      Virus Classification Based on Genome

      Viruses are categorized based on their genome, which can either be DNA or RNA. The RNA or DNA can be single or double-stranded. The genome of a virus determines its classification. The rhabdovirus, for instance, contains a single strand of RNA initially, which means that the first, second, and last answer options cannot be correct.

      Positive-sense RNA viruses, such as picornavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, and calicivirus, use the RNA strand directly as mRNA. On the other hand, negative-sense RNA viruses require RNA polymerase to copy the RNA strand and generate a complementary RNA strand, which then acts as mRNA. The rhabdovirus falls under this category. virus classification based on genome is crucial in developing effective treatments and vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      35.1
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  • Question 13 - A pregnant woman in her late 20s has been admitted to the hospital...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman in her late 20s has been admitted to the hospital with suspected pre-eclampsia.

      Which electrolyte is effective in treating pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Hypermagnesaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hypermagnesaemia is a condition that occurs when there is an excess of magnesium in the body. Although hypomagnesaemia is more common in hospital inpatients, certain situations can lead to hypermagnesaemia. These include renal impairment, rhabdomyolysis, excessive oral or intravenous magnesium intake, and excessive rectal magnesium intake.

      One of the treatment options for pre-eclampsia is intravenous magnesium infusion, which can also lead to hypermagnesaemia if overdosed. The clinical features of hypermagnesaemia include neuromuscular depression, respiratory depression, nausea and vomiting, flushing, hypersomnia, hypotension, and cardiac arrest. It is important to monitor magnesium levels in patients who are at risk of hypermagnesaemia to prevent any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled HIV presents with dyspnea and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled HIV presents with dyspnea and hemoptysis. Diagnostic tests reveal invasive aspergillosis, and he is prescribed amphotericin B. What is the mode of action of amphotericin B?

      Your Answer: Binds with ergosterol

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of Amphotericin B involves binding with ergosterol, a key component of fungal cell membranes. This binding results in the formation of pores that cause the cell wall to lyse, ultimately leading to fungal cell death.

      Flucytosine, on the other hand, is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil. This compound inhibits thymidylate synthase, which in turn disrupts fungal protein synthesis.

      Caspofungin works by inhibiting the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major component of the fungal cell wall.

      Griseofulvin interacts with microtubules, leading to the disruption of the mitotic spindle.

      Anti-viral agents like acyclovir function by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old man is prescribed warfarin for his atrial fibrillation. The doctor explains...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is prescribed warfarin for his atrial fibrillation. The doctor explains that this is to reduce his risk of a stroke, by preventing clots from forming in his heart. The same man is admitted to the hospital some months later for an upper gastrointestinal bleed, and the medical team seeks to reduce his bleeding by giving him vitamin K.

      What is the mechanism of action of this reversal agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K plays a crucial role as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are essential in secondary haemostasis. In cases where warfarin has reduced the vitamin K dependent carboxylation of these factors, vitamin K can be used as a reversal agent.

      It is important to note that vitamin K is not involved in the acetylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are vitamin K dependent. Additionally, factors V and VIII are not vitamin K dependent clotting factors and do not undergo carboxylation or acetylation involving vitamin K.

      Furthermore, vitamin K does not have any role in primary haemostasis, which involves platelet activation and adherence to the endothelium. Its involvement is limited to the clotting cascade and activation of fibrin in secondary haemostasis.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 48-year-old man visits his local doctor complaining of chest pain that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man visits his local doctor complaining of chest pain that occurs during physical activity and subsides with rest. He first noticed it 10 months ago and feels that it has gradually worsened. He now experiences this pain while climbing a few stairs. Previously, he could walk down to the newsagent and back, a distance of 200 yards, without any discomfort. He has a medical history of hypertension and appendectomy.

      His close friend had similar symptoms that were relieved by sublingual glyceryl nitrates. He asks the doctor to prescribe something similar.

      What is the mechanism by which nitrates work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrates cause a decrease in intracellular calcium which results in smooth muscle relaxation

      Explanation:

      The reason why nitrates cause a decrease in intracellular calcium is because nitric oxide triggers the activation of smooth muscle soluble guanylyl cyclase (GC) to produce cGMP. This increase in intracellular cGMP inhibits calcium entry into the cell, resulting in a reduction in intracellular calcium levels and inducing smooth muscle relaxation. Additionally, nitric oxide activates K+ channels, leading to hyperpolarization and relaxation. Furthermore, nitric oxide stimulates a cGMP-dependent protein kinase that activates myosin light chain phosphatase, which dephosphorylates myosin light chains, ultimately leading to relaxation. Therefore, the correct answer is the second option.

      Understanding Nitrates and Their Effects on the Body

      Nitrates are a type of medication that can cause blood vessels to widen, which is known as vasodilation. They are commonly used to manage angina and treat heart failure. One of the most frequently prescribed nitrates is sublingual glyceryl trinitrate, which is used to relieve angina attacks in patients with ischaemic heart disease.

      The mechanism of action for nitrates involves the release of nitric oxide in smooth muscle, which activates guanylate cyclase. This enzyme then converts GTP to cGMP, leading to a decrease in intracellular calcium levels. In the case of angina, nitrates dilate the coronary arteries and reduce venous return, which decreases left ventricular work and reduces myocardial oxygen demand.

      However, nitrates can also cause side effects such as hypotension, tachycardia, headaches, and flushing. Additionally, many patients who take nitrates develop tolerance over time, which can reduce their effectiveness. To combat this, the British National Formulary recommends that patients who develop tolerance take the second dose of isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours instead of 12 hours. This allows blood-nitrate levels to fall for 4 hours and maintains effectiveness. It’s important to note that this effect is not seen in patients who take modified release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old male comes to his doctor with redness in his left leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male comes to his doctor with redness in his left leg. The man is generally healthy, but noticed redness in his left shin after being bitten by an insect the previous day. Upon examination, there is a 10cm area of erythema with poorly defined borders on the left shin. The area is warm to the touch and slightly tender, but there is no tenderness in the calf. The right leg appears normal and there are no other significant clinical findings.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cellulitis

      Explanation:

      The patient in the vignette has a warm and erythematous lesion on their shin, which is poorly demarcated. This suggests that the infection is in the deeper dermis and subcutaneous tissues, indicating a diagnosis of cellulitis. The cause of the infection is likely an insect bite. Deep vein thrombosis is an incorrect answer as it typically presents acutely and in the calf, whereas this patient’s symptoms developed gradually on the shin. Erysipelas is a superficial infection in the upper dermis and lymphatics, which is typically well-demarcated. Rosacea is a chronic condition that affects the face and would not present as a warm and erythematous lesion on the shin. It is important to note that cellulitis and erysipelas can be difficult to distinguish, and similar management strategies are used for both conditions.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain in his lower back....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain in his lower back. He reports seeing blood in his urine and feeling a lump in his left flank, causing him great concern. The doctor plans to perform an ultrasound.
      What is the probable diagnosis at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Common Kidney Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Haematuria, loin pain, and an abdominal mass are the three main symptoms associated with renal cell carcinoma. Patients may also experience weight loss and malaise. Diagnostic tests such as ultrasonography and excretion urography can reveal the presence of a solid lesion or space-occupying lesion. CT and MRI scans may be used to determine the stage of the tumour. Nephrectomy is the preferred treatment option, unless the patient’s second kidney is not functioning properly.

      Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney condition that causes excessive protein excretion. Patients typically experience swelling around the eyes and legs.

      Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause severe flank pain and haematuria. Muscle spasms occur as the body tries to remove the stone.

      Urinary tract infections are more common in women and present with symptoms such as frequent urination, painful urination, suprapubic pain, and haematuria.

      In summary, these common kidney conditions can cause a range of symptoms and require different diagnostic tests and treatment options. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 19 - At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP...

    Incorrect

    • At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP about the ovarian cycle. The GP informs her that the theca of the pre-antral follicle has receptors for hormones that help in the production of significant amounts of hormones. What is the type of receptor present on the theca?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LH receptors

      Explanation:

      LH binds to LH receptors on thecal cells, stimulating the production of androstenedione. This androgen is then converted into oestradiol by aromatase in the granulosa cells.

      The process of follicle development can be divided into several stages. Primordial follicles contain an oocyte and granulosa cells. Primary follicles are characterized by the development of the zona pellucida and proliferation of granulosa cells. Pre-antral follicles develop a theca layer. Mature or Graafian follicles are marked by the presence of an antrum. Finally, the corpus luteum forms after the oocyte is released due to enzymatic breakdown of the follicular wall.

      It is important to note that FSH, progesterone, testosterone, and oestrogen receptors are not involved in the production of oestradiol from androstenedione.

      Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle

      The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.

      Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.

      The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 20 - A 49-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of muscle cramps and constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of muscle cramps and constipation that have been present for a week. He appears to be in good health otherwise. Upon conducting a serum potassium test, you discover that his levels are below the normal range. Your next step is to determine the underlying cause of his hypokalaemia. Which of the following medical conditions is commonly linked to low potassium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is the correct answer as it causes excess cortisol which can exhibit mineralocorticoid activity and lead to hypokalaemia. The kidneys play a major role in maintaining potassium balance, but other factors such as insulin, catecholamines, and aldosterone also influence potassium levels. The other options listed (congenital adrenal hypoplasia, Addison’s, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis) all cause hyperkalaemia. Addison’s disease and adrenal hypoplasia result in mineralocorticoid deficiency, leading to hyperkalaemia. Acidosis and rhabdomyolysis also cause hyperkalaemia. Symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and rarely paralysis.

      Causes of Cushing’s Syndrome

      Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that can be caused by both endogenous and exogenous factors. However, it is important to note that exogenous causes, such as the use of glucocorticoid therapy, are more common than endogenous ones. The condition can be classified into two categories: ACTH dependent and ACTH independent causes.

      ACTH dependent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include Cushing’s disease, which is caused by a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH and producing adrenal hyperplasia. Ectopic ACTH production, which is caused by small cell lung cancer, is another ACTH dependent cause. On the other hand, ACTH independent causes include iatrogenic factors such as steroid use, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, Carney complex, and micronodular adrenal dysplasia.

      In some cases, a condition called Pseudo-Cushing’s can mimic Cushing’s syndrome. This is often caused by alcohol excess or severe depression and can cause false positive results in dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol tests. To differentiate between Cushing’s syndrome and Pseudo-Cushing’s, an insulin stress test may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a low impact fracture of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a low impact fracture of his right femur. Upon examination, an x-ray reveals a growth located at the metaphysis that elevates the periosteum and appears to extend into the surrounding soft tissues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Bone Tumours

      Osteosarcomas are the most frequent primary bone malignancy, often occurring in the metaphysis around the knee. They are more common in boys and affect those aged between 14 and 20 years old. Symptoms include pain, low impact fracture, or a mass. On an x-ray, they appear as an area of new bone beneath the periosteum, lifting it up, known as Codman’s triangle. Another feature is sunray spiculation, where opaque lines of osteosarcoma grow into adjacent soft tissues.

      Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that usually develops from benign chondromas, often in hereditary multiple exostoses. Ewing sarcoma is a tumour of unknown origin that develops in limb girdles or the diaphysis of long bones. It has a characteristic onion appearance on x-ray, with concentric rings of new bone formation. Bone metastases are rare in children, and there are no features to suggest a primary tumour, although it should be considered.

      Osteoid osteoma is a benign cystic tumour that occurs in the long bones of young men and teenagers. It causes severe pain and shows as local cortical sclerosis but does not invade into soft tissues. the different types of bone tumours and their characteristics is crucial for early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the sciatic nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the sciatic nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quadriceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve is typically responsible for innervating the quadriceps femoris, while the sciatic nerve is commonly considered a nerve of the posterior compartment. Although the obturator nerve is the primary source of innervation for the adductor magnus, the sciatic nerve also plays a role in its innervation.

      Understanding the Sciatic Nerve

      The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from the sacral plexus and arising from spinal nerves L4 to S3. It passes through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges beneath the piriformis muscle, running under the cover of the gluteus maximus muscle. The nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the skin of the foot and leg, as well as innervating the posterior thigh muscles and lower leg and foot muscles. Approximately halfway down the posterior thigh, the nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve supplies the flexor muscles, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the extensor and abductor muscles.

      The sciatic nerve also has articular branches for the hip joint and muscular branches in the upper leg, including the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and part of the adductor magnus. Cutaneous sensation is provided to the posterior aspect of the thigh via cutaneous nerves, as well as the gluteal region and entire lower leg (except the medial aspect). The nerve terminates at the upper part of the popliteal fossa by dividing into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The nerve to the short head of the biceps femoris comes from the common peroneal part of the sciatic, while the other muscular branches arise from the tibial portion. The tibial nerve goes on to innervate all muscles of the foot except the extensor digitorum brevis, which is innervated by the common peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 23 - What is the primary reason for children to have a small stature? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary reason for children to have a small stature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic short stature

      Explanation:

      Causes and Management of Short Stature in Children

      Short stature is a common condition in children that can be caused by various factors. The most common cause is idiopathic short stature, which includes familial short stature and constitutional delay of growth and puberty. Other causes include chronic diseases, nutritional problems, growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, and chromosomal abnormalities. However, most children with short stature will attain a satisfactory adult height, and reassurance with a period of watchful waiting is often a reasonable approach.

      Further investigation is necessary when the child’s height deficit is less than the first percentile for age, the growth rate is abnormally slow, the predicted height differs significantly from midparental height, or the body proportions are abnormal. Growth hormone therapy is available for the treatment of children with growth hormone deficiency and idiopathic short stature, but the benefits are relatively modest and the treatment is expensive and inconvenient. Current evidence suggests that the use of growth hormone is safe in children, although there are reports of increased risks of intracranial hypertension, glucose intolerance, or a slipped capital femoral epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - What causes a cervical rib? ...

    Incorrect

    • What causes a cervical rib?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elongation of the transverse processes of the 7th cervical vertebrae

      Explanation:

      Cervical ribs are formed when the transverse process of the 7th cervical vertebrae becomes elongated, resulting in a fibrous band that connects to the first thoracic rib.

      Cervical ribs are a rare anomaly that affects only 0.2-0.4% of the population. They are often associated with neurological symptoms and are caused by an anomalous fibrous band that originates from the seventh cervical vertebrae and may arc towards the sternum. While most cases are congenital and present around the third decade of life, some cases have been reported to occur following trauma. Bilateral cervical ribs are present in up to 70% of cases. Compression of the subclavian artery can lead to absent radial pulse and a positive Adsons test, which involves lateral flexion of the neck towards the symptomatic side and traction of the symptomatic arm. Treatment is usually only necessary when there is evidence of neurovascular compromise, and the traditional operative method for excision is a transaxillary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man undergoes a total knee replacement for severe osteoarthritis. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man undergoes a total knee replacement for severe osteoarthritis. He is seen two weeks later for a wound check and it is found that the surgical incision is healing poorly, however it is not painful or inflamed. He has been feeling generally unwell and has had some bleeding from his gums.

      What could be the possible reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Defective collagen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C plays a crucial role as a cofactor for enzymes involved in the synthesis of collagen. A man displaying symptoms of poor wound healing, capillary fragility resulting in bleeding gums, and general malaise is likely suffering from a deficiency of this vitamin. In contrast, a deficiency of vitamin B12 would cause macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and peripheral neuropathy, while a deficiency of vitamin A would lead to night blindness. Although infection can also impair wound healing and cause malaise, there is no evidence of inflammation at the wound site, and it does not explain the bleeding gums.

      Vitamin C: A Water Soluble Vitamin with Essential Functions

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. One of its primary functions is acting as an antioxidant, which helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Additionally, vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, as it acts as a cofactor for enzymes required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen. This vitamin also facilitates iron absorption and serves as a cofactor for norepinephrine synthesis.

      However, a deficiency in vitamin C, also known as scurvy, can lead to defective collagen synthesis, resulting in capillary fragility and poor wound healing. Some of the features of vitamin C deficiency include gingivitis, loose teeth, poor wound healing, bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis, and general malaise. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin C through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 26 - A 52-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic with a 3 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic with a 3 day history of leg pain, fever and nausea. She suspects that a scratch she got from a thorn bush while picking blackberries might have caused it and is worried as the redness seems to be spreading. She has not been immobile recently. Upon further questioning, she mentions having a similar incident a few years ago after a long flight.

      During the examination, you observe that the woman is overweight and calculate her body mass index to be 33kg/mÂČ. Her vital signs are all within normal limits, except for a temperature of 38.2ÂșC. The woman's left leg appears to be swollen and red compared to the right. There is a small cluster of scratches in the middle of the lesion.

      What is the initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old woman is admitted to the cardiology ward with a 4-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is admitted to the cardiology ward with a 4-day history of increasing shortness of breath and difficulty sleeping due to breathlessness when lying flat. Her medical history includes ischaemic heart disease and chronic heart failure. She was recently started on a new medication by her GP.

      Upon examination, diffuse crackles are heard loudest at the bases. Her JVP is elevated, and there is pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally.

      Brain natriuretic peptide 5500 pg/mL (< 300)

      Which medication is most likely to have caused this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation. She complains of feeling breathless, and her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 92bpm, blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg, temperature of 36.7ÂșC, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. To rule out any respiratory issues, an arterial blood gas is performed, which indicates respiratory alkalosis. What physiological change during pregnancy could have caused this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in tidal volume and increase in pulmonary ventilation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is an increase in tidal volume and pulmonary ventilation. Pregnancy leads to an increase in tidal volume without any change in respiratory rate, resulting in an overall increase in pulmonary ventilation. This can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the loss of carbon dioxide.

      Incorrect options include a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in pulmonary ventilation, which is not observed during pregnancy. Similarly, an increase in tidal volume and a decrease in pulmonary ventilation, or no change in either tidal volume or pulmonary ventilation, are also not accurate descriptions of respiratory changes during pregnancy.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 29 - You are examining the findings of a study on a new arthritis medication...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the findings of a study on a new arthritis medication that evaluates the participants' joint pain levels before and 8 weeks after starting the treatment. The objective is to determine which group had the highest number of participants with reduced joint pain levels by comparing the results to a placebo. There were 80 participants taking the new medication, and 30 of them experienced a decrease in joint pain levels. In the placebo group, there were 120 participants, and 25 of them had a reduction in joint pain levels.

      What is the odds ratio for this arthritis study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 30 - What is the primary means of transportation for vitamin D in the human...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary means of transportation for vitamin D in the human body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In blood, bound to the group specific component

      Explanation:

      The Role of UV Light and Vitamin D in Calcium and Phosphate Regulation

      In order for the body to produce Vitamin D3, UV light at a specific wavelength is required to convert cholesterol in the skin. Vitamin D2 and D3 are then transported in the bloodstream bound to the Vitamin-D Binding Protein and undergo further modifications in the liver and kidney to become the active form, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D. This active form plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate concentrations in the body.

      1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D increases calcium absorption in the duodenum and inhibits the secretion and synthesis of PTH, which helps to maintain calcium concentrations. It also increases phosphate absorption in the jejunum and ileum, which is important for maintaining phosphate concentrations. Additionally, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D promotes bone turnover by stimulating both osteoblast and osteoclast activity.

      Overall, the production and activation of Vitamin D through UV light and dietary sources is essential for proper calcium and phosphate regulation in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular System (1/3) 33%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
General Principles (1/3) 33%
Neurological System (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (3/3) 100%
Passmed