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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, coryza and conjunctivitis. He has a rash that looks like tight clusters of small red spots. He also has some grey-white spots inside his mouth. Prior to the last five days, he is normally a fit and well child who does not take any regular medications. He has not had any vaccinations. His temperature is 38 °C and his other observations are within normal limits.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer: Start intravenous antibiotics
Correct Answer: Discharge home with advice regarding supportive care
Explanation:Supportive Care for Children with Measles: Discharge Advice
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can be prevented through vaccination. If a child is diagnosed with measles, they will present with symptoms such as fever, cough, and a rash. The period of contagiousness is estimated to be from five days before the appearance of the rash to four days afterwards. There is no specific treatment for uncomplicated measles, but supportive care can be provided to manage symptoms.
Discharge advice for parents of a child with measles should include information on potential complications and when to seek medical attention. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and provide antipyretics and fluids as needed. If a secondary bacterial infection arises, antibiotics may be required. Immunoglobulins are not given as a treatment for acute measles, but vaccination is recommended as a preventative measure. Aspirin should not be given to children with measles due to the risk of Reye syndrome. Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given for symptomatic relief. With proper supportive care, most children with measles will recover without complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed as having a gastric ulcer at endoscopy. No evidence of oesophageal or duodenal pathology was found. Helicobacter pylori testing was positive. She is not allergic to penicillin.
Which of the following treatment regimens would be best suited to her case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin and either clarithromycin or metronidazole, followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks
Explanation:Treatment Options for Helicobacter pylori Infection
Helicobacter pylori is a common bacterial infection that can cause dyspepsia and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). There are several treatment options available for patients who test positive for H. pylori.
One option is a 7-day course of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. This should be followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks. Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have had previous exposure to clarithromycin should be offered a 7-day course of a PPI, bismuth, metronidazole, and tetracycline.
Long-term PPI and dietary advice alone will not eradicate H. pylori. If symptoms return after initial care strategies for dyspepsia, step down PPI therapy to the lowest dose needed to control symptoms. Patients with GORD should be offered full-dose PPI.
It is important to consult the British National Formulary (BNF) for appropriate doses of each drug, as they may vary. Sucralfate has no role in the eradication of H. pylori.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of left leg weakness that started 2 hours ago. She reports no weakness in her face or upper limbs, and her speech is normal. She has no medical history and takes no regular medications.
Upon examination, the emergency physician suspects a non-organic cause. The patient is placed in a supine position and asked to raise her right leg against resistance while keeping it straight. The physician places his hand under the left heel and feels pressure under his hand.
What is the name of this clinical sign or test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoover's sign
Explanation:Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool that can quickly differentiate between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when the unaffected leg is lifted against pressure. This is due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.
Based on this scenario, the likely diagnosis is a conversion disorder, which is characterized by the loss of motor function in the leg without any organic cause. The positive result of Hoover’s sign supports this diagnosis.
Babinski’s sign is a reflex that involves dorsiflexion of the big toe upon plantar stimulation. It is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion of the corticospinal tract.
Brudziński’s sign is a reflex that involves the flexion of the hips with forced flexion of the neck. It is typically associated with meningitis but can also be present in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage and encephalitis.
The glabellar tap sign, also known as Myerson’s sign, involves tapping the area above the nose and between the eyebrows (glabella) repeatedly. Healthy patients usually blink in response to the first 2-3 taps, but if a patient is unable to resist blinking beyond this, it can be indicative of early Parkinson’s disease.
The straight leg raise test, also known as Lasègue’s sign, involves raising the straight leg to reproduce radiating leg pain. A positive result indicates a likely lumbar disc herniation.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart attack a year ago. He was diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes during his hospitalization. The patient reports gaining 5kg in the last 6 months and wonders if any of his medications could be causing this weight gain. Which of his prescribed drugs may be contributing to his recent weight gain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Weight gain is a common side effect of sulfonylureas.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.
One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male visits his primary care physician for a diabetic check-up. He has been dealing with type-two diabetes mellitus for a while, but has not been able to control it completely. Despite making all the necessary lifestyle changes and taking metformin and gliclazide, he complains of polyuria and his Hba1c is 62 mmol/mol. He has a history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine, and recurrent urinary tract infections. He is hesitant to use insulin due to his fear of needles. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin
Explanation:If a patient with TD2M is already taking two drugs and their HbA1c is above 58 mmol/mol, they should be offered a third drug or insulin therapy. However, insulin therapy should be avoided if possible for patients who are afraid of needles. In this case, the best option is to add sitagliptin to the patient’s current medication regimen of metformin and gliclazide. SGLT-2 inhibitors should be avoided due to the patient’s history of recurrent urinary tract infections, and pioglitazone is rarely prescribed. Exenatide is not appropriate for this patient as it is a GLP-1 mimetic and should only be added if the patient cannot tolerate triple therapy and has a BMI greater than 35. It is not recommended to stop any current medications and substitute them with sitagliptin, as the drugs should work synergistically together.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. She has an uneventful procedure but is re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain.
On examination, she is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on her chest X-ray (CXR).
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
C-reactive protein (CRP) 180 mg/l < 10 mg/l
White cell count (WCC) 15.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Creatine (Cr) 140 µmol/l 50–120µmol/l
Urea 7.5mmol/l 2.5–6.5mmol/l
Phosphate (PO4-) 1.0mmol/l 0.8–1.5 mmol/l
Corrected Calcium (Ca2+) 0.8 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
What is her most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Understanding Complications of ERCP: Pancreatitis, Cholangitis, and More
ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) is a common procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions of the bile ducts and pancreas. However, like any medical procedure, it carries risks and potential complications. One such complication is pancreatitis, which can present with non-specific symptoms but may be accompanied by hypocalcaemia. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Another potential complication is ascending cholangitis, which can present with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Biliary perforation is a serious but infrequent complication that is usually recognized during the procedure, while intestinal perforation is not an expected complication. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. It is important to understand these potential complications and their symptoms in order to provide prompt and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the left, associated with pain behind the eye and alteration of depth perception. Examination on the following day reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) in the left eye.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Understanding Optic Neuritis: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis
Optic neuritis is a condition characterized by inflammation, degeneration, or demyelination of the optic nerve. It typically presents with sudden-onset unilateral visual loss, retro-orbital pain, and altered color vision, and is more common in women aged 20-40. Patients with optic neuritis have up to a 50% risk of developing multiple sclerosis (MS) after an episode.
There are three types of optic neuritis: papillitis or anterior optic neuritis, retrobulbar neuritis, and neuroretinitis. Papillitis affects the intraocular portion of the nerve and causes optic disc swelling, while retrobulbar neuritis does not involve the disc and is often associated with MS. Neuroretinitis affects the optic disc and adjacent temporal retina.
The most common cause of retrobulbar neuritis is MS, but it can also be caused by toxic exposure, vitamin deficiency (especially B12), ischaemia (diabetes, giant cell arteritis), or infection. Symptoms include variable loss of central vision, dull aching pain in the eye, and a central scotoma on examination.
Cerebral infarction is an unlikely diagnosis in a young patient without significant risk factors. Optic nerve glioma typically presents with gradual reduction in visual acuity, while migraine aura presents with positive visual phenomena and is associated with unilateral headache. Temporal arteritis, which causes sudden loss of vision associated with ischaemic optic neuropathy, is rare in people under 50 and is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica.
Diagnosis of temporal arteritis requires three of five criteria: >50 years at disease onset, new headache, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), temporal artery abnormality, and abnormal temporal artery biopsy. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and differential diagnosis of optic neuritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery, a defect is observed on the side of the belly button, revealing the intestines.
What could be the possible diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroschisis
Explanation:Gastroschisis is a bowel condition where the intestines are exposed and not encased by a sac. It is not associated with cardiac and kidney diseases, unlike exomphalos. It can be diagnosed through routine ultrasound, but may be missed if the mother does not engage in antenatal care. It is not a normal variant and is not necessarily associated with prematurity.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are taking the history of an Emergency Department patient who was assaulted. The victim is a 20-year-old female who has a deep laceration on her thigh caused by a rusty machete. The wound has exposed tendon, muscle, and subcutaneous fat. According to her medical records, she received all her childhood immunizations on schedule, including 5 doses of tetanus vaccine, with the last one administered when she was 16 years old.
What is the appropriate management for tetanus risk in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No tetanus vaccine booster and no immunoglobulins required
Explanation:If a patient has received 5 doses of the tetanus vaccine, with the most recent dose administered less than 10 years ago, they do not need a booster vaccine or immunoglobulins, regardless of the severity of the wound. This is the correct course of action. The patient’s childhood vaccinations would have included 5 doses of the tetanus vaccine, with the last dose given at age 14 or later. Therefore, the patient is already adequately protected and does not require a booster or immunoglobulin, regardless of the severity of the wound.
The option of administering a tetanus vaccine booster with antibiotics is not the correct course of action. While antibiotics may be considered for protection against other bacteria, the patient already has sufficient protection against tetanus and does not require vaccination.
Similarly, administering a tetanus vaccine booster with tetanus immunoglobulin is not necessary. As previously mentioned, the patient already has adequate protection from previous vaccinations. Immunoglobulin would only be necessary if the patient had an incomplete or unknown vaccine history or if it had been more than 10 years since the last vaccine.
Lastly, administering a tetanus vaccine booster alone is not necessary. The patient already has protection from previous vaccinations and does not require a booster.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past year, all of which he thought were the love of his life. He is prone to impulsive behaviour such as excessive spending and binge drinking, and he has experimented with drugs. He also engages in self-harm.
Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits
Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.
Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.
Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.
Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You perform a home visit on an 80-year-old man, whose son is concerned by increased confusion in the last 3 days. His past medical history includes mild cognitive impairment, ischaemic heart disease and diverticular disease.
When you arrive, he reports feeling well and denies any recent health problems. However, you suspect he may not be giving an accurate account of his health as he appears slightly confused about his surroundings.
During the examination, he complains of mild lower abdominal discomfort. On deep palpation, you feel a fullness in the left iliac fossa. All observations are within normal limits.
What is the most likely cause of this man's confusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:In elderly patients, constipation is a frequent cause of heightened confusion and is the most probable reason for the symptoms described in this case. The patient’s confusion, slight abdominal discomfort, and palpable mass can all be attributed to constipation. While a colonic tumor could explain the discomfort and fullness on palpation, it is unlikely that its metastases would cause a sudden increase in confusion without a prior diagnosis. Constipation is a common presentation in elderly patients, and it is important to consider it as a potential cause of confusion. Mild cognitive impairment does not typically progress rapidly to dementia with disorientation to time and place. A urinary tract infection or acute diverticulitis would not account for the fullness in the left iliac fossa or the other symptoms described.
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.
Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male has been admitted to the cardiology ward following his presentation to the emergency department with palpitations and dyspnoea. After further investigations, he was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed digoxin for rate control. What is the recommended frequency for routine drug monitoring in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No routine monitoring required
Explanation:Digoxin levels do not require regular monitoring, unless there is suspicion of toxicity. As this patient is commencing digoxin and has no signs of toxicity, routine monitoring is unnecessary. It is not necessary to measure digoxin levels every month until they have stabilized, nor is it appropriate to monitor the drug every 2 weeks for the first 3 months. Routine monitoring is also not required annually throughout the course of treatment.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with a complaint of erythematous sores on her face for the past 2 days. The lesions are limited to her face and have started to weep and progress to honey crusted lesions over the last 24 hours. The child is otherwise healthy. Previously, topical hydrogen peroxide was ineffective for a similar episode. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Explanation:If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.
The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.
Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You assess a patient in the Emergency Department who was admitted after a motorcycle accident. He is a diabetic patient, with multiple recent hospitalizations due to non-adherence to insulin therapy. Both of his pupils are small, responsive to accommodation, but unresponsive to light.
What is the most appropriate description of this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil
Explanation:– Adie pupil: A condition where the pupil is constantly dilated and reacts slowly to light, but responds better to accommodation. It is caused by damage to the parasympathetic innervation of the eye due to viral or bacterial infection. It is more commonly seen in females and is often accompanied by absent knee or ankle jerks.
– Marcus-Gunn pupil: A relative afferent pupillary defect that is observed during the swinging light examination of pupil response. The pupils constrict less and appear to dilate when a light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. This condition is most commonly caused by damage to the optic nerve or severe retinal disease.
– Horner’s syndrome: A condition characterized by miosis (pupillary constriction), ptosis (droopy eyelid), apparent enophthalmos (inset eyeball), with or without anhidrosis (decreased sweating) occurring on one side. It is caused by damage to the sympathetic trunk on the same side as the symptoms, due to trauma, compression, infection, ischaemia, or other causes.
– Hutchinson’s pupil: A condition where the pupil on one side is unilaterally dilated and unresponsive to light. It is caused by compression of the occulomotor nerve on the same side, usually by an intracranial mass such as a tumor or hematoma.Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome
The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).
The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the child has congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
What is a characteristic of 21-hydroxylase deficiency-related congenital adrenal hyperplasia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency
Explanation:Medical Conditions Associated with 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency
21-hydroxylase deficiency is a medical condition that results in decreased cortisol synthesis and commonly reduces aldosterone synthesis. This condition can lead to adrenal insufficiency, causing salt wasting and hypoglycemia. However, it is not associated with diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low ADH levels. Patients with 21-hydroxylase deficiency may also experience stunted growth and elevated androgens, but hypogonadism is not a feature. Treatment may involve the use of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She has a medical history of complicated pelvic inflammatory disease that resulted in scarring of her right fallopian tube. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago. Upon examination, her heart rate is 93 bpm, and her blood pressure is 136/76 mmHg. Palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain. A urinary pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy, and further investigations reveal a 45 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat detected. Her serum b-hCG level is 5200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring
Explanation:For women with risk factors for infertility, such as contralateral tube damage, salpingotomy should be considered as the preferred surgical management for ectopic pregnancy. In the case of this patient, who presented with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding 6-8 weeks after her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming ectopic pregnancy, surgical intervention is necessary. Given the size of the ectopic pregnancy and beta-hCG levels, either laparoscopic salpingectomy or salpingotomy is appropriate. However, since the patient has a history of PID and scarring of the contralateral tube, salpingotomy is the preferred option as it preserves the affected tube and her fertility. Expectant management, laparoscopic salpingectomy, and medical management with methotrexate are not appropriate for this patient’s case.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man who has recently been discharged from hospital in France following a heart attack. He presents with an echocardiogram report indicating his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 76 beats per minute, blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol
Explanation:The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the hospital after experiencing a generalized seizure. He complains of feeling ill with a fever and headache for the past 48 hours, and his mother notes that he has been unusually irritable lately. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, there is mild nuchal rigidity and hyperreflexia in the lower limbs. A CT scan of the head reveals bilateral hypodensities in the temporal lobes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex encephalitis
Explanation:Consider herpes simplex encephalitis as the possible cause for the observed temporal lobe changes on the CT head.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
Herpes simplex encephalitis is a common topic in medical exams. This viral infection affects the temporal lobes of the brain, causing symptoms such as fever, headache, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features like aphasia may also be present. It is important to note that peripheral lesions, such as cold sores, are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis.
HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults and typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes. Diagnosis is made through CSF analysis, PCR for HSV, and imaging studies like CT or MRI. EEG patterns may also show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
Treatment involves intravenous aciclovir, and prompt initiation of treatment is crucial for a good prognosis. If treatment is started early, the mortality rate is around 10-20%. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can approach 80%.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, pathophysiology, and treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis is important for medical professionals and students alike. Early recognition and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are asked to review an elderly nursing home resident who has generalised inflammation of his oropharynx and is finding it difficult to eat. His past history of note includes the use of a steroid inhaler for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On examination, there are areas of erythema and a number of white plaques accompanied by some white, curd-like material.
Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Oral Lesions: Candidiasis, HIV Infection, Hairy Leukoplakia, Darier’s Disease, and Leukoedema
Oral lesions can present in various forms and have different underlying causes. In the case of an elderly man with long-term use of a steroid inhaler for COPD, poor oral hygiene, and possibly poorly fitting prosthetics, the most likely diagnosis is oropharyngeal candidiasis. This yeast-like fungal infection can be treated with antifungal medication, applied to the oral mucosa and any removable oral prostheses, and soaking the latter in an antifungal denture-soaking solution.
HIV infection can also cause oral lesions, primarily in patients with advanced disease. Candidiasis is a common opportunistic infection in these patients, but hairy leukoplakia, associated with Epstein-Barr virus, can also occur. Hairy leukoplakia presents as painless white lesions on the tongue or buccal mucosa, with a characteristic hairy appearance that cannot be scraped off.
Darier’s disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes greasy hyperkeratotic papules in seborrhoeic regions, nail abnormalities, and mucous membrane changes. Mucosal lesions are found in approximately 15% of patients, appearing as white papules with a central depression, most commonly in the mouth.
Leukoedema is a benign condition characterized by a blue, grey, or white appearance of the oral mucosa, with wrinkled, streaky lesions, mostly found on the inside of the cheeks. It is more common and pronounced in smokers.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of oral lesions includes candidiasis, HIV infection, hairy leukoplakia, Darier’s disease, and leukoedema. A thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having lung cancer.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia may occur without bone metastasis.
Explanation:Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that can occur in patients with certain types of cancer, but are not caused by metastases, infections, metabolic disorders, chemotherapy, or coagulation disorders. These syndromes can present with a variety of symptoms affecting different body systems. Some of these syndromes are specific to certain types of cancer and may be the first sign of the disease. Therefore, if a patient presents with symptoms of a paraneoplastic syndrome, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying malignancy. While certain paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with specific types of cancer, there can be some overlap.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess an 80-year-old man who was admitted to the hospital five days ago due to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and spinal stenosis.
Despite receiving optimal treatment on the ward, including IV co-amoxiclav, the patient's condition has continued to deteriorate. He currently scores 11 on the Glasgow Coma Scale, and his pupils are reactive to light and measure 3 mm bilaterally. He has been unable to take his morning medications, which include morphine sulphate modified release (Zomorph) 30mg twice daily, oramorph 10mg as required, and metoclopramide 10 mg three times a day. In the past 24 hours, he has used 4 doses of PRN oramorph.
During the consultant ward round, it is decided that the patient should receive end-of-life care. He is currently comfortable, with no signs of hallucinations, pruritus, or myoclonus. The nurse requests that you convert his medications to a syringe driver.
What medications will you prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide 30mg s/c + morphine 50mg s/c
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure and type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the diabetes clinic. He is currently taking furosemide 40 mg od, ramipril 10mg od, and bisoprolol 5mg od. On clinical examination, there is no evidence of peripheral edema, a clear chest, and his blood pressure is 130/76 mmHg. Recent renal and liver function tests are normal. Which of the following medications is contraindicated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Heart failure is a complete contraindication for the use of pioglitazone and other thiazolidinediones.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which reduces insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is naturally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the differentiation and function of adipocytes (fat cells).
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have adverse effects. Patients may experience weight gain, liver impairment (which requires monitoring of liver function tests), and fluid retention. Thiazolidinediones are contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to the increased risk of fluid retention, especially if the patient is also taking insulin. Recent studies have also shown an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in patients taking pioglitazone, another medication in this class.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling on the left side of her neck below the jaw angle that has been bothering her for the past 5 days. She also reports a bad taste in her mouth. During the physical examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.8ºC and a tender submandibular mass measuring 4x5cm. Additionally, there is tender lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sialadenitis
Explanation:This woman is experiencing sialadenitis, which is inflammation of the salivary gland. It is likely caused by a stone blocking the duct. The submandibular gland is located below the jawline and its duct drains into the floor of the mouth. When there is a discharge from this duct, it can cause a bad taste in the mouth. There are three main salivary glands: the parotid glands, which are located in front of and below each ear, the submandibular glands, which are located below the jawline, and the sublingual glands, which are located beneath the tongue. Disorders of these glands can be caused by infection, inflammation, obstruction, or malignancy. Swelling of the submandibular gland can be caused by a stone or a tumor, which can be either benign or malignant.
Salivary Glands and Their Pathologies
Salivary glands are responsible for producing saliva, which aids in digestion and protects the mouth from harmful bacteria. There are three pairs of salivary glands: parotid, submandibular, and sublingual. The parotid gland is the most common site for tumors, while the submandibular gland is most commonly affected by stones.
Tumors in the salivary glands are rare, but when they do occur, 80% of them are found in the parotid gland. Of these, 80% are pleomorphic adenomas, which are benign. These tumors typically grow slowly and are painless, but surgical removal carries a risk of damage to the facial nerve (CN VII). Warthin’s tumor is another benign tumor that affects the salivary glands, but it is less common than pleomorphic adenomas.
Stones in the salivary glands can cause recurrent pain and swelling, especially when eating. They are most commonly found in the submandibular gland and can lead to infection if left untreated. Other causes of salivary gland enlargement include viral or bacterial infections, as well as autoimmune disorders like Sjogren’s syndrome. Proper diagnosis and treatment are important for managing these conditions and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center before applying to study medicine. She has received a full schedule of childhood vaccinations. Her primary complaints are difficulty swallowing, a sore throat, malaise, and a fever. Upon examination, she has 5-10 gray ulcers on her buccal mucosa. Additionally, she has a vesicular rash on her hands and feet.
What is the most probable cause of this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coxsackie virus infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is a viral illness caused by Coxsackie virus A type 16. It presents as a vesicular eruption in the mouth and can also involve the hands, feet, buttocks, and/or genitalia. Macular lesions on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and/or hard palate rapidly progress to vesicles that erode and become surrounded by an erythematous halo. Skin lesions, which present as tender macules or vesicles on an erythematous base, develop in approximately 75% of patients. Treatment is supportive, and there is no antiviral agent specific for the aetiological agents. Adequate fluid intake, preferably with cold drinks, is essential to prevent dehydration.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema multiforme, herpes simplex infection, gonorrhoea, and pemphigus erythematosus. However, the clinical presentation and causative agent of hand-foot-and-mouth disease distinguish it from these other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are discussing with a pediatrician some of the potential teratogenic risks of certain drugs in infants.
Which of the drugs listed below is correctly paired with a potentially harmful outcome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diethylstilbestrol-vaginal carcinoma
Explanation:Teratogenic Effects of Common Drugs in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, certain drugs can have harmful effects on the developing fetus, leading to congenital malformations, developmental disorders, and other complications. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these teratogenic effects and avoid prescribing these drugs whenever possible. Here are some common drugs and their potential teratogenic effects:
Diethylstilbestrol: This synthetic estrogen can cause a rare vaginal tumor (vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma) in girls and young women who have been exposed to the drug in utero. They also have an increased risk of moderate-to-severe cervical squamous cell dysplasia and an increased risk of breast cancer.
Lithium: This drug, primarily used in psychiatry for the treatment of bipolar affective disorder, increases the risk of developing a congenital heart defect known as Ebstein’s anomaly when used in pregnancy. Fetal echocardiography is routinely performed in pregnant women taking lithium to exclude the possibility of cardiac abnormalities.
Thalidomide: This immunomodulatory drug, historically used to alleviate morning sickness in pregnant women in the 1950s, can cause phocomelia (malformations of the limbs) in infants, only 40% of whom survived.
Warfarin: This anticoagulant is contraindicated in pregnancy because it may cause bleeding in the fetus and is commonly associated with spontaneous pregnancy loss, stillbirth, neonatal death, and preterm birth. Teratogenic effects depend on when exposure occurs, with the first trimester being associated with fetal warfarin syndrome (characterized by skeletal abnormalities) and the second trimester and later being associated with CNS disorders and eye defects.
Carbamazepine: This drug, used primarily in the treatment of epilepsy and neuropathic pain, is most often associated with congenital malformations, particularly spina bifida, developmental disorders, and macrocephaly.
Other drugs with teratogenic effects include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, alcohol, certain antibiotics, antiepileptics, and vitamin A (retinoid acid). Healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of prescribing these drugs during pregnancy and consider alternative treatments whenever possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine and having no symptoms, which of the following medications could be responsible for her hyponatraemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia, a condition where there is low sodium levels in the blood, can be caused by various drugs that either increase the production or enhance the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Among these drugs, diuretics (especially thiazides), SSRIs, antipsychotics like haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine are the most commonly implicated. SSRIs, in particular, can trigger the release of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia within the first few weeks of treatment. However, this condition usually resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of developing hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics concomitantly with SSRIs.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been found nearby in a disoriented state.
On examination, they have neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash on their arms. Their vital signs are stable except for fever and tachycardia. They score 13/15 on the Glasgow Coma Scale. An ambulance has been called to transfer them to the hospital.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action to perform while awaiting the ambulance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer a dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Appropriate Actions for Suspected Bacterial Meningitis with Non-Blanching Rash
When a patient presents with suspected bacterial meningitis and a non-blanching rash, it is crucial to take appropriate actions promptly. Administering a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin at the earliest opportunity is recommended, but this should not delay the transfer to the hospital. It is also important to notify the regional Public Health consultant about the suspected case.
While administering paracetamol for fever and starting the patient on high-flow oxygen may be necessary in some cases, they would not take priority over the administration of parenteral benzylpenicillin. Additionally, an IV fluid bolus is not indicated unless the patient’s vital signs are unstable. By taking these appropriate actions, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and non-blanching rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from diarrhoea and frequent respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 72 mmol/l.
Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Genetic Inheritance Patterns and Examples of Associated Conditions
Autosomal Recessive:
Autosomal recessive inheritance occurs when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. The affected individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to develop the condition. Cystic fibrosis is an example of an autosomal recessive condition.Autosomal Dominant:
Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when an individual inherits one copy of a mutated gene from one parent. The affected individual only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene to develop the condition. Marfan syndrome and familial hypercholesterolaemia are examples of autosomal dominant conditions.Chromosomal Non-Disjunction:
Chromosomal non-disjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or when chromatids fail to separate during mitosis. This results in daughter cells having either two chromosomes/chromatids or none. Down syndrome is an example of a condition resulting from chromosomal non-disjunction.Chromosomal Translocation:
Chromosomal translocation occurs when two non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts, causing fusion chromosomes. Chronic myelogenous leukaemia is an example of a condition resulting from chromosomal translocation.Sex-Linked:
Sex-linked inheritance occurs when a mutated gene is located on the X or Y chromosome. As a result, the condition is more common in one sex than the other. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, red-green colour blindness, and haemophilia are examples of sex-linked conditions.Conclusion:
Understanding genetic inheritance patterns is important in diagnosing and managing genetic conditions. Genetic counselling can also be helpful in providing information about the risk of passing on a genetic condition to offspring. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing night sweats and hot flashes for the past year. She had her last menstrual period 20 months ago. The patient is currently undergoing treatment with tamoxifen for breast cancer. She reports no other symptoms but would like to receive medication to alleviate her hot flashes. What is the most suitable prescription for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:For patients with active hormone-responsive breast cancer, hormonal methods like HRT and tibolone are not recommended. Instead, non-hormonal methods like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and venlafaxine may be used to alleviate vasomotor symptoms of menopause. Topical estrogen can also be used to alleviate symptoms of vaginal atrophy, but it does not help with vasomotor symptoms. COCP is not a suitable treatment for menopausal symptoms.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with community-acquired pneumonia. She has developed acute kidney injury. Her blood results show the following:
Test Result Reference range
Potassium (K) (mmol/l) 6.0 3.5-5.3
Creatine (Cr) (μmol/l) 220
Male: 80-110
Female: 70-100
Which of the following of her medications should be stopped immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Medication and Renal Impairment: Considerations and Dose Adjustments
When prescribing medication for patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential for inducing or worsening kidney damage. Here are some considerations and dose adjustments for commonly prescribed medications:
Ramipril: This ACE inhibitor has the potential to cause hypotension, which can lead to impaired kidney function. In patients with stable renal impairment, a maximum daily dose of 5 mg can be considered. The initial dose should not exceed 1.25 mg daily if eGFR is <30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Bisoprolol: This medication is not associated with inducing or worsening kidney damage. However, the dose should be reduced if eGFR is lower than 20 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (maximum 10 mg daily). Paracetamol: At therapeutic doses, paracetamol is not associated with kidney damage. However, in overdose, it can cause renal damage. The minimum interval between doses should be six hours if eGFR is <30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Fluticasone with salmeterol: Neither component of this inhaler is associated with kidney damage and does not require dose adjustment in patients with renal disease. Simvastatin: Statins should be used with caution in patients with renal impairment, as the likelihood of muscle toxicity increases with higher doses. Doses >10 mg daily should be used with caution if eGFR is lower than 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2.
In summary, medication dosing and selection should be carefully considered in patients with renal impairment to avoid potential kidney damage and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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