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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph confirms mild osteoarthritis. What is the best initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Topical ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoarthritis: A Guide to Medications and Lifestyle Changes

      When it comes to managing osteoarthritis (OA), there are a variety of treatment options available. However, not all treatments are created equal. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for OA to hands and knees is with a topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or oral paracetamol. Oral NSAIDs are considered the second-line treatment choice, to be used only after inadequate response to oral paracetamol or topical NSAIDs.

      It’s important to note that nutraceuticals, including oral glucosamine and chondroitin, should not be offered for OA management. Instead, other treatment options initially include weight loss and exercise encouragement.

      If medication is necessary, topical ibuprofen and paracetamol should be considered first line, ahead of oral NSAIDs or opioids. Oral NSAIDs, such as diclofenac with omeprazole, ibuprofen, and naproxen, are second line and should be given at the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) cover may be indicated for oral NSAIDs.

      In summary, managing OA requires a multifaceted approach that includes lifestyle changes and medication when necessary. By following NICE guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals with OA can find relief and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman in her early 50s with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early 50s with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with right foot drop and numbness in her right hand, with thenar eminence wasting and sensory loss over the radial half of her hand.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate cause from the list below.

      Your Answer: Entrapment neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Mononeuritis multiplex

      Explanation:

      Neuropathies: Causes and Symptoms

      Neuropathies are a group of disorders that affect the peripheral nervous system. Here are some common causes and symptoms of different types of neuropathies:

      Mononeuritis Multiplex:
      This neuropathy affects two or more non-anatomically related peripheral nerves. It is caused by vasculopathy of the vasa nervorum or infiltration of the nerves. Common causes include diabetes mellitus, leprosy, polyarteritis nodosa, and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include multiple concurrent peripheral nerve lesions without pain or paraesthesiae.

      Peripheral Sensory Neuropathy:
      This neuropathy is most commonly caused by diabetes mellitus (types 1 and 2) in the United Kingdom. It affects the sensory nerves and does not involve motor functions. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.

      Entrapment Neuropathy:
      This neuropathy is caused by compression of peripheral nerves due to hypertrophied synovium or joint subluxation. It usually affects only one part of the body. The most common nerve compressions are cubital tunnel and carpal tunnel syndromes. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.

      Myasthenia Gravis (MG):
      This autoimmune disorder affects the neuromuscular junction and causes fatigability of the muscle. It commonly affects the extraocular, bulbar, face, and neck muscles. Symptoms do not include pain or sensory loss, and wasting is only seen very late in the disease.

      Multiple Sclerosis:
      This autoimmune disorder affects the central nervous system and causes spasticity, ataxia, and paraesthesiae in the affected limbs. It commonly affects the optic nerve, causing optic neuritis. Peripheral nerve involvement is not seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
      On examination, he is dehydrated. His pulse is 95 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 100/70 mmHg.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Glucose 3.5 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 130 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 95 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peutz–Jeghers syndrome

      Correct Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders: Addison’s Disease, Cushing Syndrome, and Conn Syndrome

      Addison’s Disease:
      Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. It is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenals in the UK, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or hemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function cannot cope with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone.

      Cushing Syndrome:
      Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid. It can be caused by exogenous steroids, primary hyperadrenalism, or secondary hyperadrenalism. Signs and symptoms include weight gain with moon facies and buffalo hump, hypertension, hyperglycemia, mood changes, hirsutism, baldness, and sleep disturbance.

      Conn Syndrome:
      Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is caused most commonly by adrenal hyperplasia or adenomas. It results in excess aldosterone release, causing difficult-to-treat hypertension, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia.

      Other Disorders:
      Hypoglycemia occurs in insulinoma, but the other features are absent. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps, which may present with vomiting secondary to intussusception from the small polyps but does not explain the hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      138220.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and diarrhea presents with a 3 cm red lesion on his shin that is beginning to ulcerate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is suffering from ulcerative colitis, a condition that is commonly linked to arthritis in large joints, sacroiliitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other diseases.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. In some cases, systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia may also be present. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other potential causes.

      Management of pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line treatment due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies such as ciclosporin and infliximab may also be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and seeking prompt medical attention can help manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old man with a history of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency visits his GP complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a history of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency visits his GP complaining of increased difficulty in breathing. The GP suspects that his lungs may be deteriorating and orders spirometry to aid in the diagnosis.
      What spirometry results would be anticipated for a patient with this condition?

      Your Answer: FEV1= 90% FEV1/FVC = 0.9

      Correct Answer: FEV1 = 60% FEV1/FVC = 0.65

      Explanation:

      What spirometry result is expected in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency will result in an obstructive pattern on spirometry, similar to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The two important factors to consider in spirometry are the FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio. In obstructive disease, the FEV1 is reduced due to narrowed airways, while the FVC remains normal. This results in a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Therefore, in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, we would expect to see a reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio on spirometry.

      Understanding Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that occurs when the liver fails to produce enough of a protein called alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT). A1AT is responsible for protecting cells from enzymes that can cause damage, such as neutrophil elastase. This deficiency is inherited in an autosomal recessive or co-dominant fashion, with alleles classified by their electrophoretic mobility as M for normal, S for slow, and Z for very slow. The normal genotype is PiMM, while heterozygous individuals have PiMZ. Homozygous PiSS individuals have 50% normal A1AT levels, while homozygous PiZZ individuals have only 10% normal A1AT levels.

      The classic manifestation of A1AT deficiency is emphysema, which is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. This condition is most commonly seen in young, non-smoking patients. However, the evidence base is conflicting regarding the risk of emphysema. Non-smokers with A1AT deficiency are at a lower risk of developing emphysema, but they may pass on the A1AT gene to their children. Patients with A1AT deficiency who manifest disease usually have the PiZZ genotype.

      In addition to emphysema, A1AT deficiency can also cause liver problems such as cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, and cholestasis in children. Diagnosis is made by measuring A1AT concentrations and performing spirometry, which typically shows an obstructive pattern. Management includes avoiding smoking, supportive measures such as bronchodilators and physiotherapy, and intravenous A1AT protein concentrates. In severe cases, lung volume reduction surgery or lung transplantation may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      16.4
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  • Question 6 - A mother brings in her 3-day-old female baby to the pediatrician's office. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 3-day-old female baby to the pediatrician's office. She noticed a small cyst on the roof of the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white cystic vesicle measuring approximately 2 mm in diameter is found on the hard palate near the midline. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alveolar lymphangioma

      Correct Answer: Epstein's pearl

      Explanation:

      Epstein’s pearl, a type of congenital cyst found in the mouth, typically does not require any treatment. These cysts are commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be mistaken for a tooth eruption when located on the gums. They usually resolve on their own within a few weeks. Neonatal teeth, on the other hand, are rare and not typically found on the hard palate. Bohn’s nodules are mucous gland cysts that are usually located on the buccal or lingual aspects of the alveolar ridges, and rarely on the palate. A congenital ranula is a papule or nodule that is firm and translucent, and is typically found on the anterior floor of the mouth, lateral to the lingual frenulum.

      Understanding Epstein’s Pearl

      Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums, which may be mistaken for a tooth eruption. The good news is that no treatment is usually required as these cysts tend to disappear on their own within a few weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following factors indicates true seizures rather than pseudoseizures with the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors indicates true seizures rather than pseudoseizures with the highest certainty?

      Your Answer: Tongue biting

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures

      Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, also known as pseudoseizures, are a type of seizure that is not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Instead, they are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as stress, trauma, or anxiety. These seizures can be difficult to diagnose as they often mimic true epileptic seizures, but there are certain factors that can help differentiate between the two.

      Factors that may indicate pseudoseizures include pelvic thrusting, a family history of epilepsy, a higher incidence in females, crying after the seizure, and the seizures not occurring when the individual is alone. On the other hand, factors that may indicate true epileptic seizures include tongue biting and a raised serum prolactin level.

      Video telemetry is a useful tool for differentiating between the two types of seizures. It involves monitoring the individual’s brain activity and behavior during a seizure, which can help determine whether it is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain or psychological factors.

      It is important to accurately diagnose and treat psychogenic non-epileptic seizures as they can have a significant impact on an individual’s quality of life. Treatment may involve therapy to address underlying psychological factors, as well as medication to manage any associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for salty foods. She lost her job as a teacher because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. Neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a rare form of dementia that typically affects younger patients, with onset between 55 and 65 years old. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, early memory impairment is not a characteristic symptom of FTD. Instead, early personality and behavior changes are core features. Consensus guidelines suggest diagnostic criteria that include insidious onset and gradual progression, decline in social interpersonal conduct, early impairment in regulation of personal conduct, early emotional blunting, and early loss of insight. Supportive diagnostic features may include behavioral disorders, speech and language changes, and physical signs. Other forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease (LBD), multiple sclerosis (MS), and vascular dementia, have different characteristic symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female is prescribed varenicline to aid in smoking cessation. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female is prescribed varenicline to aid in smoking cessation. What is the most probable adverse effect that may occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his mother who recently arrived in the UK. Due to inadequate antenatal care in their home country, the baby has been experiencing rapid breathing, poor feeding, and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. During examination, the baby displayed upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent inner epicanthal folds, a protuberant tongue, and single palmar creases. Additionally, an atypical murmur was heard. An urgent echocardiogram was performed, and the diagnosis was revealed. What is the most likely congenital cardiac abnormality in this baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The most frequent congenital cardiac abnormality found in individuals with Down’s syndrome is atrioventricular septal defects. This baby, who displays typical syndromic features of Down’s syndrome, was not diagnosed during pregnancy due to inadequate antenatal care in Somalia. In the first few weeks of life, dyspnoea, failure to thrive, poor weight gain, and cyanosis can be common presentations. Although Tetralogy of Fallot can occur in Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common. Ventricular and atrial septal defects can also occur, but they are not as prevalent and do not align with the severity of this baby’s symptoms.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 11 - An 8-year-old girl is brought in by her father, who reports that the...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought in by her father, who reports that the child experiences constant urinary dribbling and dampness. A urine dipstick was negative.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Urinary and Bowel Issues in Children

      Overactive bladder and nocturnal enuresis are common urinary issues in children. Here are some medications that can be used to treat these conditions:

      1. Oxybutynin: This medication relaxes the urinary smooth muscle and is used to treat overactive bladder in children over 5 years old.

      2. Imipramine: A tricyclic antidepressant that is used as a second-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis.

      3. Desmopressin: A vasopressin analogue that can be used to treat nocturnal enuresis in children.

      4. Duloxetine: A serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used to treat stress urinary incontinence in women. It is not licensed for use in individuals under 18 years old.

      In addition, loperamide is an opioid antimotility drug that can be used to treat diarrhoea caused by gastroenteritis or inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. Although genetic testing has confirmed an abnormal genetic profile, the patient has not yet presented with any clinical manifestations of the condition. What is the genetic term used to describe conditions where the genotype is abnormal, but the phenotype remains normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low penetrance

      Explanation:

      When a condition has low genetic penetrance, it may not show many clinical signs or symptoms, and the patient may appear normal, despite having an abnormal genetic profile. This is because the severity of the phenotype is determined by the penetrance of the genotype. If the condition has high penetrance, the phenotype is more likely to be expressed, resulting in more signs and symptoms.

      Autosomal Dominant Diseases: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited from one parent who carries the abnormal gene. In these diseases, both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and both males and females can be affected. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Non-penetrance is a phenomenon where an individual carries the abnormal gene but does not show any clinical signs or symptoms of the disease. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis do not show any symptoms despite carrying the abnormal gene. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, where a new mutation occurs in one of the gametes. This can result in the disease appearing in a child even if both parents do not carry the abnormal gene. For instance, 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant diseases have distinct characteristics such as their inheritance pattern and the fact that affected individuals can pass on the disease. However, complicating factors such as non-penetrance and spontaneous mutation can affect the expression of the disease and make it more difficult to predict its occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old man with a history of psoriasis develops plaques on his scalp....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a history of psoriasis develops plaques on his scalp. What is the most suitable treatment option among the following choices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%

      Explanation:

      It’s a challenging question, especially since the decision on psoriasis treatment often involves the patient and doctor’s preference. While vitamin D analogues can be an option, calcipotriol is not advisable due to its potential to cause irritation. Instead, calcitriol and tacalcitol can be considered. For facial psoriasis, mild potency topical steroids can be effective. However, coal tar may not be well-tolerated for facial application due to its unpleasant odor and messiness.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following characteristics is more prevalent in Crohn's disease compared to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is more prevalent in Crohn's disease compared to ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal mass palpable in the right iliac fossa

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a complaint of difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a complaint of difficulty sleeping due to a blocked nose at night. She uses inhalers regularly for wheezing during cold weather and experiences a cough at night. What is the most common complication of her underlying diagnosis that she may be experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasal Polyps

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps and Associated Conditions

      Nasal polyps are a common condition that can cause a blocked nose, interrupting sleep and wheezing upon exertion. They are often associated with asthma, which is found along the atopic spectrum of diseases. Other conditions commonly associated with nasal polyps include allergic rhinitis and sinusitis.

      Allergic fungal sinusitis is another condition that can cause nasal polyps, but it is more commonly found in warmer climates and is not the most common cause in the United Kingdom. Paracetamol sensitivity is not associated with nasal polyps, but aspirin sensitivity is and can be part of Samter’s triad if the patient also has asthma.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is not associated with nasal polyps, and it would be rare to see in a young patient unless there was underlying alpha-1 anti-trypsin disease. COPD is most commonly seen in long-term smokers and presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath and a longstanding cough.

      Diabetes mellitus is not associated with nasal polyps and would present with other symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue. Understanding the conditions associated with nasal polyps can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old female comes to the gastroenterology clinic for a follow-up on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female comes to the gastroenterology clinic for a follow-up on her Crohn's disease. She has been on budesonide for 3 months to induce remission and reports feeling well. She did not experience any acute episodes during treatment and her bowel habits are regular. The physician determines that she requires maintenance therapy. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Bone marrow suppression, which can be fatal, is a potential risk associated with the use of azathioprine as a second-line treatment for Crohn’s disease. Budesonide, a corticosteroid medication primarily used for asthma prevention, may be considered as a second-line option for inducing remission in Crohn’s patients. Mesalazine, which acts locally on the colon’s mucous membrane and has various anti-inflammatory effects, is less effective than glucocorticoids but can be used as a second-line option to induce remission. Methotrexate, a folate derivative that inhibits enzymes responsible for nucleotide synthesis, is the second-line medication used to maintain remission in Crohn’s patients. However, in this case, there is no indication to use second-line management instead of first-line treatment.

      Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.

      To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old construction worker complains of headache, fever and muscle pains. Initially, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old construction worker complains of headache, fever and muscle pains. Initially, he thought it was just a common cold but his symptoms have worsened over the past week. He also reports feeling nauseous and having decreased urine output. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.2ºC, pulse is 102 / min and his chest is clear. There are subconjunctival haemorrhages present but no signs of jaundice. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leptospirosis

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Flu-Like Symptoms

      Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the spirochaete Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in sewage, farming, veterinary, or abattoir settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.

      Leptospirosis is a tropical disease that presents with flu-like symptoms and is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in certain settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling lethargic for the past 3 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: Hb 9.6 g/dl, MCV 123 fl, Plt 164 * 109/l, WCC 4.6 *109/l. Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed as having a gastric ulcer at endoscopy. No evidence of oesophageal or duodenal pathology was found. Helicobacter pylori testing was positive. She is not allergic to penicillin.
      Which of the following treatment regimens would be best suited to her case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin and either clarithromycin or metronidazole, followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Helicobacter pylori Infection

      Helicobacter pylori is a common bacterial infection that can cause dyspepsia and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). There are several treatment options available for patients who test positive for H. pylori.

      One option is a 7-day course of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. This should be followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks. Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have had previous exposure to clarithromycin should be offered a 7-day course of a PPI, bismuth, metronidazole, and tetracycline.

      Long-term PPI and dietary advice alone will not eradicate H. pylori. If symptoms return after initial care strategies for dyspepsia, step down PPI therapy to the lowest dose needed to control symptoms. Patients with GORD should be offered full-dose PPI.

      It is important to consult the British National Formulary (BNF) for appropriate doses of each drug, as they may vary. Sucralfate has no role in the eradication of H. pylori.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman reports leakage of urine, which is happening more often. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman reports leakage of urine, which is happening more often. She is unable to control her urine when she feels the urge to go and has had a few instances where she couldn't make it to the bathroom in time. There is no pain during urination and her urine dipstick test is negative. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urge incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects more women than men and increases with age. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own set of symptoms. Functional incontinence occurs when a person is unable to hold urine due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium or impaired mobility. Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress and urge incontinence, while overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss during periods of increased intra-abdominal pressure, while urge incontinence is associated with a sudden and intense desire to void that cannot be prevented. Symptoms of urge incontinence include urinary frequency and nocturia. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of the incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with rapidly worsening testicular...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with rapidly worsening testicular pain, redness, and swelling. Upon initial assessment, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 104 bpm, respiratory rate of 16/min, oxygen saturations of 97% on room air, and a blood pressure of 106/91 mmHg. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, heart failure, osteoarthritis, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which medication is most likely responsible for his current presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      SGLT-2 inhibitors, such as dapaglifozin, have been linked to a severe and rapidly progressing infection called necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene. This condition is caused by bacterial flora and is more common in diabetic and immunocompromised patients. It can lead to multiple organ failure and sepsis, making early surgical debridement and antibiotics crucial for management. It is important to note that Fournier’s gangrene is a serious adverse effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors, while the other options presented in the question are not associated with this condition.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the action of a protein called sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) in the kidneys. This results in a decrease in the amount of glucose that is reabsorbed by the body and an increase in the amount of glucose that is excreted in the urine. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      While SGLT-2 inhibitors can be effective in treating type 2 diabetes mellitus, they can also have some important adverse effects. One of the most common side effects is an increased risk of urinary and genital infections, which can occur due to the increased amount of glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported in some cases.

      Another potential complication of SGLT-2 inhibitors is normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition in which the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. This can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition if left untreated. Additionally, there is an increased risk of lower-limb amputation in patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors, so it is important to closely monitor the feet for any signs of injury or infection.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have some positive effects on overall health. Many patients taking these medications experience weight loss, which can be beneficial in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and risks of SGLT-2 inhibitors with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 22 - A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, lethargic, and disoriented, and it is suspected that he has not had a meal in the past two days. The medical team decides to initiate chlordiazepoxide PRN and administer IV Pabrinex. Which specific vitamin, found in Pabrinex, can help halt the progression of symptoms leading to Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.

      When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking your assistance in getting a referral to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking your assistance in getting a referral to a clinical geneticist. She has a family history of Huntington's disease, with her grandfather having died from the condition and her father recently diagnosed. She wants to learn more about the disease and its genetic inheritance. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease is caused by a defect on chromosome 4

      Explanation:

      The cause of Huntington’s disease is a flaw in the huntingtin gene located on chromosome 4, resulting in a degenerative and irreversible neurological disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects both genders equally.

      Understanding Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a progressive and incurable neurodegenerative condition that is inherited through an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by a trinucleotide repeat disorder, specifically an expansion of CAG. This results in the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia due to a defect in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4.

      One notable feature of Huntington’s disease is the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. Symptoms typically develop after the age of 35 and include chorea, dystonia, saccadic eye movements, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, as well as intellectual impairment.

      It is important to note that there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and treatment is focused on managing symptoms and improving quality of life. Early diagnosis and genetic counseling can be helpful for individuals and families affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old G1P0 woman attends her routine antenatal appointment at 12 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G1P0 woman attends her routine antenatal appointment at 12 weeks gestation and reports experiencing burning retrosternal pain. Omeprazole is prescribed, and a urine sample is taken. The urinalysis shows trace protein with no haematuria, nitrates, or white cells, and the patient denies any urinary symptoms. During the appointment, her blood pressure is measured at 135/88 mmHg. Upon further testing, the urine sample is found to have scant growth of Escherichia coli. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should be treated promptly with antibiotics. The recommended treatment is a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. This is important to prevent the development of symptomatic urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis. Nitrofurantoin is safe to use in the first and second trimester, but should be avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. The patient’s blood pressure is within normal range and does not require treatment. The trace of protein in her urine is likely related to her asymptomatic bacteriuria and should be monitored with subsequent urine dips. Antihypertensive treatment is not necessary based on the trace of protein alone. Prescribing a 7-day course of trimethoprim is not recommended as it is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy due to the increased risk of neural-tube defects. Prescribing aspirin, labetalol, and a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is not necessary as the patient does not meet the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension. Similarly, prescribing aspirin, labetalol, and a 7-day course of trimethoprim is not recommended for the same reasons.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.

      Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.

      Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis

      Explanation:

      For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. During the examination, you observe a rash on his nose and detect 2+ protein in his urine upon dipping. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this individual are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), as evidenced by the presence of the butterfly rash, joint pain, and proteinuria. In SLE, the impaired kidney function is responsible for the proteinuria. It is worth noting that SLE is more prevalent in females, with a ratio of 9:1 compared to males.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.

      Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man comes in to discuss the results of laboratory tests for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes in to discuss the results of laboratory tests for nail clippings taken 8 weeks ago. He had previously presented with thickening and discoloration of all the nails on his right foot. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is currently in good health and taking metformin, simvastatin, and ramipril. The lab report confirms the presence of onychomycosis. What treatment options should be offered to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.

      Understanding Fungal Nail Infections

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte moulds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of fungal nail infections is unsightly nails, which can be thickened, rough, and opaque. Other conditions, such as psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome, can mimic fungal nail infections. To confirm a diagnosis, nail clippings and scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. However, if a dermatophyte or Candida infection is confirmed, treatment is necessary. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive dermatophyte infections. Candida infections are best treated with oral itraconazole using a pulsed weekly therapy approach. It is important to note that cultures have a false-negative rate of around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 59-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of hearing difficulties. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of hearing difficulties. He reports that he can no longer hear the television from his couch and struggles to hear his wife when she speaks from another room. Upon examination, his ears appear normal and otoscopy reveals no abnormalities. He denies experiencing any other symptoms. The patient has a complicated medical history, including chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, heart failure, and diabetes mellitus. Which medication is the most probable cause of his hearing impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is the only medication among the options that may cause ototoxicity, marked by hearing loss. This loop diuretic is used to manage heart failure by inhibiting the Na+-K+-Cl- cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, reducing the absorption of NaCl. However, at high levels, it may also inhibit the Na+-K+-Cl- cotransporter in the inner ear, damaging the hair cells and decreasing endolymph. Amlodipine, bisoprolol, and ramipril are not known to cause ototoxicity and are used to manage hypertension and heart failure.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa in adolescents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is characterized by low levels of various substances, including growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, and carotene.

      Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.

      Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She reports having 'IBS' and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have worsened significantly over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:
      Hb 10.9 g/dl
      Platelets 199 * 109/l
      WBC 7.2 * 109/l
      Ferritin 15 ng/ml
      Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
      Folate 2.1 nmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      The key indicators in this case are the presence of anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate, which are all typical of coeliac disease. The description of the diarrhoea also matches the usual symptoms, although some patients may have stools that are visibly fatty.

      While irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition, it is unlikely to be the cause in this case due to the abnormal blood test results. Low levels of ferritin and folate would not typically be associated with IBS or gastroenteritis. Even if the patient had menorrhagia, this would not explain the low folate levels, although it could account for the anaemia and low ferritin.

      Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, with a prevalence that is around 100 times higher. In an exam scenario, there would typically be more clues pointing towards a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, such as the presence of mouth ulcers.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, sudden weight loss, and autoimmune thyroid disease. Other conditions associated with coeliac disease include irritable bowel syndrome, dermatitis herpetiformis, and type 1 diabetes. First-degree relatives of patients with coeliac disease should also be screened.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, lactose intolerance, and enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine. In rare cases, coeliac disease may lead to esophageal cancer or other malignancies.

      Overall, understanding coeliac disease is crucial for early diagnosis and management of the condition. Screening for coeliac disease in patients with relevant symptoms and conditions can help prevent complications and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
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