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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 7 cm above the sternal angle and large V waves are observed. Upon listening to the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is heard at the left sternal edge. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.

      Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: This condition produces an ejection systolic murmur.

      Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.

      Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the neck.

      Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).

      These common heart murmurs have distinct characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old female complains of pain and redness in the back of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female complains of pain and redness in the back of her calf, near a varicose vein. An ultrasound reveals no signs of DVT, but a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis of the distal great saphenous vein is made. The patient is prescribed NSAIDs for anti-inflammatory pain relief. What other treatment should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings are the recommended treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis as they can reduce the risk of DVT and alleviate the condition. This is crucial as ongoing thrombophlebitis can significantly increase the risk of DVT. Endovenous laser ablation (EVLA), great saphenous vein biopsy, and superficial vein sclerotherapy are not appropriate treatments for thrombophlebitis as they are used for different purposes and can even be contraindicated in inflamed or thrombophlebitic veins.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the saphenofemoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old male with a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m2, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male with a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m2, presents with bilateral lower limb cellulitis. A urine dipstick reveals glycosuria ++.
      What test could provide a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Type 2 Diabetes

      HbA1c is now widely accepted as a diagnostic test for type 2 diabetes. A level of HbA1c greater than 48 mmol/mol (or 6.5%) is considered diagnostic, especially when taken in the appropriate clinical context. In some cases, an infection may reveal the diagnosis of diabetes.

      For the purpose of an oral glucose tolerance test, a 75-gram glucose load (not 100g) is the standard. This test should be carried out after random and fasting blood glucose tests. It’s important to note that a random blood glucose sample may be misleading in this context. Therefore, an alternative way to diagnose type 2 diabetes in a patient initially would be a fasting glucose test.

      While fasting insulin levels may be elevated in a patient with type 2 diabetes, it does not play a role in their diagnosis. It’s important to use the appropriate diagnostic tests and consider the clinical context when diagnosing type 2 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed areas that appeared two weeks ago. She was diagnosed with primary tuberculosis four months ago and is currently undergoing treatment with rifampicin and isoniazid. What antibodies are expected to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-histone antibodies is associated with drug-induced lupus, which is the most likely cause of the symmetrical annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed areas in this patient who is currently taking isoniazid. Anti-Ro antibodies are not relevant as they are commonly associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, while anti-centromere antibodies are associated with limited systemic sclerosis. Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, which is less likely in this patient given her age and clinical presentation.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa. Upon examination, local peritonitis is observed. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count. He has no prior history of abdominal disease, but he does have a history of atrial fibrillation. Pain worsens after eating and is alleviated by defecation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Localised Peritonitis and Left Iliac Fossa Pain

      Diverticular Disease:
      Diverticular disease is a common cause of localised peritonitis and left iliac fossa pain, especially in the elderly. It occurs due to the herniation of the intestinal mucosa through the muscle, forming an outpouching. Patients with diverticulitis present with slow-onset, constant pain, usually in the left iliac fossa, exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation. Acute diverticulitis can cause severe sepsis by rupture of a diverticulum and abscess formation or obstruction of the bowel. Diverticular disease can also cause bleeding per rectum. Conservative management includes increasing fluid intake, fibre in the diet, bulk-forming laxatives, and paracetamol to ease the pain.

      Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm:
      A ruptured aortic aneurysm presents with central abdominal pain, a pulsatile abdominal mass, and shock due to the volume of blood loss. It is associated with 100% mortality if not treated promptly.

      Splenic Infarct:
      A splenic infarct presents with acute pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, referred to the shoulder, and is more commonly seen in patients with haematological conditions such as sickle-cell disease.

      Ureteric Colic:
      Ureteric colic presents with characteristic loin-to-groin pain that has an intermittent colicky nature, with acute exacerbations. It can present in either iliac fossa, but it would not cause localised peritonitis.

      Acute Small Bowel Ischaemia:
      Acute small bowel ischaemia presents with an acute central or right-sided abdominal pain that is increasingly worsening, has no localising signs, and presents as generalised abdominal tenderness or distension. The patient is very unwell, with varying symptoms, including vomiting, diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, sepsis, and confusion. A highly raised serum/blood gas lactate level that does not drop following initial resuscitation attempts is a clue. It requires prompt treatment due to its high mortality risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She also reports experiencing dyspareunia. During a speculum examination, the GP observes a curdy, white discharge covering the vaginal walls with a non-offensive odour. The GP also notes some vulval excoriations. What infection is likely causing this woman's discharge?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Vaginal discharge is a common symptom experienced by women, and it can be caused by various infections. Here are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge, along with their symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options.

      Candidiasis: This infection is caused by Candida fungi, particularly Candida albicans. Symptoms include vaginal itch, thick discharge with a consistency similar to cottage cheese, vaginal discomfort, and pain during sexual intercourse. Diagnosis is usually clinical, and treatment includes good hygiene, emollients, loose-fitting underwear, and antifungal cream or pessary, or oral antifungal medication.

      Trichomoniasis: This infection is caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. Symptoms include dysuria, itch, and yellow-green discharge that can have a strong odor. Up to 50% of infected individuals are asymptomatic.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobes in the vagina, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis. Symptoms include a thin, white discharge, vaginal pH >4.5, and clue cells seen on microscopy. Treatment of choice is oral metronidazole.

      Streptococcal infection: Streptococcal vulvovaginitis presents with inflammation, itch, and a strong-smelling vaginal discharge. It is most commonly seen in pre-pubertal girls.

      Chlamydia: Although Chlamydia infection can present with urethral purulent discharge and dyspareunia, most infected individuals are asymptomatic. Chlamydia-associated discharge is typically more purulent and yellow-clear in appearance, rather than cheese-like.

      In conclusion, proper diagnosis and treatment of vaginal discharge depend on identifying the underlying cause. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of vaginal discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling down...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling down for some time. She reports experiencing episodes lasting approximately three minutes where she suddenly becomes very anxious and hyperventilates. Upon further inquiry, the GP discovers that this has been progressively worsening over the past two months. The patient is interested in knowing if there are any medications that could assist her.
      What is the mode of action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Build up of neurotransmitter in synaptic cleft

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitter Effects of Different Medications

      Different medications have varying effects on neurotransmitters in the brain. Here are some examples:

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are primarily used as antidepressants and can also be used to manage panic attacks and anxiety disorders. They work by inhibiting the activity of enzymes monoamine oxidase A and B found within the synaptic cleft. This results in a reduction in the breakdown of monoamine neurotransmitters such as serotonin, melatonin, adrenaline, and noradrenaline, leading to a build-up of these neurotransmitters within the synaptic cleft.

      Benzodiazepines are GABA agonists that bind to GABA receptors in the neurone membrane and potentiate the action of the receptor, increasing conduction of chloride ions across the membrane. This results in membrane hyperpolarisation, making the neurone less likely to fire. This can explain both the analgesic and sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

      Stimulant medication such as amphetamines inhibit the re-uptake of dopamine and to a lesser extent noradrenaline and serotonin. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors also inhibit the re-uptake of serotonin. This leads to a reduced re-uptake of neurotransmitters.

      Tricyclic antidepressants, some SSRIs, clozapine, and olanzapine are anticholinergic medication that competitively bind to the acetylcholine receptor on the postsynaptic neurone, reducing the amount of acetylcholine binding. This results in an antibody to acetylcholine receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old cyclist is struck by a bus traveling at 30mph. Despite not...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old cyclist is struck by a bus traveling at 30mph. Despite not wearing a helmet, he is conscious upon arrival with a GCS of 3/15 and is intubated. A CT scan reveals evidence of cerebral contusion, but there are no localizing clinical signs. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of intracranial pressure monitoring device

      Explanation:

      Intracranial pressure monitoring will aid in the management of this patient who is at risk of developing elevated ICP in the coming days.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman is brought to the hospital by air ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought to the hospital by air ambulance due to dyspnoea and severe chest pain after being thrown from a horse and trampled during an event.

      Upon examination, there is a decrease in breath sounds on the left side of the chest with hyper-resonant percussion, and the apex beat is shifted to the right. Additionally, the patient's right arm appears to have a closed humeral fracture.

      Considering the examination results, which medication should be used with caution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide

      Explanation:

      When treating a patient with a pneumothorax, caution should be exercised when using nitrous oxide. This is because nitrous oxide has a tendency to diffuse into air-filled spaces, including pneumothoraces, which can worsen cardiopulmonary impairment. In contrast, desflurane may be safely administered to patients with pneumothoraces as it does not diffuse into gas-filled airspaces as readily as nitrous oxide. Ketamine and morphine are also safe options for pain control in patients with traumatic pneumothoraces, with ketamine not being associated with cardiorespiratory depression and morphine being considered first-line due to its predictable effects and reversibility with naloxone. Neither ketamine or morphine are listed as a ‘caution’ for pneumothoraces in the BNF.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon conducting investigations, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
      ALP 270 U/l
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of right upper quadrant pain....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of right upper quadrant pain. She has a past medical history of hypercholesterolaemia and obesity. On clinical examination, she is alert and has a temperature of 38.6 °C, a heart rate of 90 bpm, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 112/90 mmHg and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. She has tenderness in her right upper quadrant. Murphy’s sign is positive.
      Her blood test results are listed below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 3 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Blood glucose 7.9 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 44 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following does this patient have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Sepsis, Acute Pancreatitis, Appendicitis, Septic Shock, and Urosepsis

      When a patient presents with symptoms of fever, elevated heart rate, and a possible infective process, it is important to differentiate between various conditions such as sepsis, acute pancreatitis, appendicitis, septic shock, and urosepsis. In the case of sepsis, the patient may have a mild elevation in heart rate and temperature, along with a low white cell count. If there is evidence of an infective process in the biliary system, broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated as part of the Sepsis Six protocol activation. Acute pancreatitis is a serious diagnosis that is often associated with vomiting and a mild rise in temperature. Appendicitis typically presents with central abdominal pain that later localizes to the right iliac fossa, along with anorexia and vomiting. If a patient has sepsis with severe tachycardia, systolic blood pressure of < 90 mmHg, or life-threatening features resistant to resuscitation, they may have septic shock. Finally, urosepsis may present with symptoms of dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic tenderness, or it may be asymptomatic in elderly patients who present with confusion. It is important to rule out urosepsis in elderly patients who present unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old male is receiving his last round of ICE chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is receiving his last round of ICE chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the potential risk associated with his treatment that he may develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy can lead to a higher risk of gout due to the increased production of uric acid from the breakdown of cells. However, it is not associated with an increased risk of pseudogout or rheumatoid arthritis, which are caused by different factors such as calcium pyrophosphate crystals and genetics, respectively.

      Understanding the Predisposing Factors of Gout

      Gout is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when monosodium urate monohydrate is deposited in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels that exceed 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.

      One of the primary causes of decreased uric acid excretion is the use of diuretics. Chronic kidney disease and lead toxicity can also lead to decreased excretion of uric acid. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be caused by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis. Additionally, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is an x-linked recessive disorder that is only seen in boys, can also lead to increased production of uric acid.

      It is important to note that aspirin in low doses is not thought to have a significant effect on plasma urate levels. Therefore, it is recommended that it should be continued if required for cardiovascular prophylaxis. Understanding the predisposing factors of gout can help individuals take preventative measures to reduce their risk of developing this painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A clinical trial is currently underway to evaluate the effectiveness of Smellexat, a...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is currently underway to evaluate the effectiveness of Smellexat, a new medication for mild-moderate hayfever symptoms, compared to standard therapy with cetirizine. At what stage of drug development is this trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      The Phases of Drug Testing

      New drugs undergo a series of studies known as phases 0-4. Phase 0 is a pre-clinical study that involves animals and/or cells. Phase 1 is the first testing on humans and usually involves healthy volunteers. Phase 2 involves patients with the relevant disease, while phase 3 involves thousands of patients to prove the drug’s effectiveness and safety. If the drug passes phase 3, the company can apply for regulatory approval to market the drug. Phase 4 is post-regulatory monitoring, where companies review the drug’s performance and assess any risk of side effects in a particular population. The yellow card system is also used to report any new or rare side effects. Each phase serves a specific purpose in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of new drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old patient with psoriasis, hypothyroidism and psychotic depression complains of painful aphthous-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient with psoriasis, hypothyroidism and psychotic depression complains of painful aphthous-like ulcers that started 3 weeks ago after beginning a new medication. Which medication is the most probable cause of their symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate is known to cause mucositis, while lithium can lead to thyrotoxicosis but not oral ulcers. Levothyroxine may also cause thyrotoxicosis but not mouth ulcers. Atorvastatin does not typically cause mouth ulcers, with the most common side effects being myalgia and skin flushing. It is important to note that only methotrexate has mucositis listed as a side effect in the BNF.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a match. He arrived at the Emergency Department in visible discomfort with a deformed right shoulder that appeared flattened and drooped lower than his left. An X-ray revealed an anterior dislocation.
      What is the name of the nerve that passes around the surgical neck of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior branch of the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Branches and their Innervations in the Upper Limb

      The upper limb is innervated by various nerves that originate from the brachial plexus. Each nerve has specific branches that innervate different muscles and areas of the arm. Here are some important nerve branches and their innervations in the upper limb:

      1. Anterior branch of the axillary nerve: This nerve branch winds around the surgical neck of the humerus and innervates the teres minor, deltoid, glenohumeral joint, and skin over the inferior part of the deltoid.

      2. Median nerve: This nerve passes through the carpal tunnel and innervates the muscles of the anterior forearm, as well as the skin over the palmar aspect of the hand.

      3. Lateral cutaneous nerve: This nerve is a continuation of the posterior branch of the axillary nerve and sweeps around the posterior border of the deltoid, innervating the skin over the lateral aspect of the arm.

      4. Posterior interosseous nerve: This nerve is a branch of the radial nerve and does not wind around the surgical neck of the humerus. It innervates the muscles of the posterior forearm.

      5. Radial nerve: This nerve winds around the midshaft of the humerus and innervates the muscles of the posterior arm and forearm, as well as the skin over the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm.

      Understanding the innervations of these nerve branches is important in diagnosing and treating upper limb injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 16 - A five-month-old girl arrives at the emergency department with a 10-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A five-month-old girl arrives at the emergency department with a 10-hour history of fever, vomiting, and irritability. During examination, a bulging anterior fontanelle and reduced tone in all four limbs are observed. The patient's vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate: 40/min, heart rate: 150/min, blood pressure: 75/45 mmHg, and temperature: 39.8ºC. What would be the most suitable initial medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      The appropriate initial treatment for meningitis in patients over 3 months of age is intravenous administration of a 3rd generation cephalosporin, specifically ceftriaxone. This is important to consider in patients with non-specific symptoms but concerning observations and examination findings. Intramuscular or oral benzylpenicillin is not the correct choice for initial empirical therapy, as it is reserved for use in the community before transfer to the hospital. Intravenous cephalexin is also not appropriate, as it is a first-generation cephalosporin and is administered orally rather than intravenously.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by her father, who is concerned about her behaviour at home and school. Over the past 18 months, her father has noted problems with inattention, hyperactivity and impulsivity. Teachers have also been raising similar issues about her behaviour in school. Her symptoms are affecting her performance in school and her relationship at home with her parents and siblings.
      Which one of the following conditions is she most likely to be diagnosed with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of ADHD, which is characterized by persistent patterns of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that interfere with functioning or development. These symptoms must have been present before the age of 12 and evident in multiple settings for at least six months. However, there are no indications of autism spectrum disorder, learning difficulty, or learning disability. Additionally, the patient does not display any symptoms of oppositional defiance disorder, which is characterized by angry or irritable mood, argumentative behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least six months and causing distress or impairment in social, educational, or occupational functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old woman is recovering on the surgical ward two days after undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is recovering on the surgical ward two days after undergoing hemicolectomy for colorectal carcinoma. She has been instructed to fast. Her epidural fell out about twelve hours after the surgery, causing her significant pain. Despite the on-call anaesthetist being unavailable for several hours, the epidural was eventually replaced. The next morning, you examine her and find that she is now pain-free but complaining of shortness of breath. Additionally, she has developed a fever of 38.2º. What is the most probable reason for her fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory tract infection

      Explanation:

      Poor post-operative pain management can lead to pneumonia as a complication. Junior doctors on surgical wards often face the challenge of identifying and managing post-operative fever. A general timeline can be used to determine the probable cause of fever, with wind (pneumonia, aspiration, pulmonary embolism) being the likely cause on days 1-2, water (urinary tract infection) on days 3-5, wound (infection at surgical site or abscess formation) on days 5-7, and walking (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism) on day 5 and beyond. Drug reactions, transfusion reactions, sepsis, and line contamination can occur at any time. In this case, the patient’s inadequate pain relief may have caused her to breathe shallowly, increasing her risk of respiratory tract infections and atelectasis. While atelectasis is a common post-operative finding, there is no evidence that it causes fever. Therefore, the patient’s new symptoms are more likely due to a respiratory tract infection. Anastomotic leak is unlikely as the patient is still not eating or drinking. Surgical site infections are more common after day 5, and urinary tract infections would not explain the patient’s shortness of breath.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 19 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw her 1 month ago for low mood and referred her for counselling. She states she is still feeling low and her feelings of anxiety are worsening. She is keen to try medication to help. Sarah has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for her to commence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding women can safely take sertraline or paroxetine as their preferred SSRIs. These medications are known to have minimal to low levels of exposure to infants through breast milk, and are not considered harmful to them. Therefore, if a mother is diagnosed with postnatal depression and requires antidepressant treatment, she should not be advised to stop breastfeeding.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - Which nerve root is associated with the ankle reflex test performed during a...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve root is associated with the ankle reflex test performed during a neurological examination of the lower limbs where the foot is held in external rotation, the knee is flexed, and the Achilles tendon is struck with a tendon hammer while observing the calf?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve S1, S2

      Explanation:

      The Tibial Nerve and Ankle Reflex

      The ankle reflex is controlled by the tibial nerve, which originates from the S1 and S2 nerve roots. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and is responsible for supplying the posterior muscles of the leg and knee joint. The tibial nerve forms in the popliteal fossa and runs downwards on the tibialis posterior.

      As it travels, the tibial nerve provides sensation and motor function to the muscles in the leg and knee joint. It terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. These nerves are responsible for providing sensation to the sole of the foot and controlling the muscles that move the foot and toes.

      Overall, the tibial nerve plays a crucial role in the ankle reflex and the overall function of the leg and foot. Its proper functioning is essential for maintaining balance and mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old woman with shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, non-productive cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, non-productive cough and two documented episodes of pulmonary thromboemboli over the last year undergoes a heart–lung transplant. Her native heart shows massive right ventricular hypertrophy. The lungs show numerous thromboemboli, and the vasculature shows marked medial smooth muscle hypertrophy and atherosclerotic plaques on the main pulmonary arteries.
      With which of the following diagnoses are these findings most consistent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Conditions: Understanding the Unique Characteristics

      Pulmonary Hypertension:
      Pulmonary hypertension causes medial hypertrophy, arterial fibrosis, and narrowing of the arterial lumen, leading to arterial thrombosis. Primary pulmonary hypertension is characterized by plexogenic pulmonary arteriopathy, which causes hypertrophy of the right ventricle.

      Pneumonia:
      Pneumonia is inflammation of the air sacs in the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or micro-organisms. However, the presence of massive right ventricular hypertrophy and multiple thromboemboli in the lungs is not consistent with a sole diagnosis of pneumonia.

      Atopic Asthma:
      Atopic asthma is characterized by chronic airway inflammation and bronchial hyper-responsiveness. The findings in atopic asthma include copious mucous plugs, numerous bronchial eosinophils and neutrophils, bronchial basement membrane thickening, and hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle and submucosal glands.

      Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS):
      ARDS is a rapid onset of respiratory insufficiency due to diffuse alveolar damage. The lung findings include alveoli filled with proteinaceous debris and desquamated alveolar lining cells and alveolar septae lined by hyaline membranes. The heart and pulmonary vasculature show no specific changes in ARDS.

      Goodpasture’s Syndrome:
      Goodpasture’s syndrome is a necrotizing and hemorrhagic pneumonitis accompanied by rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. The lungs are filled with fresh hemorrhage and hemosiderin-laden macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old man is prescribed tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia. What are the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is prescribed tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia. What are the potential side-effects he may encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dizziness + postural hypotension

      Explanation:

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination, his eye is turned down and out, and he has limited adduction, elevation, and depression of the eye, as well as ptosis. Additionally, his pupil is fixed and dilated. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Common Cranial Nerve Palsies and Their Symptoms

      Cranial nerve palsies can cause a variety of symptoms depending on which nerve is affected. Here are some common cranial nerve palsies and their associated symptoms:

      Third Nerve Palsy: This affects the oculomotor nerve and causes the eye to be positioned downward and outward, along with ptosis (drooping eyelid) and mydriasis (dilated pupil).

      Sixth Nerve Palsy: This affects the abducens nerve and causes medial deviation of the eye.

      Fourth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trochlear nerve and causes the eye to look out and down, resulting in vertical or oblique diplopia (double vision). Patients may tilt their head away from the affected side to correct this.

      Horner’s Syndrome: This presents with miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis, and ipsilateral anhidrosis (lack of sweating on one side of the face).

      Fifth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for facial sensation and some motor functions related to biting and chewing. It does not affect the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down. She finds it...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down. She finds it difficult to work with her colleagues and believes they are not performing up to par. Consequently, she declines to delegate tasks and has become exhausted.
      Upon further inquiry, she adheres to a strict daily routine and tries to avoid deviating from it as much as possible. If she fails to follow this plan, she becomes anxious and spends her free time catching up on tasks.
      What is the most suitable course of action in managing her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      The female librarian seeking advice exhibits inflexible behavior in her work and becomes easily annoyed when her routines are disrupted. She prefers to work alone, relying on lists and rules to structure her day, which are indicative of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is the recommended approach for managing personality disorders, including OCPD. Exposure and response prevention (ERP) and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) are not appropriate for her condition, as they are used to manage obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), respectively. Prescribing fluoxetine may be considered for any associated depression, but addressing the underlying cause with DBT is the initial priority.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - As a part of a study on the patterns of antibiotic resistance, the...

    Incorrect

    • As a part of a study on the patterns of antibiotic resistance, the mechanisms of actions of various antibiotics and how this affects resistance is observed.

      Which one of the antibiotics below acts by inhibiting protein synthesis, for a research project aimed at a younger audience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics can work in different ways to fight bacterial infections. Some, like penicillins and cephalosporins, inhibit the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, making it weaker and more susceptible to damage. Others, such as macrolides, tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, lincomycin, chloramphenicol, and clindamycin, interfere with bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosomal subunit. Sulfonamides, trimethoprim, quinolones, metronidazole, and rifampicin affect nucleic acid synthesis, while polymyxins affect the function of the bacterial cell membrane. It is important to note that some antibiotics, like trimethoprim, are contraindicated in certain situations, such as during the first trimester of pregnancy, due to the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 3-year-old girl with meningococcal septicaemia has a cardiac arrest on the ward....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with meningococcal septicaemia has a cardiac arrest on the ward. You are the first responder. After confirming the arrest and following the paediatric BLS protocol, what is the appropriate rate for chest compressions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute

      Explanation:

      The Paediatric Basic Life Support guideline of the UK Resuscitation Council mandates that chest compressions for children of all ages should be administered at a rate of 100-120 per minute, with a depth that depresses the sternum by at least one-third of the chest’s depth. Individuals without paediatric resuscitation training are advised to use the adult chest compression to rescue breaths ratio of 30:2, while those caring for children and trained to do so should use a ratio of 15:2. It is important to note that the initial danger-response-airway-breathing-circulation sequence must still be followed.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a vaginal examination and membrane sweeping at her antenatal visit. Despite these efforts, she has not gone into labor after 6 hours. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, 1 cm dilated, 1.5 cm in length, and in the middle position. The fetal head station is -3, but there have been no complications during the pregnancy. What should be the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin gel

      Explanation:

      If the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, the recommended method for inducing labor is through vaginal PGE2 or oral misoprostol. In this case, since the Bishop score was less than 5, labor is unlikely without induction. One option could be to repeat a membrane sweep, but the most appropriate course of action would be to use a vaginal prostaglandin gel.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. During the examination, a purpuric rash is observed on the trunk and limbs.

      What condition is this patient at risk for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Syndromes and Their Characteristics

      Waterhouse–Friderichsen Syndrome: This syndrome is caused by acute meningococcal sepsis due to Neisseria meningitidis. It can lead to sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), endotoxic shock, and acute primary adrenal failure.

      Zollinger–Ellison Syndrome: This syndrome results from a gastrinoma, which leads to recurrent peptic ulcers.

      Osler–Weber–Rendu Disease: Also known as hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, this disease results in multiple telangiectasias and arteriovenous shunting of blood.

      Fitz–Hugh–Curtis Syndrome: This is a rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease, resulting in liver capsule inflammation.

      Cushing Syndrome: This syndrome is due to excess cortisol, which causes hypertension, central obesity, striae, a moon face, and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A woman in her 40s has the BRCA2 mutation. What cancers are she...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 40s has the BRCA2 mutation. What cancers are she and her family members at higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast, prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, melanoma

      Explanation:

      BRCA1 and BRCA2: Associated Cancers and Mechanisms of Action

      The BRCA1 and BRCA2 tumour suppressor genes are commonly associated with breast cancer, but they also predispose individuals to other types of cancer such as prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, and melanoma. Mutations in both copies of BRCA2 can lead to Fanconi anaemia and an increased risk of certain types of leukaemia.

      Both BRCA1 and BRCA2 play a role in repairing double-stranded DNA breaks, but through different mechanisms. BRCA2 is involved in homologous recombination, while BRCA1 is involved in non-homologous end-joining. This mechanism is utilized in the treatment of BRCA-associated cancers through the use of PARP inhibitors. PARP is a protein that repairs single-stranded DNA breaks, and inhibiting it creates multiple double-stranded breaks that cannot be fixed by BRCA-deficient cells, leading to cell death.

      While BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations account for approximately 20% of familial breast cancer cases, they are also associated with other cancers such as prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, and melanoma. However, they are not associated with bladder cancer. Leukaemia, thyroid, and endometrial cancers are also not linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old man presents with non-specific chest pain lasting 6 hours. His ECG...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with non-specific chest pain lasting 6 hours. His ECG shows no significant changes, and cardiac enzymes are normal. As the pain becomes sharper and localizes to the left side of his chest over the next 48 hours, he reports that it worsens when lying down and taking deep breaths. The diagnosis is pericarditis.
      What can be said about the pericardium in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The transverse sinus of the pericardium can be found behind the major vessels emerging from the ventricles, but in front of the superior vena cava

      Explanation:

      Pericardium Layers and Sinuses: Understanding the Anatomy of the Heart’s Protective Membrane

      The pericardium is a protective membrane that surrounds the heart. It consists of two layers: the fibrous pericardium and the serous pericardium. The fibrous pericardium adheres to the heart muscle and is derived from the somatopleuric mesoderm of the body cavity. The visceral layer of the serous pericardium, also known as the epicardium, adheres to the heart muscle and is derived from the splanchnopleuric mesoderm of the body cavity.

      The pericardium also contains two sinuses: the transverse sinus and the oblique sinus. The transverse sinus can be found behind the major vessels emerging from the ventricles, but in front of the superior vena cava. The oblique sinus is the other pericardial sinus.

      It is important to understand the anatomy of the pericardium in order to properly diagnose and treat conditions that affect the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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