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  • Question 1 - As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old...

    Correct

    • As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old man who is noted to prefer solitude, has never been in a romantic relationship, and has no desire for one. He also displays minimal interest in engaging in sexual activities with others. Despite performing well at work, he places little importance on feedback from his colleagues. Based on this information, which personality disorder is most likely present in this individual?

      Your Answer: Schizoid

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a preference for solitude, a lack of interest in close relationships, and a low libido. It is important to note that while asexuality is recognized as part of the LGBTQ+ spectrum, it is not included in the diagnostic criteria for this disorder. The DSM-5 and ICD-10 both list a lack of desire for close relationships, a preference for solitary activities, and a limited capacity for expressing emotions as key features of schizoid personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder may also appear indifferent to praise or criticism, lack close friends or confidants, and exhibit emotional detachment or flattened affectivity. In contrast, borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability in relationships, including sudden mood swings, rages, self-harming behaviors, and intense jealousy. Dependent personality disorder involves a reliance on others for reassurance and decision-making.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his partner reported he ingested multiple tablets of paracetamol after an argument. The patient is currently medically stable and can give a history to the attending emergency physician. He reports that he regrets taking the tablets and that this is the first time he has committed such an act. He claims that he acted in a moment of anger after the argument and never planned for this to happen. He suffers from moderate depression which has been managed by his general practitioner with sertraline. He consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and denies any abuse of recreational drugs. He has no family history of mental illness.
      Which one of the following is an important dynamic risk factor to consider when managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Self-harm plans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Static and Dynamic Risk Factors for Suicide Risk Assessment

      Suicide risk assessment involves evaluating both static and dynamic risk factors. Static risk factors, such as age, sex, and previous history of self-harm, cannot be changed. Dynamic risk factors, such as drug use, self-harm plans, and income/employment status, can potentially be modified to reduce future risk of suicide.

      Having a well-thought-out plan for self-harm is a major risk factor for suicide. Asking patients about their suicide plans can identify those at highest risk and allow for early intervention. Self-harm plans are a dynamic risk factor that can be acted upon to mitigate future risk of suicide.

      A history of drug abuse and alcohol misuse are static risk factors for suicide. While interventions are available to manage current drug and alcohol misuse, a history of misuse cannot be modified.

      A history of self-harm is also a risk factor for suicide, as individuals who have previously attempted suicide are more likely to do so in the future. However, a history of self-harm is a static risk factor and should not be considered a dynamic risk factor for suicide risk assessment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old patient presents to her doctor with symptoms of low mood and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to her doctor with symptoms of low mood and anhedonia. She has previously undergone cognitive behavioural therapy and art therapy, but with limited success. The doctor prescribes citalopram and refers her for additional talk therapy.
      What medication should be avoided while taking citalopram?

      Your Answer: Rasagiline

      Explanation:

      Combining SSRIs and MAOIs is not recommended due to the potential danger of developing serotonin syndrome.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of insomnia. She...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of insomnia. She reports feeling persistently anxious and unable to cease worrying about everything. The GP suspects she may have an anxiety disorder.
      What is the most effective tool to use in making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7)

      Explanation:

      Common Screening Tools for Mental Health Conditions

      There are several screening tools used in healthcare settings to identify and monitor mental health conditions. These tools help healthcare professionals assess the severity of symptoms and determine appropriate treatment plans. Here are some commonly used screening tools:

      1. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This questionnaire consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder. It measures the severity of symptoms as mild, moderate, or severe.

      2. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): The AUDIT is a screening tool used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.

      3. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): The MMSE is a questionnaire consisting of 30 questions used to identify cognitive impairment. It is commonly used to screen for dementia.

      4. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M SASQ): The M SASQ is a single-question alcohol-harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on their frequency of consuming six or more units (if female, or eight or more if male) on a single occasion in the last year.

      5. Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9): The PHQ-9 is used in primary care to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment. It uses each of the nine Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition criteria for a diagnosis of depression and scores each domain depending on how often the patient experiences these symptoms.

      These screening tools are valuable resources for healthcare professionals to identify and monitor mental health conditions. By using these tools, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and support to their patients.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward and the medical team...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward and the medical team is concerned about her mental health in addition to her urgent medical needs. The patient is refusing treatment and insisting on leaving. The team suspects that she may be mentally incapacitated and unable to make an informed decision. Under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA) can they legally detain her in England and Wales?

      Your Answer: Section 5 (2)

      Explanation:

      Section 5 (2) of the MHA allows a doctor to detain a patient for up to 72 hours for assessment. This can be used for both informal patients in mental health hospitals and general hospitals. During this time, the patient is assessed by an approved mental health professional and a doctor with Section 12 approval. The patient can refuse treatment, but it can be given in their best interests or in an emergency. Section 2 and 3 can only be used if they are the least restrictive method for treatment and allow for detention for up to 28 days and 6 months, respectively. Section 135 allows police to remove a person from their home for assessment, while Section 136 allows for the removal of an apparently mentally disordered person from a public place to a place of safety for assessment. Since the patient in this scenario is already in hospital, neither Section 135 nor Section 136 would apply.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother to discuss his acne. His mother takes care of all his medications, as he cannot understand the instructions. He lives with his parents and depends on them to do all his cooking and washing. He does not work but attends a day centre a few days per week, where he enjoys craft activities and has a number of close friends. The staff report he is always very polite and interacts well with everyone at the centre. His mother says he is unable to be left alone in the house and cannot go out on his own without the support of another adult.
      Which one of the following conditions does he have?

      Your Answer: Learning disability

      Explanation:

      The patient is unable to function independently and relies on his parents for daily care, indicating a possible diagnosis of a learning disability. This condition is defined by the Department of Health as a significant reduction in the ability to learn new skills and understand complex information, leading to a decreased ability to cope independently. Symptoms must have started before adulthood and have a lasting impact on development. Other potential diagnoses, such as ADHD, autism spectrum disorder, learning difficulty, and oppositional defiant disorder, do not fit the patient’s symptoms and behaviors.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is...

    Correct

    • You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is registered at your practice. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. According to her husband, for the past three days, she has been talking nonsensically and experiencing hallucinations. An Approved Mental Health Professional is contacted and heads to the patient's residence. Upon arrival, you encounter a disheveled and emaciated woman sitting on the pavement outside her home, threatening to physically harm you. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Call the police

      Explanation:

      If the patient is exhibiting violent behavior in a public place, it is advisable to contact the police and have her taken to a secure location for a proper evaluation. It is important to note that Metformin does not lead to hypoglycemia.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old male construction worker presents to the clinic with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male construction worker presents to the clinic with concerns about his recent behavior at work. Over the past week, he has been very talkative and easily distracted while on the job. This is unusual for him as he typically prefers to stay focused and get his work done efficiently. He also reports feeling more energetic than usual and needing less sleep. He denies any impulsive behavior, drug use, or sexual promiscuity. There is no significant medical history, but his father has a history of bipolar disorder.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to the community mental health team

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to the community mental health team

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of hypomania in primary care, it is important to refer them to the community mental health team for confirmation of the diagnosis before prescribing any medication. Quetiapine is often used as a first-line treatment for acute bipolar disorder, but it should not be prescribed until the diagnosis is confirmed. SSRIs are not recommended for depressive episodes in bipolar disorder, and olanzapine and fluoxetine should only be used in rare circumstances for acute depression. Lithium is a common medication for bipolar disorder, but it should not be prescribed until the diagnosis is confirmed. Routine referral to the community mental health team is advised for patients presenting with hypomania in primary care, and urgent referral may be necessary if the patient is at risk of self-harm or harm to others. Referral may also be necessary if the patient demonstrates poor judgment in areas such as employment, personal relationships, finances, driving, sexual activity, or drug use.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Clanging

      Explanation:

      Language Disturbances in Mental Illness

      Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.

      These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old boy is referred by his general practitioner (GP). He was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is referred by his general practitioner (GP). He was brought in by his parents after he had attempted to set fire to his room. His parents reported that, over the past two months, they have noticed that the patient appears withdrawn and has been spending a lot of time in his room. He will not let anyone in his room and has also blocked the view from his windows using aluminium foil.
      At the clinic, he accused the GP of being one of the police agents sent to spy on him. He has also lost significant weight, and his parents report that his mood seems to be quite low on some days. The patient has no insight into his current condition and says that his room needs to be burnt down to destroy the surveillance devices installed by the police. The patient denies drug use, but his father confirms that he has once seen his son smoking what he suspected was an illicit drug in the backyard.
      The GP refers the patient to a psychiatric hospital, and the doctors there explain to the parents that it is in the patient’s best interests to be kept in hospital for assessment for a maximum of 28 days.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate Section to be used for this patient?

      Your Answer: Section 5(4)

      Correct Answer: Section 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act

      The Mental Health Act provides legal frameworks for the assessment, treatment, and care of individuals with mental health illnesses. There are several sections under the Act that allow for patients to be detained in hospital for assessment or treatment. It is important to understand these sections and their limitations.

      Section 2 is used to keep a patient in hospital for assessment for up to 28 days. This section is used when a patient is at risk of harming themselves or others and there is a suspicion of a psychiatric illness or drug misuse.

      Section 5(2) allows doctors to keep a patient in hospital for at least 72 hours when Section 2 or 3 cannot be used. However, it cannot be extended, and arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.

      Section 4 is used in emergencies and allows for a patient to be kept in hospital for 72 hours. This section can be used by only one doctor when finding another doctor to use Section 5(2), 2 or 3 would cause delay, which is not in the patient’s best interests.

      Section 3 can be used to keep a patient in hospital for treatment for up to six months. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough. However, if necessary, it can be extended for another six months, and then after that for one year for each renewal.

      Finally, Section 5(4) can be used by mental health or learning disability nurses to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of six hours. This section is used when a doctor cannot be found for Section 5(2) to be used. However, it cannot be extended, and arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.

      It is important to note that these sections should only be used when necessary and in the best interests of the patient. The Mental Health Act also provides safeguards and rights for patients, including the right to appeal against detention.

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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of poor memory. He works...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of poor memory. He works in a consulting company and recently faced trouble at work after missing a flight to a client in Tokyo. He has difficulty falling asleep and wakes up feeling exhausted. Sometimes he wakes up in the middle of the night screaming. When awake, he cannot relax and appears to be constantly on edge.

      The patient has a history of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder during childhood and one major depressive episode during his university years. He has not had any mental health-related complaints since then. He drinks one bottle of wine on Saturdays with his wife and admits to occasional past cocaine use. However, he stopped using cocaine after being ambushed and stabbed while dealing with a dealer during his last vacation in Thailand two months ago. His wife has recently complained that he appears emotionally unavailable.

      Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found. However, during the mental state examination, the patient exhibits low mood and an increased startle response. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Correct Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Explanation:

      The individual is displaying common symptoms of PTSD, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through nightmares, avoiding triggers associated with the event, and experiencing hyperarousal such as hypervigilance and difficulty sleeping. It has been over a month since the traumatic event occurred, ruling out acute stress disorder. There are no signs of psychosis, and the individual has been sober from cocaine for two months. While anxiety is a symptom of PTSD, there is no indication of a generalized anxiety disorder or major depressive episode.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

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  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric ward by her family due...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric ward by her family due to concerns about her behavior. During your conversation with her, you observe that she speaks rapidly and does not allow you to interrupt her. She frequently changes the subject, but you can discern connections between them. What psychiatric disorder is most commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      Mania is often characterized by flight of ideas, which is when a person speaks rapidly and jumps between different topics. This is a common symptom of bipolar disorder. It is important to differentiate flight of ideas from Knight’s move thinking, which is associated with schizophrenia. In flight of ideas, there are identifiable connections between the topics that the person jumps between, while in Knight’s move thinking, there are no apparent connections between the topics. This is referred to as loosening of association.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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  • Question 13 - Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of developing schizophrenia or a similar psychotic disorder?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Being brought up in an institution

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Related Factors

      Nurture in an institution does not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia. However, individuals from social classes IV and V are more prone to the condition. In the United Kingdom, the lifetime risk of schizophrenia is 1%, but this risk increases to 8-10% if there is an affected sibling. It is important to note that temporal lobe epilepsy can cause hallucinations that mimic schizophrenia. Additionally, amphetamines can induce a state that resembles hyperactive paranoid schizophrenia with hallucinations.

      Overall, while environmental factors may play a role in the development of schizophrenia, genetics and neurological conditions are also significant factors to consider. It is important to seek professional help if experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia or related conditions.

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  • Question 14 - A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit...

    Correct

    • A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit by the police after being found on the street shouting at people. They have no known past medical history.

      On examination, they are poorly dressed. When asked about their mood, they begin by asking what colour the sky is, then begin to talk about their strong dislike for cheese, followed by wanting to break the table lamp they own at home. Throughout the consultation, they speak slowly.

      What term best describes this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Knight's move

      Explanation:

      Knight’s move thinking involves illogical leaps from one idea to another without any discernible link between them, while flight of ideas involves moving from one idea to another with discernible links between them. In this scenario, the patient is exhibiting Knight’s move thinking, which is a thought disorder associated with schizophrenia. This is different from circumstantiality, which involves giving excessive, unnecessary detail without returning to the original point, and clang associations, which involves linking ideas based on their sound or rhyme. Flight of ideas, on the other hand, involves rapid and pressured speech with discernible links between ideas.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department after being diagnosed with migraines...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department after being diagnosed with migraines by his primary care physician. He reports experiencing headaches on the right side of his head that last for approximately 6 hours and are triggered by work-related stress. He frequently experiences nausea during these episodes, which subside when he rests in a quiet environment. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking sertraline. He has no known allergies. During the examination, the physician becomes worried about a medication that the patient has recently started taking for his symptoms.

      Which medication is the physician most likely concerned about in this patient?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      When treating a patient with an acute migraine, it is important to avoid using triptans if they are also taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline. This is because there is a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can cause symptoms such as agitation, hypertension, muscle twitching, and dilated pupils. Instead, anti-emetics and analgesia should be used to manage the migraine.

      While ibuprofen and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be effective for pain relief, they can also cause gastric irritation. If a patient is taking an SSRI, it is important to give them a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Metoclopramide is a commonly used anti-emetic for managing nausea and vomiting associated with migraines, and there are no contraindications for its use in this patient.

      Paracetamol can be used as part of the analgesic ladder for managing acute migraines in patients without a history of chronic hepatic impairment.

      Prochlorperazine is an alternative option for managing nausea in this patient, and there is no reason why it cannot be used in conjunction with an SSRI.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old teacher has called for the pest controller for the third time...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old teacher has called for the pest controller for the third time in the past month. She is worried that her house is infested with rats and she frequently checks under the beds and around the property for any signs of the infestation. She mentions that she saw a therapist in her early twenties for obsessive hand washing and underwent a brief period of cognitive behavioural therapy.
      Upon physical examination, there are no abnormalities found. However, upon further questioning, she admits to feeling compelled to check for rats and is constantly anxious about cleanliness.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating OCD from other mental health conditions

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by repetitive cycles of ritualistic behavior. It is important to differentiate OCD from other mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression. Cognitive behavioral therapy and exposure response prevention are the mainstays of therapy for OCD, along with medication. Features consistent with schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression are absent in OCD. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 21-year-old woman comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by her...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by her father, who is worried about her lack of sleep. During the consultation, the patient reveals that she no longer feels the need to sleep for more than 2-3 hours. She appears talkative and mentions that she has been working on an online business that will bring her a lot of money. She is annoyed that people are questioning her, especially since she usually feels down, but now feels much better. There are no reports of delusions or hallucinations. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a significant decrease in sleep, but does not feel tired. This, along with other symptoms such as being excessively talkative and irritable, having an overconfident attitude towards their business, and a history of depression, suggests that they may be in a hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder. Insomnia, which typically results in feelings of tiredness and a desire to sleep, is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The absence of delusions or hallucinations rules out psychosis as a possible explanation. A manic phase of bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as the patient does not exhibit any delusions or hallucinations. The combination of symptoms suggests that there is more to the patient’s condition than just a resolution of depression.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18 paracetamol tablets three hours earlier. She had a row with her husband and took the tablets as she was angry and upset. She called her husband after she took the tablets, who rang for an ambulance.
      This is the first time she has ever done anything like this, and she regrets the fact that she did it. She is currently studying at university, and only drinks recreationally. She is normally fit and well and has no history of mental health conditions.
      Which of the following factors are associated with increased risk of a further suicide attempt in someone who has already made a suicide attempt?

      Your Answer: Alcohol or drug abuse, history of violence and single, divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Repeated Suicide Attempts

      Individuals who have previously attempted suicide are at an increased risk of making another attempt. Factors that contribute to this risk include a history of previous attempts, personality disorders, alcohol or drug abuse, previous psychiatric treatment, unemployment, lower social class, criminal record, history of violence, and being between the ages of 25 and 54, as well as being single, divorced, or separated. Rates of further suicide attempts in the year following an attempt are high, ranging from 15 to 25 percent. However, being married or having short stature does not appear to be a significant risk factor for repeated suicide attempts.

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  • Question 19 - A 37-year-old man presents with intrusive images of a violent altercation he witnessed...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old man presents with intrusive images of a violent altercation he witnessed a couple of months ago. He says he cannot concentrate because of it and has been avoiding going to the area where it happened. What should be your first line in management?

      Your Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by repetitive, intrusive recollection or re-enactment of a traumatic event in memories, daytime imagery, or dreams. Other symptoms include emotional detachment, numbing of feeling, and avoidance of stimuli that might arouse recollection of the trauma. If symptoms are mild and occur within four weeks of the trauma, watchful waiting is appropriate. However, if symptoms are severe or persist beyond this time, psychological interventions should be considered as first-line treatments.

      Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended treatment for PTSD. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) is an alternative for those whose symptoms have persisted for three months beyond the trauma. Pharmacological interventions, such as paroxetine and mirtazapine, are considered second line but may be given first to those who express a preference.

      Dynamic psychotherapy, which relies on the relationship between the patient and the psychotherapist, is not used as first-line treatment for PTSD but is considered the treatment of choice for adjustment disorder.

      Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 22-year-old female with paranoid schizophrenia is currently admitted as an inpatient and...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female with paranoid schizophrenia is currently admitted as an inpatient and receiving treatment with antipsychotic medication under section 3 of the Mental Health Act. She has recently reported experiencing breast tenderness and enlargement. As the current antipsychotic regimen is not being well-tolerated, what would be the most suitable alternative antipsychotic medication to minimize these side effects?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Compared to other atypical antipsychotics, aripiprazole is known for having a more tolerable side effect profile, particularly when it comes to causing hyperprolactinemia. This condition, which can result in breast tenderness, enlargement, and lactation, is a common side effect of most typical and some atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone and amisulpride.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with her sister. The...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with her sister. The sister is worried that the patient may have a personality disorder due to her lack of interest in socializing and her preference for being alone. Upon further discussion, the patient admits to having no desire for romantic relationships, being unemployed, and lacking motivation to work. She denies any self-harm or suicidal thoughts and has no history of legal issues. During the consultation, she displays a flat and emotionless facial expression. What personality disorder is most likely present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Schizoid

      Explanation:

      The man’s presentation suggests that he may have schizoid personality disorder, which is characterized by negative symptoms similar to those seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms include a lack of interest in others, solitary behavior, and emotional detachment. It is important to rule out positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions. Antisocial personality disorder, which involves disregard for others and criminal behavior, is not a likely diagnosis for this man as he has no history of such behavior. Avoidant personality disorder, which involves a desire for social contact but fear of rejection, is also not a likely diagnosis as the man has no desire for interpersonal contact. Emotionally unstable personality disorder, also known as borderline personality disorder, is not a likely diagnosis as the man does not exhibit the unstable relationships, self-image, or emotional reactions associated with this disorder.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. According to...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. According to his family, he has become increasingly apathetic and neglectful of his personal hygiene and household chores. When asked about his behavior, he responds with statements such as it doesn't matter and why bother? What symptom of schizophrenia is this patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Apathy

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including apathy, affective flattening, alogia, anhedonia, and catatonia. Apathy is a feeling of indifference and lack of interest in things that would normally be enjoyable or important. Affective flattening refers to a reduced range of emotional expression, making it difficult for the person to express their feelings appropriately. Alogia is a lack of spontaneous speech, making it difficult for the person to communicate effectively. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Finally, catatonia is a disturbance in motor function, which can cause the person to become unresponsive to their environment.

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  • Question 23 - You are considering prescribing an antidepressant to a 75-year-old woman who has been...

    Correct

    • You are considering prescribing an antidepressant to a 75-year-old woman who has been experiencing low mood and difficulty maintaining her weight due to low appetite. Which psychiatric medication could potentially improve both her mood and appetite?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine may be prescribed for its beneficial side effects of increased appetite and sedation. Unlike sertraline and fluoxetine, which are SSRIs that primarily improve mood, they do not have a significant impact on appetite. Gabapentin and pregabalin, which are typically used for neuropathic pain, are not suitable for this purpose.

      Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.

      Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.

      Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy and taking fluoxetine, but her symptoms persist. Her doctor decides to prescribe clomipramine, but warns her of potential side effects. What is the most likely side effect she may experience as a result of taking clomipramine?

      Your Answer: Dry mouth and weight gain

      Explanation:

      Clomipramine, a TCA, can cause dry mouth due to its anticholinergic effects and weight gain due to its antihistaminic effects. While rare, extrapyramidal side effects and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are also possible but more commonly associated with antipsychotic drugs. Increased urinary frequency and thirst are side effects of lithium, not TCAs. Additionally, mydriasis, not miosis, is a side effect of TCAs.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatry clinic by her spouse. The...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatry clinic by her spouse. The spouse reports that the patient has been displaying abnormal behaviour, such as staying up all night, talking rapidly, excessive shopping, and claiming she will become a millionaire by investing in cryptocurrency.

      The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking sertraline. During the mental state examination, the patient exhibits signs of overly familiar behaviour, pressured speech, and flight of ideas.

      What is the best medication to treat this condition?

      Your Answer: Stop sertraline and start olanzapine

      Explanation:

      When managing mania or hypomania in patients who are taking antidepressants, it may be necessary to discontinue the use of the antidepressant and initiate treatment with antipsychotic medication.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 36-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of mood changes...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of mood changes eight days after giving birth. She expresses that she does not want the baby and believes that it is dying. She feels like crying constantly. She experiences auditory and visual hallucinations that tell her to harm herself. Apart from this, she has no significant medical history.
      What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Postpartum psychosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Postpartum Psychosis from Other Psychiatric Disorders

      Postpartum psychosis is a severe form of postpartum depression that presents with psychotic features, including auditory hallucinations instructing the patient to harm herself and rejection of the child. Antipsychotic medication is required for intervention in severe cases, while cognitive behavioural therapy and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may be used for milder cases. On the other hand, postnatal blues is a mild, transient disturbance in mood occurring between the third and sixth day after delivery, while adjustment disorder is diagnosed in the absence of another psychiatric diagnosis and does not involve auditory or visual hallucinations. Anxiety disorder, specifically generalised anxiety disorder, is characterised by excessive worry disproportionate to the situation, restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, muscle tenderness, and poor sleep, but does not occur specifically post-delivery. Schizoid personality disorder, which involves a lack of interest in social relationships, solitary lifestyle, secretiveness, emotional coldness, and apathy, is not an acute presentation like postpartum psychosis.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
      The man experiences periods of elevated mood, where he spends a lot of money and sleeps very little. He denies having any delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
      The man also has episodes of severe depression, where he feels suicidal, loses interest in his hobbies, and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s alternating episodes of hypomania and severe depression suggest that she has type 2 bipolar disorder. There are no indications of an anxiety disorder, and the severity of her symptoms is not consistent with cyclothymia. Major depressive disorder is also not a likely diagnosis, as she experiences ‘highs’ consistent with hypomania. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as her ‘high’ periods are more in line with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy...

    Correct

    • You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).

      Which of the following is not a risk associated with ECT?

      Your Answer: Induction of dementia

      Explanation:

      Side Effects and Memory Loss Associated with Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a medical treatment that involves passing electrical currents through the brain to induce a seizure. While side effects of ECT are rare, some patients may experience memory loss. During the course of ECT, patients may have difficulty remembering newly learned information, but this typically improves in the days and weeks following treatment. However, some patients may experience partial loss of memory for events that occurred before ECT, which may take longer to recover.

      Despite these potential memory issues, some patients report improved memory ability following ECT, as it can remove the amnesia associated with severe depression. It is important to note that cardiac arrhythmia may be stimulated by the electrical shock of ECT, but musculoskeletal injury is rare with adequate anesthesia.

      It is also important to dispel the myth that ECT can cause dementia. Dementia is an organic illness that is not induced by ECT. Research has not found a link between ECT and dementia, but this remains an area of focus for further study. Overall, while ECT may have some potential side effects, it can be a highly effective treatment for severe depression and other mental health conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old man with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is brought in by...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is brought in by police under section 136 of the mental health act. His psychiatrist has recently adjusted his medication. He was found dancing in the middle of a busy street claiming to be the king of the world.

      Upon assessment, he appears elated, his speech is rapid and he appears easily distracted. He believes he has been chosen by a higher power to save the world from destruction and hasn't slept for days as a result.

      The patient is sectioned and admitted to the mental health ward.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop sertraline and start olanzapine

      Explanation:

      When managing mania or hypomania in patients who are taking antidepressants, it may be necessary to discontinue the use of the antidepressant and initiate treatment with antipsychotic medication.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 47-year-old man is prescribed haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man is prescribed haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic episode. He had previously been on olanzapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, but discontinued it due to adverse reactions. What adverse effect is he more prone to encounter with this new medication in comparison to olanzapine?

      Your Answer: Torticollis

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medications can cause acute dystonic reactions, which are more frequently seen with first-generation antipsychotics like haloperidol. These reactions may include dysarthria, torticollis, opisthotonus, and oculogyric crises. Atypical antipsychotics are more likely to cause diabetes mellitus and dyslipidemia, while neither typical nor atypical antipsychotics are commonly associated with osteoporosis.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - A 26-year-old female smoker comes to your clinic with a complaint of difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female smoker comes to your clinic with a complaint of difficulty sleeping for the past 6 months. She often stays awake for hours worrying before finally falling asleep, which is affecting her work concentration. You observe that she seems restless and fidgety during the consultation. Upon reviewing her medical records, you discover that she has recently experienced abdominal pain and palpitations. What is the crucial condition to exclude before diagnosing her with generalized anxiety disorder?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      When diagnosing anxiety, it is important to rule out thyroid disease as the symptoms of anxiety and hyperthyroidism can be similar. Hyperthyroidism can both cause and worsen anxiety. While phaeochromocytoma and Wilson’s disease are possible alternative diagnoses, they are not typically considered before diagnosing anxiety. It is worth noting that insomnia is a symptom of anxiety rather than a separate diagnosis.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 32 - A 65-year-old male has been admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit. Upon review...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male has been admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit. Upon review this morning, he appears to be a poor historian, providing minimal answers and insisting that he is deceased and does not belong in a hospital meant for the living. What is the specific name of this delusional disorder and with which condition is it typically linked?

      Your Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder

      Explanation:

      Severe depression is often linked to Cotard syndrome, a rare form of nihilistic delusions where individuals believe they are dead or non-existent. This condition can also be observed in individuals with schizophrenia.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.

      The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 33 - A 54-year-old woman visited her primary care physician complaining of persistent polydipsia and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman visited her primary care physician complaining of persistent polydipsia and swollen legs for the past few months. She reported having a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), schizophrenia, and hypertension. Her current medications include tiotropium inhaler, ipratropium bromide inhaler, olanzapine, and nifedipine. She had previously taken bendroflumethiazide, which was discontinued two years ago, and had a 5-day course of 30mg oral prednisolone six months ago due to a COPD exacerbation. Her fasting blood tests revealed:
      Fasting plasma glucose 7 mmol/L (3.9-5.4)
      Random plasma glucose 12 mmol/L (<7.8)
      Which medication is likely responsible for her abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can cause metabolic side effects such as dysglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, and diabetes mellitus. In this case, the patient’s persistent hyperglycaemia in both fasting blood tests and HBA1c tests has led to a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, likely caused by her regular medication, olanzapine. While the patient has also experienced swollen legs, this is likely due to nifedipine rather than the cause of her deranged blood result. A 5-day course of prednisolone given half a year ago is unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Ipratropium bromide is also an unlikely culprit, as it is not known to increase blood sugar levels. Thiazide diuretics, which can increase blood sugar levels, were stopped two years ago and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Other potential metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics include hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, dyslipidemia, and hyperuricemia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 34 - A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by security after attempting...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by security after attempting to enter a music studio. He claims to have a close relationship with a famous musician and just wanted to see him. Despite never having met the musician, he has sent numerous letters and messages. He reports feeling great. He denies any hallucinations. He appears normal and speaks clearly.
      What is the probable diagnosis based on his behavior?

      Your Answer: Delusional disorder

      Explanation:

      Erotomania, also known as De Clerambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusional disorder where the individual believes that a famous person is in love with them. This belief is not accompanied by any other symptoms of psychosis or mood disturbances. Other types of delusions include grandiose and persecutory delusions. Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by odd beliefs and behaviors, but not to the extent of delusional conviction. Narcissistic personality disorder involves a long-standing pattern of inflated self-importance, a need for excessive admiration, and a lack of empathy. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior. Bipolar disorder involves periods of both mania and depression.

      De Clerambault’s Syndrome: A Delusional Belief in Famous Love

      De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a type of paranoid delusion that has a romantic aspect. Typically, the patient is a single woman who firmly believes that a well-known person is in love with her. This condition is characterized by a persistent and irrational belief that the famous person is sending secret messages or signals of love, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. The patient may engage in behaviors such as stalking, sending letters or gifts, or attempting to contact the object of their affection. Despite repeated rejections or lack of response, the patient remains convinced of the love affair. This syndrome can be distressing for both the patient and the object of their delusion, and it often requires psychiatric treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 35 - You are asked to assess a 76-year-old man who was admitted to the...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a 76-year-old man who was admitted to the ward yesterday with agitation and distressing hallucinations believed to be caused by delirium from a urinary tract infection (UTI). The nursing staff is concerned that he is now exhibiting rigid movements and hand tremors, in addition to being very confused. The patient's wife mentions that he had previously experienced confusion, sleep disturbances, visual hallucinations, and abnormal movements. Which medication is most likely responsible for the patient's decline?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that can cause confusion, sleep difficulties, visual hallucinations, and abnormal movements. It is important to choose the right medication for patients with this condition, as some drugs can worsen symptoms. Here are some medications that can be used to treat Lewy body dementia:

      1. Clonazepam: This drug can be used to treat rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorders.

      2. Donepezil: This medication is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that can help improve symptoms such as hallucinations and confusion.

      3. Memantine: This drug is an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist that can be used in patients who cannot take acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

      4. Rivastigmine: This medication is another type of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that can be used to relieve some of the symptoms of Lewy body dementia.

      It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any medication for Lewy body dementia.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 36 - A 22-year-old woman comes to the surgery, distressed that her midwife has advised...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to the surgery, distressed that her midwife has advised her to stop taking sertraline at 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had taken it during her previous two pregnancies and had two healthy children. She insists on knowing the potential risks associated with sertraline use during the first trimester. What are the increased risks during this period?

      Your Answer: Congenital heart defects

      Explanation:

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, it is important to assess both the potential benefits and risks. Research has shown that using SSRIs during the first trimester may slightly increase the risk of congenital heart defects in the baby. Additionally, using SSRIs during the third trimester can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension in the newborn. It is important to note that paroxetine, in particular, has been associated with a higher risk of congenital malformations, especially when used during the first trimester.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 37 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with concerns about her interpersonal...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with concerns about her interpersonal relationships both at work and in her personal life. She reveals that this has been a persistent issue since her teenage years. She finds it challenging to collaborate with others and identifies herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, she has been described by others as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder tend to have inflexible attitudes towards morals, ethics, and values, and are often hesitant to delegate tasks to others. They exhibit perfectionistic tendencies and adhere to strict protocols in their work. This disorder makes it challenging for them to collaborate with others and adapt to different ways of doing things.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 38 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by her...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by her father, who is concerned about her behaviour at home and school. Over the past 18 months, her father has noted problems with inattention, hyperactivity and impulsivity. Teachers have also been raising similar issues about her behaviour in school. Her symptoms are affecting her performance in school and her relationship at home with her parents and siblings.
      Which one of the following conditions is she most likely to be diagnosed with?

      Your Answer: Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of ADHD, which is characterized by persistent patterns of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that interfere with functioning or development. These symptoms must have been present before the age of 12 and evident in multiple settings for at least six months. However, there are no indications of autism spectrum disorder, learning difficulty, or learning disability. Additionally, the patient does not display any symptoms of oppositional defiance disorder, which is characterized by angry or irritable mood, argumentative behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least six months and causing distress or impairment in social, educational, or occupational functioning.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - A 50-year-old man presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of his tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia 20 years ago and has been on haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, his temperature was 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Respiratory rate was 14 cycles/min. There was pronounced choreoathetoid movement of his hands and fingers.
      What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition where patients on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication, such as antipsychotics, may experience involuntary muscle movements in various parts of their body. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, where patients experience restlessness and an inability to remain still. Serotonin syndrome can occur when patients take an overdose or combination of certain medications, resulting in symptoms such as ataxia, agitation, and tremors. Acute dystonia refers to muscle contractions following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication, characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and changes in consciousness. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and providing supportive care.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 40 - Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who was diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder 8...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who was diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder 8 months ago. She has been taking sertraline for 5 months but feels that her symptoms have not improved much. Sophie wants to switch to a different medication. What is the most suitable drug to start?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If sertraline, a first-line SSRI, is ineffective or not well-tolerated for treating GAD, alternative options include trying a different SSRI like paroxetine or escitalopram, or an SNRI like duloxetine or venlafaxine. In Maxine’s case, since sertraline did not work, venlafaxine, an SNRI, would be a suitable option. Bupropion is primarily used for smoking cessation but may be considered off-label for depression treatment if other options fail. Mirtazapine is a NaSSA used for depression, not GAD. Pregabalin can be used if SSRIs or SNRIs are not suitable, and propranolol can help with acute anxiety symptoms but is not a specific treatment for GAD.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 41 - A 22-year old woman comes to see her GP, seeking medication for opioid...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year old woman comes to see her GP, seeking medication for opioid withdrawal. She explains that she has been using heroin for the past six months since losing her job as a store manager. She informs the GP that she has decided to quit using heroin and has not taken any for the past three days. She reports experiencing severe withdrawal symptoms that have been affecting her daily life and asks if there is anything that can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms.
      What are the observable indications of opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Pinpoint pupils, nausea, piloerection

      Correct Answer: Dilated pupils, yawning, rhinorrhoea, epiphora

      Explanation:

      Identifying Objective Signs of Opioid Withdrawal and Intoxication

      It is crucial to recognize objective signs of opioid withdrawal and intoxication to prevent fatal outcomes. In psychiatric settings, individuals may falsely claim withdrawal to obtain opioid medications. Objective signs of withdrawal include epiphora, rhinorrhoea, agitation, perspiration, piloerection, tachycardia, vomiting, shivering, yawning, and dilated pupils. Pinpoint pupils, yawning, and galactorrhoea are indicative of opiate intoxication. Respiratory depression is a feature of opioid intoxication, along with pinpoint pupils and bradycardia. Opioid intoxication can also cause pulmonary oedema, stupor, pallor, severe respiratory depression, and nausea. By recognizing these objective signs, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat opioid withdrawal and intoxication.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 42 - You are a Foundation Year 2 doctor in Psychiatry. During the ward round,...

    Correct

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 doctor in Psychiatry. During the ward round, you are asked to perform a mental state examination of a patient who has been on the ward for a month.
      In which part of the mental state examination would you report neologisms, pressure, or poverty?

      Your Answer: Speech

      Explanation:

      Assessing Mental State: Key Components to Consider

      When assessing a patient’s mental state, there are several key components to consider. These include speech rate, rhythm, and volume, as well as the presence of neologisms, which may indicate a thought disorder. Poverty of speech may suggest reduced speech content, often seen in depression, while pressure of speech may indicate an increased rate, often seen in mania.

      Insight is another important factor to consider, as it reflects the patient’s understanding of their condition and their willingness to accept treatment. Under the heading of Appearance and behaviour, it is important to note the patient’s level of self-care, rapport, and any non-verbal cues. Abnormal movements and level of motor activity should also be observed.

      Mood and affect are subjective and objective measures of the patient’s emotional state. Mood refers to the patient’s internal experience, while affect refers to the external manifestation of that emotion. Thought content should also be assessed, including any preoccupations, obsessions, overvalued ideas, ideas of reference, delusions, or suicidal thoughts. By considering these key components, clinicians can gain a comprehensive understanding of a patient’s mental state.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 43 - A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in hospital for the past year. He was diagnosed with depression at the age of 23 and has been on antidepressants since. He has had multiple self-harm and suicide attempts in the past. For the past year, he has been receiving treatment in hospital and has been making some progress with regard to his mental health. He is not happy to be in hospital, but the doctors thought that it was in his best interests to keep him in hospital for treatment. He has been under a Section which allowed him to be kept in hospital for six months. At the end of the first six months, the doctors applied for a second time for him to be kept for another six months, as they feel he is not yet fit for discharge.
      For how long can the relevant Section be renewed for this patient for the third time?

      Your Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Time Limits of Mental Health Detention in the UK

      In the UK, mental health detention is governed by specific time limits depending on the type of detention and the purpose of the detention. Here are some of the key time limits to be aware of:

      – Section 2: This is the Section used for assessment, and a patient can be kept in hospital for a maximum of 28 days under this Section. It cannot be extended.
      – Section 3: This is the Section used for treatment, and a patient can be detained for up to six months initially. The Section can be renewed for another six months, and then for one year at a time. Treatment without consent can be given for the first three months, and then only with the approval of an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ for the next three months.
      – Two years: While a patient can be kept in hospital for up to two years for treatment, Section 3 cannot be renewed for two years at a time. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough.
      – Six months: This is the time for which an initial Section 3 can be applied for and the time for which it can be renewed for a second time. For a third time and onwards, Section 3 can be renewed for one year each time, but the patient can be discharged earlier if doctors think it is not necessary for the patient to be under Section anymore.

      Understanding these time limits is important for both patients and healthcare professionals involved in mental health detention in the UK.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 44 - A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed seizure. According to the witness, the seizure lasted around 10 minutes and the patient was drowsy for 15 minutes afterward. The patient is now alert and conversing with the medical staff. They have a history of schizophrenia and have reported several seizures since beginning a new medication five weeks ago. Which medication is the most probable cause of this incident?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the only atypical antipsychotic drug that reduces seizure threshold, increasing the likelihood of seizures. While effective, it has serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, neutropenia, reduced seizure threshold, and myocarditis. Aripiprazole has a favorable side effect profile and is less likely to cause hyperprolactinemia or other side effects. Olanzapine is known for causing dyslipidemia, weight gain, diabetes, and sedation, but may be prescribed to underweight patients who have trouble sleeping. Quetiapine is associated with weight gain, dyslipidemia, and postural hypotension.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 45 - Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp pain on her left side that radiates to her lower abdomen and groin. The pain comes and goes in waves and has been ongoing for 10 hours. She also reports an increased frequency of urination and a burning sensation while urinating. A urine dip reveals haematuria but no signs of infection. You request the following blood tests:
      Calcium 3.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Corrected Calcium 3.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.9 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Parathyroid hormone 85 pg/mL (10-65 )
      Which medication's long-term use is responsible for Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Hyperparathyroidism and subsequent hypercalcaemia can occur with prolonged use of lithium. This can lead to the formation of kidney stones due to excessive calcium concentration. Amitriptyline, a sedative tricyclic antidepressant, is not likely to cause nephrolithiasis or explain the patient’s elevated calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. Similarly, clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, is not known to cause hypercalcaemia or hyperparathyroidism. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, typically causes side effects during initiation or discontinuation, such as sexual dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues. Checking thyroid function tests may also be helpful as lithium use can lead to hypothyroidism.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 46 - A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been ongoing for the past 7 years. Despite multiple investigations and consultations with various specialists, no organic cause has been found for his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      The appropriate diagnosis for a patient who is experiencing persistent, unexplained symptoms is somatisation disorder, as they are primarily concerned with the symptoms rather than a specific underlying diagnosis like cancer (which would be indicative of hypochondria). It is important to note that intentional production of symptoms, such as self-poisoning, would fall under the category of Munchausen’s syndrome.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 47 - A 25-year-old male has been taking antipsychotics for a few months and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has been taking antipsychotics for a few months and is experiencing a severe side-effect that causes repetitive involuntary movements such as grimacing and sticking out the tongue. This side-effect is known to occur only in individuals who have been on antipsychotics for an extended period. What medication is the most appropriate for treating this side-effect?

      Your Answer: Procyclidine

      Correct Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Tetrabenazine is an effective treatment for moderate to severe tardive dyskinesia, which is the condition that this patient is experiencing. Propranolol is typically used to alleviate symptoms of akathisia, while procyclidine and benztropine are commonly prescribed for acute dystonia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about how she will manage alone with their parents. What personality disorder might this patient have?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 49 - A 33-year-old woman who has never given birth before comes for her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who has never given birth before comes for her first prenatal visit at 29 weeks gestation. She is currently taking fluoxetine and lactulose and is concerned about the potential risks to her baby. What is a possible danger of using fluoxetine during the third trimester of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine growth restriction

      Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, it is important to assess the potential benefits and risks. While using SSRIs during the first trimester may slightly increase the risk of congenital heart defects, using them during the third trimester can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Additionally, paroxetine has a higher risk of congenital malformations, especially during the first trimester.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - Samantha is a 35-year-old female who is receiving treatment for bipolar disorder on...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 35-year-old female who is receiving treatment for bipolar disorder on the psychiatric ward. She has been taking lithium for the past 3 weeks and the doctor needs to check if her levels have stabilised by taking bloods. Samantha's last dose of lithium was at 9am this morning and it is currently 12pm. What is the appropriate time for the doctor to take her bloods?

      Your Answer: In 9 hours

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels should be checked 12 hours after the last dose, ideally in the evening before bloods are taken the following morning. Taking the sample too soon or too late can lead to incorrect dosing adjustments.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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      • Psychiatry
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Psychiatry (41/50) 82%
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