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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents to a routine follow-up with his General Practitioner and states that he feels he needs a slower withdrawal regimen as he had to have a drink the night before. He is on day six of the programme and is also asking for a larger supply of medication as he lives five miles from the pharmacy and cannot drive.
Which of the following is most in line with the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommendations on how such a programme should be carried out?Your Answer: Weekly monitoring of progress
Correct Answer: No more than two days’ worth of medication to be dispensed at any one time
Explanation:Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community: Recommendations and Guidelines
To minimize the risk of overdose or supplying the drug to someone other than the intended patient, it is recommended that no more than two days’ worth of medication be dispensed at any one time. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence provides the following recommendations for assisted alcohol withdrawal in the community:
– Use a benzodiazepine (chlordiazepoxide or diazepam) as the drug of choice.
– Use fixed-dose medication regimens.
– Monitor the patient every other day.
– If possible, have a family member or carer oversee the use of medication.
– Adjust the dose if there are signs of severe withdrawal or oversedation.
– Gradually reduce the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days to zero.
– Do not offer clomethiazole due to a risk of overdose or it being misused.A symptom-triggered variable dosage regimen is preferred over a fixed-dose regimen, where doses are titrated in response to a points-based system. Detoxification should continue during incomplete abstinence, but if a patient relapses and starts drinking again during detoxification, the medication should be stopped. The standard regimen involves reducing the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days, to reach zero at the end of the course. Patients on a community withdrawal program should be monitored every other day, with slow dose reduction until a low maintenance level is reached.
Guidelines for Safe and Effective Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking guidance on contraception. She has entered a new relationship but is uncertain if she needs contraception due to her suspicion of being in menopause. She is currently experiencing hot flashes and has not had a period in 9 months. What is the best course of action to recommend?
Your Answer: Contraception is needed until 36 months after her last period
Correct Answer: Contraception is needed until 24 months after her last period
Explanation:Contraception is still necessary after menopause. Women who are over 50 years old should use contraception for at least 12 months after their last period, while those under 50 years old should use it for at least 24 months after their last period.
Understanding Menopause and Contraception
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.
It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with pancreatic cancer comes to the clinic for a review of medication. He reports that his pain is no longer managed with paracetamol and 240 mg oral codeine per day. The doctor decides to initiate an opiate.
Which of the following is the most suitable choice?Your Answer: Oral morphine 30 mg daily in divided doses
Explanation:Starting Strong Opioids for Pain Management
When beginning strong opioids for pain management, it is recommended to use regular oral sustained-release or immediate-release morphine, depending on the patient’s preference. Immediate-release morphine can be used as needed for breakthrough pain, but it should not replace regular oral morphine. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical starting dose of 20-30 mg of oral morphine per day is recommended. This can be divided into two doses of sustained-release morphine or taken as 5mg of immediate-release morphine every 4 hours. However, patients switching from a weak opioid may require a higher starting dose of 40-60mg per day.
If oral opioids are not suitable, transdermal patches or subcutaneous infusions can be used as an alternative. In most cases, a general practitioner should not require specialist advice at this stage of pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with progressively worsening shortness of breath and a daily morning cough productive of off-white phlegm. He feels intermittently wheezy. He has smoked 20 cigarettes a day and has done so since the age of 20.
A chest x ray shows hyperinflated lung fields and spirometry demonstrates an obstructive picture with a forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) of 50% of predicted. He takes no regular medication and has no other known medical problems.
His mother also had chest problems and died after she developed liver failure. Looking at some recent blood tests you can see he has abnormalities of his liver function.
Which of the following blood investigations is most likely to yield useful diagnostic information?Your Answer: Alpha1-antitrypsin levels
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Consideration of Alpha 1-Antitrypsin Deficiency in a Young Smoker with COPD
This patient’s young age, symptoms, chest x-ray findings, and spirometry results suggest the possibility of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can cause pulmonary disease and liver disease. As a smoker, this patient is at increased risk for COPD, but the early onset of the disease raises suspicion for an underlying genetic cause. Additionally, the family history supports the consideration of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
To confirm the diagnosis, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin levels would be the most appropriate blood investigation. Other blood tests, such as ACE levels for sarcoidosis, copper and ceruloplasmin levels for Wilson’s disease, ferritin levels for hemochromatosis, and rheumatoid factor for rheumatoid arthritis, are not likely to be helpful in this case.
It is important to consider alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency in young patients with COPD, especially those with a family history of the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further lung and liver damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?
Your Answer: Remove any foreign body, close the wound, administer co-amoxiclav.
Correct Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.
Explanation:Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review
Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:
1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.
Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man is seen for follow up regarding his dyspepsia.
He was found to be positive for Helicobacter pylori on serological testing and received eradication therapy. He also underwent an upper GI endoscopy last year which did not reveal any focal pathology. Despite this, he still experiences reflux symptoms, and you decide to retest him for Helicobacter pylori.
What is the most appropriate method of retesting?Your Answer: Urea breath test
Correct Answer: Saliva assay
Explanation:Retesting for Helicobacter pylori after Eradication Therapy
The NICE guidelines on Dyspepsia (CG184) provide recommendations for retesting patients who have received eradication therapy for Helicobacter pylori. The first-line tests for detecting H. pylori are the stool antigen test and the urea breath test, while serological testing can be used if locally validated. However, serology is not appropriate for retesting as it remains positive due to past exposure. Saliva assays are inconsistent in accuracy, and gastric biopsy is invasive and costly.
If a patient tests positive for H. pylori and receives eradication therapy, retesting may be necessary. Currently, there is insufficient evidence to recommend stool antigen testing as a test of eradication. Therefore, NICE recommends retesting via the urea breath test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presents to surgery with a flare-up of her ulcerative colitis.
She was seen four days ago with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea and has returned today as her symptoms have worsened. She currently complains that over the last two days she has been passing at least eight loose stools a day all of which have be associated with the passage of fresh blood.
On examination, her temperature is 37.4°C, pulse rate is 104 b.p.m., and blood pressure is 98/72 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness on deep palpation but no peritonism or masses.
Blood tests performed yesterday show a modest anaemia with a haemoglobin 109 g/L (normal range 115-135), an ESR of 23 mm/hr (normal range <15) and an albumin of 35 g/L (normal range 35-50).
Which of the following parameters in this instance is an indication of severe colitis and should prompt consideration of hospital admission?Your Answer: Pulse rate
Correct Answer: Inflammatory marker levels
Explanation:Severity of Ulcerative Colitis and Hospital Admission
Severe flare-ups of inflammatory bowel disease require hospital admission and inpatient treatment due to potential complications such as toxic megacolon, perforation, sepsis, and severe bleeding. In the case of ulcerative colitis, disease severity can be determined using the Truelove-Witts criteria, which includes symptoms such as bowel movements more than six times a day, along with low hemoglobin levels, high ESR, elevated pulse rate, and fever.
A patient presenting with severe symptoms such as bloody diarrhea and systemic unwellness should be admitted immediately for in-patient assessment. The tachycardia should alert the clinician to systemic upset and prompt hospital admission to initiate treatment to guard against the development of complications. Studies have shown that untreated severe ulcerative colitis had a mortality rate of almost 25%, but with the use of corticosteroids and expert surgical input, this figure has been reduced to less than 1%.
It is important to note that approximately half of severe ulcerative colitis attacks occur as a first attack in a patient without a previous diagnosis. Moderate disease is classified as four to six stools a day (with or without blood) with minimal systemic disturbance, while mild disease is classified as less than four stools a day (with or without blood) with no systemic unwellness (no fever or tachycardia) and a normal ESR. Overall, the severity of ulcerative colitis should be carefully assessed to determine the appropriate level of care and treatment needed for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 8
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is initiated on exenatide. What statement about exenatide is false?
Your Answer: The major adverse effect is flu-like symptoms
Explanation:Vomiting is a common side effect of exenatide, with nausea being the primary adverse reaction.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The likelihood of a 34-year-old mother having a baby with Down's syndrome is roughly:
Your Answer: 1 in 1,000
Correct Answer: 1 in 275
Explanation:The risk of Down’s syndrome is 1 in 1,000 at the age of 30, and this risk decreases by a factor of 3 for every 5 years.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the research methodology used by researchers to understand why general practitioners prescribe antibiotics for some cases of sore throat and to explore factors that influence their prescribing? The researchers selected 25 general practitioners who reflect a wide variety of characteristics that might influence prescribing and were selected from different places to avoid regional bias. A single researcher conducted face-to-face, open-ended interviews at participants' surgeries using an interview guide. As the study progressed, a further theoretical sample of 15 general practitioners was added, this selection being guided by the emerging analysis.
Your Answer: A study heavily influenced by selection bias
Correct Answer: A grounded theory methodology
Explanation:Grounded Theory Methodology: Developing Theory through Data Analysis
Grounded theory is a qualitative research methodology that involves constructing theory through the analysis of data. The process begins with the researcher asking questions designed to lead to the development of a theory. The researcher then identifies a suitable sample and analyzes the data to begin developing a theory. The researcher engages in a theoretical sampling process, continually collecting and analyzing data until no new ideas emerge. This process of constant comparative analysis is critical to grounded theory.
The study Why do general practitioners prescribe antibiotics for sore throat? used grounded theory methodology to identify the reasons behind prescribing antibiotics. The results showed that general practitioners prescribe antibiotics for sicker patients and those from socioeconomically deprived backgrounds due to concerns about complications. They are also more likely to prescribe in pressured clinical contexts. The study was not influenced by selection bias, did not require a statistical power calculation, and did not lack validity.
In conclusion, grounded theory methodology is a powerful tool for developing theory through data analysis. It allows researchers to identify themes and patterns in data and develop theories based on those patterns. The methodology is particularly useful for exploring complex phenomena and can be applied in a wide range of research settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male smoker develops increasing shoulder pain. After a few weeks, he complains of loss of power and feeling in his left hand. Shortly after, he notices visual disturbances and a left-sided ptosis.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Vertebral disc prolapse of the cervical spine
Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Common Causes of Arm and Shoulder Pain: Symptoms and Characteristics
Arm and shoulder pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and characteristics. Here are some common causes:
Pancoast Tumour: This tumour in the superior pulmonary sulcus can cause constant pain in the shoulder, upper anterior chest, or interscapular region. Other symptoms include weakness and atrophy of hand muscles, Horner syndrome, hoarseness, and spinal cord compression.
Stable Angina: Chest pain is precipitated by exercise and can also occur in the arms, shoulders, neck, jaw, throat, or back. Ischaemic pain in the arm is described as cramp-like, squeezing, or a band around the arm.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Tingling, numbness, or pain in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, and medial half of the ring finger on the palmar aspect are characteristic of this condition resulting from median nerve compromise at the wrist.
Coronary Heart Disease: Chest pain, weakness, light-headedness, nausea, or a cold sweat are common symptoms. Pain or discomfort in the arms or shoulder may also occur.
Syringomyelia: A cyst (syrinx) forms within the spinal cord, causing sensory, motor, and autonomic dysfunction. Chronic severe pain is a common symptom.
Vertebral Disc Prolapse of the Cervical Spine: Myelopathy with neck and arm pain, a lower motor neuron lesion of the upper limbs, and upper motor lesion of the lower limbs can result from ventral compression of the spinal cord by a prolapsed cervical disc.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment of arm and shoulder pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 65-year-old man who has presented with concerns about his varicose veins. He has noticed that they have become more noticeable over the past year, but he doesn't experience any pain.
Upon examination, you observe bilateral prominent varicose veins on his lower legs. There are no accompanying skin changes or leg swelling. His distal pulses are normal, and his feet are warm to the touch.
The patient has no significant medical history, and recent blood tests, including an HbA1c, are within normal limits.
As per current NICE guidelines, what is the recommended course of action for managing this patient's varicose veins?Your Answer: Prescribe compression stockings
Correct Answer: Arrange an ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI)
Explanation:Before offering graduated compression stockings to a patient with varicose veins, it is important to arrange an ABPI to exclude arterial insufficiency. If the ABPI is between 0.8 and 1.3, compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Topical steroids are not effective in treating varicose veins and a referral to vascular is not necessary for uncomplicated cases in primary care. Duplex ultrasonography is usually arranged by the vascular team in secondary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain that he has been experiencing for two months. The pain is dull in nature and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is detected in the central abdomen. The patient had undergone an abdominal ultrasound 6 months ago which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the ultrasound and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's ultrasound report which shows no focal pancreatic, liver or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, a 5.4 cm diameter abdominal aorta, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys.
What aspect of the patient's medical history suggests that surgery may be necessary?Your Answer: Abdominal aortic diameter 5.4 cm
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. The abdominal aortic diameter must be greater than 5.5cm to be classified as high rupture risk, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA’s velocity of growth should be monitored, and a high-risk AAA would only be indicated if there is an increase of more than 1 cm per year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after being released from the hospital. He was admitted due to chest pain and was given thrombolytic therapy for a heart attack. Today, he experienced significant swelling of his tongue and face. Which medication is the most probable cause of this reaction?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Drug-induced angioedema is most frequently caused by ACE inhibitors.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a repeat prescription of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is satisfied with this method as it has been effectively managing her acne. She reports no changes in her medical history but mentions that her aunt was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She seeks advice on the risks of the combined oral contraceptive pill and its impact on cancer.
What is the appropriate guidance to provide her concerning the combined oral contraceptive pill?Your Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill increases the risk of breast and ovarian cancers
Correct Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk of bowel cancer
Explanation:Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with a one-month history of tingling sensation in his fingers, toes and around the mouth. When the symptom first started, it was only affecting his fingers. It has since spread and gradually got worse. He had the same symptom a few years ago and was found to have a low calcium level. There is no reported muscle weakness, tremor or other neurological symptoms.
He is currently taking omeprazole for reflux symptoms. His recent blood test showed the following:
Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
What electrolyte abnormality could be responsible for this patient's presenting symptoms?Your Answer: Hypomagnesaemia
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia can lead to similar symptoms as hypocalcaemia, such as paresthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias. This condition can be caused by proton pump inhibitors like lansoprazole and esomeprazole.
Hyperkalemia’s symptoms are often vague and can include breathing difficulty, weakness, fatigue, palpitations, or chest pain. Paresthesia is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia, so this answer is incorrect.
Hypernatremia would not cause paresthesia and is, therefore, an incorrect answer. Symptoms of hypernatraemia include lethargy, weakness, confusion, irritability, and seizures.
Hypermagnesaemia can cause weakness, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and shortness of breath, but it doesn’t typically cause paresthesia. Therefore, this answer is also incorrect.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her hairline and nasolabial folds. She hasn't attempted any treatments yet, aside from using emollients. What is the best choice for topical management?
Your Answer: Betamethasone and calcipotriol (Dovobet®)
Correct Answer: Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate ®)
Explanation:Topical Treatments for Facial Psoriasis
When it comes to treating facial psoriasis, it’s important to use the right topical treatments to avoid skin irritation and adverse effects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a mild or moderately potent steroid for two weeks, along with emollients. Calcipotriol can be used intermittently if topical corticosteroids aren’t effective enough. However, betamethasone, a potent steroid, should not be used on the face. Coal-tar solution is also not recommended for facial psoriasis. Tacrolimus ointment can be used intermittently if other treatments aren’t working. By using the appropriate topical treatments, patients can manage their facial psoriasis effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A new blood test is created to screen for breast cancer. Studies have revealed that it has a sensitivity of 75% for detecting clinically significant breast cancer and a specificity of 65%. What is the likelihood ratio for a positive test result?
Your Answer: 0.2
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The formula for the likelihood ratio of a positive test result is sensitivity divided by one minus specificity. In this case, the calculation is 0.8 divided by 0.4, which equals 2.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver with a valid driving licence.
He wants to know if he needs to inform the DVLA about his condition.
Which patients with diabetes must by law inform the DVLA about their condition?Your Answer: Treated with sulphonylureas and more than one hypoglycaemic attack within 12 months
Correct Answer: There are no requirements for patients with diabetes to inform the DVLA
Explanation:DVLA Guidelines for Diabetic Drivers
Drivers with diabetes do not need to inform the DVLA if their condition is managed by tablets or diet and they are free of complications such as visual impairment or hypoglycaemic attacks. However, if they are taking tablets that can induce hypoglycaemia, such as sulphonylureas, they must inform the DVLA. Additionally, if they have experienced more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months or are at high risk of developing it, they must also inform the DVLA.
In January 2016, the DVLA updated their guidelines, which may be reflected in AKT exam questions. It is important for drivers with diabetes to familiarize themselves with any additions or amendments. One of the changes made was to revise the wording for Group 1 drivers who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, including sulphonylureas and glinides.
It is important to note that drivers who are treated with insulin must inform the DVLA by law. Some people with diabetes may develop associated problems that could affect their ability to drive safely, and it is important to follow the guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has been grown from a wound swab.
Select from the list the most common cause of a hospital-acquired wound infection.Your Answer: Insufficient hand disinfection
Explanation:Preventing Nosocomial Infections in Hospitals: Identification, Control, and Measures
Insufficient hand disinfection is the leading cause of wound infections acquired in hospitals. The primary objective of hospital infection control is to prevent nosocomial infections. To achieve this, clinical and epidemiological investigations must first identify hospital-acquired infections as either endemic or epidemic. Identifying and typing the isolates causing nosocomial infections can help recognize organisms that are epidemiologically linked. Invasive multiresistant organisms, such as MRSA, often require infection-control measures to prevent their spread, which can minimize the use of expensive and sometimes toxic antibiotics required for their prophylaxis and treatment.
Epidemic outbreaks can be controlled by measures that interrupt the spread of infection, such as the use of gowns, gloves, and careful hand-washing by those attending patients. Transfer of colonized or infected patients to a single room or an isolation ward is a physical means of preventing spread. Patients infected with the same organism can be grouped together and attended to by a cohort of nurses not involved with uninfected patients. Identification of additional carriers and elimination of colonization may be necessary for some epidemic outbreaks. Although controlled trials demonstrating the efficacy of such measures have not been performed, many observational studies support their use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of rectal bleeding that has been ongoing for two days. He has experienced eight episodes of diarrhoea in the past 24 hours, with visible blood mixed with stool. He also reports feeling nauseous and having abdominal pain. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes, and is currently taking mesalazine enteric coated 800 mg twice daily, amlodipine 10 mg once daily, and metformin 500mg twice daily.
During the examination, the patient appears pale and has a temperature of 38ºC. His heart rate is 108/min, and his blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. The abdominal exam reveals generalised tenderness and guarding, but no rebound tenderness.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Urgent hospital admission
Explanation:The appropriate course of action for a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis is urgent hospital admission for IV corticosteroids. This is based on the Truelove and Witts’ severity index, which indicates that the patient is experiencing a severe flare-up due to symptoms such as opening their bowels more than 6 times per day and systemic upset (e.g. fever and tachycardia). NICE guidelines recommend immediate hospital admission for assessment and treatment with IV corticosteroids. It should be noted that a short course of oral steroids or rectal mesalazine may be used for mild to moderate flare-ups, while loperamide and dose increases of mesalazine are not appropriate for managing severe flare-ups.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of persistent urticaria, which he has experienced over the last six months. He obtains relief by taking antihistamine tablets. He takes no other medications and has restricted his diet to fresh food in an attempt to reduce the histamine exposure in his diet. He has not been in contact with any new chemicals or materials.
What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: An autoimmune response
Explanation:Understanding the Different Causes of Urticaria
Urticaria, commonly known as hives, can be caused by a variety of factors. It can be idiopathic, immunological, or non-immunological. Chronic urticaria is diagnosed when a patient experiences daily or episodic wheals for at least six weeks. Histamine-releasing autoantibodies are present in at least 30% of patients with chronic urticaria. Contact urticaria is a rapid, localised reaction to certain triggering substances. Pseudoallergens, such as certain drugs or food additives, can aggravate wheals in any form of urticaria. Type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are immunoglobulin E mediated, can cause acute urticaria. Type IV hypersensitivity and contact irritant effects are seen in contact allergic dermatitis and contact irritant dermatitis. Understanding the different causes of urticaria can help in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago, and is now troubled by post herpetic neuralgia. He also had an inferior myocardial infarction eight weeks ago.
His primary symptom at the moment is post herpetic neuralgia. Which of the following drugs would be contra-indicated in this man?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Contra-indication of Amitriptyline in Recent Myocardial Infarction
Explanation: Patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction should avoid taking Amitriptyline as a treatment. This medication is not recommended for individuals who have suffered a heart attack in the past. Therefore, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication, especially if you have a history of heart disease. It is crucial to follow the doctor’s advice and avoid any medication that may cause harm to your health. Remember, prevention is always better than cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman returns home from the hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Postpartum blues
Explanation:Postpartum Mental Health Conditions: Understanding the Differences
Postpartum mental health conditions can affect women after giving birth. It is important to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate care and support.
Postpartum blues is a common and short-lived condition that occurs in the first week after delivery. Symptoms include irritability, crying, depression, and emotional lability. Reassurance and explanation are usually enough to resolve this condition.
Major depression is not suggested in the vignette and there is no indication of an ongoing depressive illness.
Generalised anxiety disorder requires symptoms to be present for at least six months, which is not the case in this scenario.
Postpartum depression is more persistent and debilitating than postpartum blues. It can interfere with the mother’s ability to care for herself or her child and typically develops over the first three months after delivery.
Postpartum psychosis has a dramatic onset within the first two weeks after delivery. Symptoms include restlessness, insomnia, irritability, rapidly shifting mood, and disorganized behavior. Delusional beliefs or auditory hallucinations may instruct the mother to harm herself or her infant.
Understanding the differences between these conditions can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for women experiencing postpartum mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Correct
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A 65 year-old man comes to you with complaints of nasal blockage on the right side for the past two months. He reports that it is now affecting his sleep. He denies any episodes of bleeding but has been experiencing postnasal drip. Upon examination, you observe a polyp on the right side and inflamed mucosa on both sides. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:A unilateral nasal polyp is a concerning symptom that requires immediate attention. While bilateral polyps are typically associated with rhinosinusitis, a unilateral polyp may indicate the presence of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to refer the patient to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.
In cases where small bilateral nasal polyps are present, primary care treatment may involve saline nasal douching and intranasal steroids. However, if the polyps are causing significant obstruction, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.
If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to you seeking contraception. She is eager to begin immediately as she has no desire to conceive. Her last instance of unprotected sexual intercourse was five days ago. She has a history of migraines with aura. After assessment, you determine that the progesterone-only pill would be the most suitable option. What guidance should you provide regarding the commencement of her pill?
Your Answer: She should perform a pregnancy test two weeks after her last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse
Correct Answer: She can start contraception straight away, as long as she is aware that there is a possibility of pregnancy
Explanation:Starting Contraception: Important Considerations
When starting contraception, it is important for the clinician to ensure that the woman is likely to continue to be at risk of pregnancy or has expressed a preference to begin contraception immediately. Additionally, the woman should be aware that she may be pregnant and that there are theoretical risks from contraceptive exposure to the fetus, although evidence indicates no harm. It is also important to note that pregnancy can only be excluded once a pregnancy test is negative at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the woman should be advised to carry out a pregnancy test at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse and advised on additional contraception. While a negative pregnancy test is not required before starting contraception, the clinician should be reasonably sure that the woman is not pregnant or at risk of pregnancy. It is important to keep in mind that this practice may be outside the product licence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
He was recently hospitalized for pneumonia and received IV antibiotics. While in the hospital, he developed watery diarrhoea, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. After a stool sample, he was prescribed a 10-day course of oral vancomycin and discharged home. However, his diarrhoea has not improved.
Upon examination, he appears alert, his vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is non-tender.
What would be the next course of treatment to consider?Your Answer: Loperamide for symptom relief
Correct Answer: Fidaxomicin
Explanation:If initial treatment with vancomycin is ineffective against Clostridium difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening.
Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, it is likely that he has contracted Clostridium difficile infection due to his recent antibiotic use and possible use of proton-pump inhibitors. Therefore, oral fidaxomicin would be the appropriate second-line treatment option.
Continuing with vancomycin would not be the best course of action, as fidaxomicin is recommended as the next step if vancomycin is ineffective.
Using loperamide for symptom relief is not recommended in cases of suspected Clostridium difficile infection, as it may slow down the clearance of toxins produced by the bacteria.
Piperacillin-tazobactam is not a suitable treatment option for Clostridium difficile infection, as it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can increase the risk of developing the infection.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old business executive presents with dyspepsia and normal clinical examination. Stool antigen testing for Helicobacter pylori is negative, and over-the-counter alginates have not provided relief. The patient has a history of normal upper GI endoscopy and a diagnosis of functional dyspepsia from 12 months ago. The patient is allergic to penicillin. What would be the most suitable treatment plan to follow?
Your Answer: Standard dose H2 receptor antagonist for one month
Correct Answer: A PPI twice-daily and metronidazole 400 mg twice-daily and levofloxacin 250 mg twice-daily
Explanation:Management of Functional Dyspepsia
According to NICE’s CKS guidance, patients with functional dyspepsia should be offered testing for H Pylori, with management guided by the result. Short-term use of over-the-counter alginates may be helpful, but not recommended for long-term therapy. If the test is positive, first-line H Pylori eradication regimens are appropriate, but not if the test is negative. In this case, a low-dose PPI or standard-dose H2RA for one month should be considered. It is important to avoid prescribing medication that is not clinically required, such as Helicobacter eradication treatment for a Helicobacter-negative patient, as this is considered a prescribing error in the RCGP’s WPBA prescribing assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 69-year-old man comes to see you. He is tearful and clearly upset. On review of his notes you see has a history of recurrent depression and he has been taking citalopram 20 mg once daily for the last 12 months. You can also see that he was referred for psychological therapies.
His grown up son has a severe learning disability and lives with him. He lacks social support and cites money problems and needs to work as a part time job as a cleaner. He is finding it difficult to function at work and he thinks that his employer wants to sack him, so he needs a 'sick note'. His son attends a day centre twice a week.
He tells you that he has had suicidal thoughts on and off for years and at the moment he feels like just ending it all. He says that he is not sure how he would do this but could take some tablets or something I suppose. He tells you that last year when he was feeling very low he drank a bottle of whiskey and took pain killers as he felt suicidal.
Which of the following suggests the greatest risk of suicidal intent?Your Answer: Previous suicide attempt
Correct Answer: Duration of suicidal thoughts
Explanation:Assessing Suicide Risk in Patients: Importance of Therapeutic Alliance and Individualized Assessment
Assessing suicide risk in patients can be challenging, but establishing a therapeutic alliance and trusting relationship between the professional and patient is crucial. Patients need to feel comfortable enough to disclose suicidal thoughts, and having such discussions can be protective against suicide. A sensitive but thorough enquiry into the details can help identify and compassionately respond to identified risk. It is essential to ask all patients presenting with low mood/anxiety about suicidal thoughts.
Taking any suicidal ideas seriously and conducting a risk assessment is vital. Exploring protective factors, such as responsibilities for loved ones, can also help in assessing risk. While established risk factors and risk groups for suicide at a population level are useful, clinicians should not rely solely on this knowledge when assessing risk in specific individuals. Suicidal thoughts and risk can vary over a short time, and the assessment of suicide risk needs to be individually focused and conducted regularly.
A patient’s acute presentation can be a significant factor in considering an impulsive act that may not necessarily translate into significant suicide risk. The duration of suicidal thoughts is not as strong a risk factor as a previous suicide attempt. If suicidal thoughts are uncovered, the clinician needs to decide whether the patient needs to be referred to the Crisis team or is safe to review in 1 or 2 days (‘active monitoring’). The request for a sick note and agreement to plan future care shows that the patient is thinking about the future and wants help.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient is seeking your guidance on vulval itching.
What is the primary reason behind pruritus vulvae?Your Answer: Contact dermatitis
Explanation:Contact dermatitis is the leading reason for pruritus vulvae, which can be attributed to a delayed allergic reaction to substances such as medication, contraceptive creams/gel, and latex, or an irritant reaction to chemical or physical triggers like humidity, detergents, solvents, or friction/scratching.
Pruritus vulvae, or vaginal itching, is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 10 women who may seek medical assistance at some point. Unlike pruritus ani, pruritus vulvae typically has an underlying cause. The most common cause is irritant contact dermatitis, which can be triggered by latex condoms or lubricants. Other potential causes include atopic dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and psoriasis, which is seen in around one-third of patients with psoriasis.
To manage pruritus vulvae, women should be advised to take showers instead of baths and clean the vulval area with an emollient such as Epaderm or Diprobase. It is recommended to clean only once a day as repeated cleaning can worsen the symptoms. Most of the underlying conditions can be treated with topical steroids. If seborrhoeic dermatitis is suspected, a combined steroid-antifungal treatment may be attempted. Overall, seeking medical advice is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment of pruritus vulvae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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