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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of progressive tiredness. She has been working alternative night and day shifts for many months. In the last two months she has experienced intermittent constipation. She reports that her diet is not great because of these awkward shift patterns but that she doesn't restrict it. She thinks she may have lost a small amount of weight over this period. Her legs ache after a long shift and that the tan she obtained in the summer seems to have lingered.
She has no significant previous illness and doesn't take any regular medications.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 222 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 56 µmol/l 45–84 µmol/l
Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/l 9–24 pmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.2 mU/l 0.4–4.0 mU/l
Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 39 mmol/mol < 41 mmol/mol
Ferritin 50 ng/ml 10–300 ng/ml
Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with fatigue, weight loss, and electrolyte abnormalities
Addison’s disease: The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands and leads to a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. The gradual onset of symptoms, including fatigue, weight loss, muscle aches, constipation, and hyperpigmentation, along with mild hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, are consistent with this diagnosis.
Subclinical hypothyroidism: Although the patient has some symptoms that could be attributed to low thyroid hormone levels, her thyroid function tests are normal, making this diagnosis less likely.
Dietary related hyponatremia: Mild hyponatremia in a young person is unlikely to be caused by dietary differences or deficiency, suggesting a pathological process.
Renal disease: While electrolyte abnormalities could be a sign of renal insufficiency, the patient’s normal urea and creatinine levels make this diagnosis less likely.
Cushing’s disease: Although some symptoms, such as fatigue and muscle weakness, could be attributed to excess cortisol, other expected symptoms, such as weight gain and high blood sugar, are not present in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)
Explanation:The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You see a 6-month-old boy who you suspect has non-IgE-mediated cow's' milk protein allergy. He is exclusively breastfed. You would like to do a trial elimination of cows' milk from his diet.
What would you advise the mother to achieve this trial elimination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclude cows' milk protein from her diet for 4 weeks
Explanation:Managing Non-IgE-Mediated Cow’s’ Milk Protein Allergy in Infants
When dealing with a breastfed infant suspected of having non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy, it is recommended to advise the mother to exclude cows’ milk from her diet for 2-6 weeks. During this period, calcium and vitamin D supplements may be prescribed to ensure the infant’s nutritional needs are met. After the exclusion period, reintroducing cows’ milk is advised to determine if it is the cause of the infant’s symptoms. If there is no improvement or the symptoms worsen, a referral to secondary care may be necessary.
For formula-fed or mixed-fed infants, replacing cow’s milk-based formula with hypoallergenic infant formulas is recommended. Extensively hydrolysed formulas (eHF) are typically the first option, and amino acid formulas are an alternative if the infant cannot tolerate eHFs or has severe symptoms. It is important to note that parents should not switch to soy-based formulas without consulting a healthcare professional, as some infants with cow’s’ milk protein allergy may also be allergic to soy.
In cases where there is faltering growth, acute systemic reactions, severe delayed reactions, significant atopic eczema with multiple food allergies suspected, or persistent parental concern, a referral to secondary care should be considered. With proper management and guidance, infants with non-IgE-mediated cow’s’ milk protein allergy can still receive adequate nutrition and thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has recently developed symmetrical polyarthritis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet.
Which of the following tests is most likely to contribute to a definitive diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their Association with Autoimmune Diseases
Autoantibodies are antibodies that target the body’s own tissues and cells. They are often associated with autoimmune diseases, which occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues. Here are some common autoantibodies and their association with autoimmune diseases:
1. Rheumatoid factor: This autoantibody is found in 60-70% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and in 5% of the general population. It may also be elevated in other autoimmune diseases. Testing for rheumatoid factor is recommended in people with suspected RA who have synovitis on clinical examination.
2. Antinuclear antibody: This autoantibody binds to the contents of the cell nucleus. It is present in almost all people with systemic lupus erythematosus and is also found in patients with other autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, Sjögren’s syndrome, polymyositis, and certain forms of chronic active hepatitis.
3. Antimitochondrial antibody: This autoantibody is present in 90-95% of patients with autoimmune liver disease, primary biliary cholangitis, and also in 0.5% of the general population. It is also found in about 35% of patients with primary biliary cirrhosis.
4. Antiphospholipid antibodies: These autoantibodies are associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, an autoimmune, hypercoagulable state that can cause arterial and venous thrombosis as well as pregnancy-related complications such as miscarriage, stillbirth, preterm delivery, and severe preeclampsia.
5. HLA-B27 antigen: This antigen is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, as well as other diseases such as psoriasis, reactive arthritis, and inflammatory bowel disease. Its prevalence varies in the general population according to racial type.
In conclusion, autoantibodies can provide important diagnostic and prognostic information in autoimmune diseases. Testing for these antibodies can help healthcare providers make accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local hospital. She has been feeling tired and emotional throughout her course of chemotherapy so far, but presents to the Duty Clinic as today, she is feeling more tired than usual, with no appetite and she has been feeling hot and cold at home and struggling to get comfortable.
On examination, you find she has a temperature of 38.5 oC, but no focal symptoms, and her respiratory and pulse rates and blood pressure are all within normal limits.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review
Explanation:Emergency Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Chemotherapy Patient
Neutropenic sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of neutropenia, commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy. In a patient with fever and neutropenia, neutropenic sepsis should be suspected, and emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review is necessary. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics or offering emotional support is not the appropriate management in this situation. The patient requires inpatient monitoring and treatment, as per the ‘sepsis six’ bundle of care, to avoid the risk of sudden deterioration. It is crucial to recognize the urgency of this situation and act promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male patient complains of bloating and changes in his bowel movements. He has been maintaining a food diary and suspects that his symptoms may be due to a food allergy. Laboratory results reveal normal full blood count, ESR, and thyroid function tests. Anti-endomysial antibodies are negative. What is the most appropriate test to explore the possibility of a food allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skin prick test
Explanation:Skin prick testing is the preferred initial approach as it is cost-effective and can assess a wide range of allergens. Although IgE testing is useful in food allergy, it is specific IgE antibodies that are measured rather than total IgE levels.
Types of Allergy Tests
Allergy tests are used to determine the specific allergens that trigger an individual’s allergic reactions. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. If a patient has an allergy, a wheal will typically develop. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen allergies.
Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
Skin patch testing is another type of allergy test that is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours.
Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, the choice of allergy test depends on the individual’s specific needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
Explanation:Common Infections in Kidney Transplant Patients
Kidney transplant patients are at a higher risk of infections due to immunosuppression. In the first month post-transplant, infections are similar to those in non-immunosuppressed individuals. However, in the one-month to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6, hepatitis A, B and C viruses, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are most problematic. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but routine annual administration of the injectable inactivated vaccine is recommended. Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions and even disseminated or visceral disease. Pneumonia and urinary infections are also common, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation and prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after transplantation. A small group of patients may experience persistence of viral infections and are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergy is more common in developed areas than rural areas
Explanation:Understanding the Causes and Patterns of Allergies
Allergies have become increasingly prevalent in recent years, affecting up to 30-35% of people at some point in their lives. This rise is seen not only in developed countries but also in those undergoing development. The causes of allergies are multifactorial, with both environmental and genetic factors playing a role. Outdoor pollution, particularly diesel exhaust particles, has been linked to an increase in respiratory allergies. The hygiene hypothesis suggests that inadequate exposure to environmental micro-organisms during childhood may result in a tendency towards allergy. This is supported by studies showing that children with regular contact with farm animals have a lower incidence of allergy. The pattern of allergy is also changing, with a significant increase in food allergies, particularly among children. Immunotherapy for allergies should only be carried out in hospital where facilities for resuscitation are immediately available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman complains of light-headedness, weakness, nausea and difficulty breathing within minutes of a wasp sting. A neighbour brings her into the surgery. She is hypotensive and wheezy. You decide to administer adrenaline.
Select from the list the single correct option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg (0.5 ml 1 : 1000) intramuscular injection
Explanation:Administering Adrenaline: Dosage and Site of Injection
When administering adrenaline, it is recommended to inject it intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This site is considered safe, easy, and effective. The standard adult dose is 0.5 ml 1:1000, while children aged 6-12 years should receive 0.3 ml. For younger children, the dose varies from 0.15 ml for those aged 6 months to 6 years, and 0.1-0.15 ml for infants younger than 6 months. If there is no improvement after 5 minutes, a repeat dose of intramuscular adrenaline may be necessary. In some cases, patients may require intravenous adrenaline, which should only be administered by trained and experienced medical professionals such as anaesthetists and A&E consultants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-week history of a persistent dry cough, gradually worsening breathlessness on exertion and fevers. He usually easily walks for fifteen minutes to the park, but is now unable to walk there as he gets too breathless.
On examination, he has difficulty taking a full breath due to painful inspiration, and has fine bilateral crackles on auscultation. Oxygen saturations drop from 96% to 90% on walking around the consulting room. He is a non-smoker with no significant past medical history but has had multiple prescriptions for bacterial skin infections and athlete's foot over the years with increasing frequency more recently.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Respiratory Presentation: A Case Study
Possible diagnoses for a respiratory presentation can be numerous and varied. In this case study, the patient presents with a persistent dry cough, fever, increasing exertional dyspnoea, decreasing exercise tolerance, chest discomfort, and difficulty in taking a deep breath. The following are the possible diagnoses and their respective likelihoods:
Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP): This is the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s symptoms and history of recurrent fungal infections. PCP is an opportunistic respiratory infection associated with HIV infection and can be fatal if diagnosed late.
Pulmonary embolism (PE): Although this is a potentially fatal medical emergency, it is unlikely in this case as the patient has no suspicion of DVT, tachycardia, recent immobilisation, past history of DVT/PE, haemoptysis, or history of malignancy.
Bronchiectasis: This is less likely as the patient’s persistent dry cough is not typical of bronchiectasis.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): This is also less likely as the patient is a non-smoker and has a shorter history of respiratory symptoms.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF): This is a possibility, but the onset would generally be over a longer time course, and pleuritic chest pain is not a typical feature.
In conclusion, PCP is the most likely diagnosis in this case, and the patient needs acute medical assessment and treatment. Other possible diagnoses should also be considered and ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student is required to give a blood sample to check his hepatitis B status. He received a course of vaccinations nine months ago.
Which of the following is this patient’s blood test most likely to show?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-HBs
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves checking for various antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here is a breakdown of what each result means:
Anti-HBs: This antibody indicates that a person has been vaccinated against hepatitis B.
Anti-HBsAb + anti-HBc: The presence of both antibodies suggests that a person has had a past infection with hepatitis B and is now immune.
Anti-HBeAb: This antibody indicates that a person is less infectious and is recovering from an acute infection.
HBsAg + HBcAg: The presence of both antigens suggests that a person is currently infected with hepatitis B.
Immunoglobulin M to HBcAg: The presence of this antibody indicates that a person has recently been infected with hepatitis B.
Understanding these test results can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department feeling fatigued and short of breath. During the examination, her haemoglobin level is measured at 70 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l), and her serum vitamin B12 level is found to be 95 ng/l (normal range: 130–700 ng/l). Which of the following positive tests would suggest that pernicious anaemia is the likely cause of her vitamin B12 deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor (IF) antibody
Explanation:Autoantibodies in the Diagnosis of Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a type of megaloblastic anaemia caused by impaired absorption of vitamin B12 due to autoimmune destruction of gastric glands and loss of intrinsic factor (IF). IF antibodies, specifically type I and type II, are present in 50% of patients with pernicious anaemia and are specific to this disorder. Therefore, they can be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Other autoantibodies, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and gastric anti-parietal cell (GPC) antibodies, are not specific to pernicious anaemia but may be present in some patients. ANA is used in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus and other autoimmune diseases, while GPC antibodies occur in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia but are also positive in 10% of normal individuals.
Tests such as the Coombs test, which detect antibodies that attack red blood cells, are not used in the investigation of pernicious anaemia. Similarly, the immunoglobulin A tissue transglutaminase measurement is not diagnostic of pernicious anaemia but is used as the first-choice test for suspected coeliac disease in young people and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling of her lips after consuming a mango. She has no other symptoms and no breathing difficulties. She has noticed similar symptoms after eating various fruits during the summer. Samantha has a history of hay fever and takes regular antihistamines. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Oral allergy syndrome is closely associated with pollen allergies and exhibits seasonal fluctuations. It occurs when allergens in certain foods cross-react with pollens, causing the body to react to the food proteins as if they were pollen. This results in a localized reaction around the mouth, such as an itchy mouth or throat, and sometimes hives. As the patient experiences symptoms with various fruits, it is not a pure kiwi allergy. Urticaria is characterized by an itchy rash triggered by an allergen, but there is no mention of a rash in this case. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that causes swelling of the throat and tongue, as well as breathing difficulties. However, since there is only mild lip swelling and no breathing difficulties, anaphylaxis is unlikely.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts and is waiting for an Allergy Clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party about 30 minutes ago and has quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer 300 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM
Explanation:Correct and Incorrect Management Options for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate management. The correct management options include administering adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly (IM) at appropriate doses based on the patient’s age and weight. However, there are also incorrect management options that can be harmful to the patient.
One incorrect option is administering chlorphenamine IM. While it is a sedating antihistamine, it should not be used as a first-line intervention for airway, breathing, or circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation.
Another incorrect option is advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department instead of administering immediate drug management. Out-of-hours centres should have access to emergency drugs, including adrenaline, and GPs working in these settings should be capable of administering doses in emergencies.
It is also important to administer the correct dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age and weight. Administering a dose that is too high, such as 1000 µg for a 7-year-old child, can be harmful.
In summary, the correct management options for anaphylaxis include administering adrenaline at appropriate doses and avoiding incorrect options such as administering chlorphenamine IM or advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department without administering immediate drug management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother into the out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts, and is waiting for an allergy clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party around 30 minutes ago, and quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
You suspect anaphylaxis.
What is the most appropriate immediate management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer 300 µg 1 : 1000 adrenaline IM
Explanation:Managing Anaphylaxis: Correct Doses and Emergency Treatment
Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate drug management. Adrenaline 1 : 1000 is the correct immediate management choice, with doses varying depending on the patient’s age. For a 7-year-old child, the correct dose is 300 µg IM.
In addition to adrenaline, other emergency drugs may be necessary, and it is important to attend the nearest emergency department for further treatment. Chlorphenamine is a sedating antihistamine that may be administered, but only after initial stabilisation and not as a first-line intervention. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms.
It is crucial to administer the correct dose of adrenaline, as an overdose can be dangerous. The adult dose is 500 µg, while the dose for children aged between six and 12 years is 300 µg. A 1000 µg dose is twice the recommended dose for adults and should not be given to a 7-year-old child.
In summary, managing anaphylaxis requires prompt and appropriate drug management, with correct doses of adrenaline and other emergency drugs. It is also important to seek further treatment at the nearest emergency department.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw spinach, apple, and strawberries, which subsides within 15 minutes. She has a history of birch pollen allergy but no other medical conditions.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Urticarial reactions can be caused by various factors, including drug-induced angioedema or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency. Contact irritant dermatitis is usually the result of prolonged exposure to a mild irritant, but it doesn’t typically produce a rapid and predictable response that resolves quickly. Lip licking dermatitis is a form of skin inflammation that occurs when saliva from repeated lip licking causes redness, scaling, and dryness of the lips.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man contacts the General Practitioner out of hours service for advice. He had a renal transplant five months ago. His family had a viral illness last week, which they managed with self-care and over the counter medications. He now complains of feeling unwell for the past three days. He reports feeling tired, with a fever and a headache and a mild sore throat. He can eat and drink and he has no rash.
You suspect that he may be experiencing an acute renal transplant rejection.
Which of the following signs or symptom would you most expect to see?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower limb swelling
Explanation:Symptoms of Acute Renal Transplant Rejection
Acute renal transplant rejection can occur after a kidney transplant and is characterized by reduced urine output, leading to oliguria and water retention. This can result in swelling of the limbs or abdomen and face. Malaise and fatigue are common symptoms, but they are also present in upper respiratory tract infections. Fever may also be present, but it is a nonspecific symptom found in many infections. Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is not typically seen in acute renal transplant rejection. Headache is a nonspecific symptom and may be present in both acute infections and graft rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner during the summer. She has suffered from mild asthma for many years, controlled with an inhaled short-acting beta-agonist (SABA). She has started working at a construction site and has noticed that her asthma is much worse, with daily symptoms. She has to use her current inhaler several times a day.
On examination, her chest is clear. Her best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 480 l/min. Today, her PEFR is 430 l/min.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start an inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Managing Worsening Asthma Symptoms: Starting Inhaled Corticosteroids
This patient’s asthma symptoms have worsened, likely due to exposure to allergens at the stable. While her chest is clear and her PEFR has only mildly dropped, her daily symptoms and use of SABA indicate poorly controlled asthma. The first step in managing her symptoms is to start an inhaled corticosteroid as part of the stepwise approach to asthma management. Urgent allergy testing or a home allergy testing kit are not necessary at this stage, and oral steroids are not yet indicated. Instead, allergen avoidance measures can be discussed. It is not necessary for the patient to stop working at the stable at this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old unemployed woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with a persistent productive cough that has so far lasted six weeks, associated with shortness of breath and episodes of haemoptysis, as well as malaise and fatigue.
She is on lisinopril and amlodipine for hypertension. Her weight is 75 kg, a loss of 6 kg since it was last recorded at a hypertension check three months ago. She is a non-smoker and lives alone in a rented flat in a deprived area.
What is the most appropriate initial management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send sputum samples and request a chest X-ray (CXR)
Explanation:The patient is at high risk for tuberculosis (TB) due to his unemployment, living in a deprived area, and having diabetes. His symptoms, including a persistent cough with blood, shortness of breath, weight loss, and fatigue, suggest active TB. To diagnose TB, multiple sputum samples should be sent for analysis and a chest X-ray (CXR) should be performed urgently. A Mantoux test is not necessary in a symptomatic individual like this. A blood serology test for TB is not the recommended first-line investigation. A CT scan of the chest is not the first-line test for TB. The patient doesn’t meet the criteria for an urgent referral for suspected cancer, but if he were over 40 years of age, he would meet criteria for a CXR to look for lung cancer. However, even if he were over 40 years of age, his clinical picture with risk factors would still warrant sending sputum samples and arranging a CXR. The role of primary care is to make the diagnosis and refer the patient promptly for appropriate management and contact tracing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently registered. She is experiencing sneezing, an itchy nose, and itchy, watery eyes. She suspects that her symptoms are due to allergies and would like to undergo comprehensive allergy testing to inform her workplace and make necessary adjustments. She also wonders if she should carry an EpiPen.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's allergy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seasonal rhinitis
Explanation:Common Allergic and Non-Allergic Conditions: Causes and Differences
Seasonal rhinitis, atopic eczema, chronic urticaria, lactose intolerance, and coeliac disease are common conditions that can cause discomfort and distress. Understanding their causes and differences is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
Seasonal rhinitis, also known as hay fever, is caused by allergens such as tree pollen, grass, mould spores, and weeds. It is an IgE-mediated reaction that occurs at certain times of the year.
Atopic eczema can be aggravated by dietary factors in some children, but less frequently in adults. Food allergy should be suspected in children who have immediate reactions to food or infants with moderate or severe eczema that is not well-controlled.
Chronic urticaria may have an immunological or autoimmune cause, but can also be idiopathic or caused by physical factors, drugs, or dietary pseudo allergens. It presents with a rash.
Lactose intolerance is due to an enzyme deficiency and is different from milk allergy, which is IgE-mediated. It can occur following gastroenteritis.
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that affects the small intestine in response to gluten exposure. It is not a gluten allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with complaints of nasal congestion, itchy eyes and throat irritation that usually occur during the spring months. What is the best guidance to offer this mother regarding the management of her son's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid drying washing outdoors when pollen count is high
Explanation:Managing Seasonal Allergic Rhinitis: Tips for Reducing Pollen Exposure
Seasonal allergic rhinitis is a condition where the nasal mucosa becomes sensitized to allergens, such as pollen, causing inflammation and symptoms like sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes. To reduce pollen exposure, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends avoiding drying laundry outdoors when pollen counts are high. Showering and washing hair after potential exposure can also help alleviate symptoms. While the tree pollen season can start as early as March, there is no need to eat locally produced honey or resort to ineffective nasal irrigation with saline. By following these simple tips, individuals with seasonal allergic rhinitis can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings
Explanation:Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies
Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.Peanut Allergy:
Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.Allergic Rhinitis:
Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.Chronic Urticaria:
Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute urticaria
Explanation:Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms
Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.
In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.
Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.
Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a wasp sting during a picnic at the park. She reports swelling and redness at the site of the sting that had begun to spread to her face.
What is the best course of action for long-term management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for venom immunotherapy and dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®)
Explanation:Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with facial swelling that started 6 hours ago. She is a busy lawyer and has important court cases this week. During the examination, her lips are found to be swollen. Her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg and her pulse rate is 80 beats per minute. She reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loratadine
Explanation:The symptoms and signs exhibited by this woman suggest the presence of angioedema, which is a condition characterized by swelling of the connective tissue beneath the skin in response to a trigger. Unlike anaphylaxis, angioedema doesn’t affect breathing or vital signs. antihistamines are effective in treating this condition, while adrenaline is not necessary as it is primarily used to treat anaphylaxis. Hydrocortisone is also used to treat anaphylaxis, but it is not recommended for angioedema. Furosemide is typically prescribed for leg swelling caused by heart failure and is not suitable for treating angioedema. Chlorphenamine and loratadine are both effective in reducing swelling caused by angioedema, but since the woman has an important job that requires full concentration, loratadine would be the better option as it is a non-sedating antihistamine.
Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment
Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter who has biliary atresia. He has been informed by the paediatric gastroenterologist that her condition has deteriorated and she requires a liver transplant. The father is feeling anxious and upset and is seeking further information about the procedure. As his GP, what is the best advice you can provide him regarding liver transplantation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C
Explanation:Myth-busting Facts about Pediatric Liver Transplantation
Pediatric liver transplantation is a complex medical procedure that involves replacing a diseased liver with a healthy one from a donor. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this life-saving surgery. Here are some myth-busting facts about pediatric liver transplantation:
– The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C: A potential living donor with antibodies to hepatitis B and C would usually be ruled out as a donor.
– HLA matching is necessary for kidney, heart, and lung transplants, but not for liver transplants: Blood-group compatibility is necessary, and a relative is more likely to be a match.
– Immunosuppression is usually required for life, not just 12 months after transplant: While the regimen can be reduced with time, complete withdrawal is only successful in a small number of individuals.
– Prednisolone is not the only immunosuppressant needed after transplant: A combination of drugs, including prednisolone, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, and sirolimus, are commonly used.
– Survival at one year after liver transplantation is higher than 50% in children: One-year survival is 80% for all children transplanted and may reach 90% for children with biliary atresia.It is important to dispel these myths and provide accurate information about pediatric liver transplantation to help families make informed decisions about their child’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most common symptom observed in these individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory infection
Explanation:Understanding Primary Antibody Deficiencies: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Primary antibody deficiencies refer to a group of rare disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens. These disorders may be caused by a mutation in a single gene or by multiple genetic factors, similar to diabetes. While primary antibody deficiencies are the most common forms of primary immune deficiency, other primary immune deficiencies involve defects in cellular immunity, phagocyte defects, and complement defects. It is important to distinguish primary antibody deficiencies from secondary immune deficiencies caused by factors such as malignancy, malnutrition, or immunosuppressive therapy.
Clinical history is crucial in identifying primary antibody deficiencies. Patients of any age who experience recurrent infections, particularly in the respiratory tract, should be investigated if the frequency or severity of infection is unusual or out of context. While most patients are under 20 years old, common variable immunodeficiency typically peaks in the second or third decade of life. A systematic review has found that respiratory and sinus infections are the most common presenting symptoms, followed by gastrointestinal and cutaneous infections. Meningitis, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis, and ophthalmic infections are much less common.
In summary, understanding primary antibody deficiencies is essential in diagnosing and managing patients with recurrent infections. Clinical history plays a crucial role in identifying these disorders, which can be caused by genetic factors and affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents to your GP clinic with a spider bite that occurred 7 days ago. The patient reports experiencing pruritus, urticarial rash, erythema, lip swelling, abdominal pain, and vomiting shortly after being bitten. The patient has been taking cetirizine daily from a home supply for the past week, which has resolved all symptoms.
What is the recommended follow-up plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to an allergy specialist
Explanation:If someone experiences a systemic reaction to an insect bite, it is important to refer them to an allergy specialist. In this case, the patient’s moderate reaction suggests the need for further evaluation by a specialist who can determine if an adrenaline auto-injector and medical identification bracelet are necessary. However, since the bite occurred 7 days ago and the patient is currently stable, there is no need to refer them to the emergency department or medical team at this time. Additionally, late-onset reactions typically occur within a few hours of the bite, so a follow-up appointment at the 2-week mark is not necessary.
Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What is the most suitable guidance regarding the injection site?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh
Explanation:The anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh is the recommended site for injecting IM adrenaline.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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