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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of malaise, fever and night sweats. He also complains that he has recently developed increased sensitivity in his fingertips and states that every time he touches something his fingers hurt.
His past medical history includes diabetes and end-stage chronic kidney disease, for which he receives regular haemodialysis. His parameters include a blood pressure of 130/95 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98%, heart rate 120 bpm and a temperature of 38.2°C.
Which of the following investigations would be needed to make a diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE best investigation from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Suspected Infective Endocarditis
Suspected infective endocarditis (IE) requires a thorough diagnostic workup to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential conditions. One of the major symptoms of IE is the development of Osler nodes, which are tender lumps found on the fingers and toes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate a patient with suspected IE:
Echocardiogram
An echocardiogram is a crucial diagnostic test for IE. It is used to detect any abnormalities in the heart valves or chambers that may indicate the presence of IE. The modified Duke’s criteria, which are used to diagnose IE, include echocardiography as one of the major criteria.
Nerve Conduction Studies
Nerve conduction studies are used to detect any damage to the peripheral nerves. While this test may be used to evaluate conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome or sciatica, it is not typically used to diagnose IE. In this case, the painful sensation in the fingertips is more likely due to Osler nodes than an underlying neurological disorder.
Chest X-ray
A chest X-ray is not typically indicated in a patient with suspected IE. While pneumonia may present with symptoms similar to those of IE, such as fever and malaise, other symptoms such as coughing and sputum production are more indicative of pneumonia.
Mantoux Test
The Mantoux test is used to detect latent tuberculosis (TB). While TB may present with symptoms similar to those of IE, such as night sweats and fever, a Mantoux test is not typically used to diagnose IE. In this case, the lack of risk factors for TB and the presence of Osler nodes suggest a diagnosis of IE.
Sputum Culture
A sputum culture may be used to diagnose respiratory conditions such as pneumonia. However, in a patient without a cough, a sputum culture is less likely to confirm a diagnosis. Other symptoms such as coughing and sputum production are more indicative of pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman goes to a family planning clinic to talk about contraception options. She has been experiencing migraine with aura for the past year and a half. According to the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria, which contraceptive method is considered safe to use without caution or contraindication in this situation?
Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:The use of combined oral contraceptive pills is completely contraindicated in patients with migraine with aura due to an increased risk of ischaemic stroke (UKMEC class 4). However, progestogen-based contraception methods and the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device are considered safe (UKMEC 2) as the benefits of using these methods outweigh the potential risks. The copper intrauterine device is the only form of contraception recommended by UKMEC as having no contraindication in this condition (UKMEC 1).
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as JaydessÂź and KyleenaÂź, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 54-year-old man presents to your clinic after a routine blood test showed abnormal liver function tests. He denies any alcohol consumption and his hepatitis screen is negative. His cholesterol level is 4.2 and his HBA1c is 38ml/mol. He has a body mass index of 31 kg/mÂČ and an ultrasound reveals non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. What is the most suitable approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer: Diet and exercise
Explanation:The primary management approach for NAFLD is weight loss, achieved through diet and exercise. Medications have not shown to be effective in improving the condition’s outcome.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 4
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain. She is experiencing severe pain in the epigastric region that radiates to her back and is vomiting excessively. When questioned, she confesses to having had too many drinks at a bachelorette party the night before. Her serum amylase level is 1190 u/l. What is the most suitable initial management step?
Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation
Explanation:Treatment and Diagnosis of Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis can lead to systemic inflammatory response syndrome and multiple organ dysfunction syndromes. The mainstay of treatment is supportive measures such as fluid resuscitation and oxygen supplementation. Abdominal ultrasound can be useful to identify gallstones as the cause of pancreatitis, but fluid resuscitation takes priority. IV antibiotics are not indicated unless complications occur. Enteral feeding is preferred over nil by mouth, and parenteral feeding should be considered if enteral feeding is not tolerated. Urgent CT of the abdomen is not necessary in the acute stage unless complications are suspected. However, for severe pancreatitis, contrast-enhanced CT may be indicated four days after initial symptoms to assess for complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman, who has been struggling with drug addiction and living on the streets, presents to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain. The patient reports that she developed acute abdominal pain two hours prior to the presentation after eating a hot dog. The patient otherwise has no significant past medical history, takes no medications and admits to smoking and occasional alcohol consumption.
On examination, the patient has normal vital signs. Her abdominal examination demonstrates normoactive bowel sounds, no tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium and no guarding or rebound tenderness. Rectal exam for stool occult blood is negative and a chest X-ray does not reveal free air under the diaphragm. A right upper quadrant ultrasound does not demonstrate stones. The doctor recommends antacids. When the doctor tells the patient that she is safe for discharge, the patient insists that she must be admitted to the hospital for further tests.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Differentiating between Malingering, Hypochondriasis, Conversion Disorder, Factitious Disorder, and Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy
When evaluating patients, it is important to differentiate between various conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Malingering is a condition where a patient feigns or exaggerates symptoms for secondary gain, such as meals or a place to sleep. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where a patient fears having a medical illness despite negative tests and reassurance. Conversion disorder refers to the manifestation of psychological illness as neurologic pathology, while factitious disorder involves a patient who assumes the sick role for personal satisfaction. Finally, Munchausen syndrome by proxy is similar to factitious disorder but involves a patient seeking the sick role vicariously through a second patient, often a child. By understanding the differences between these conditions, healthcare providers can provide appropriate care and treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse reporting weakness in his right arm and leg, decreased vision, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago, and his wife promptly called for an ambulance. A CT scan of the head ruled out a hemorrhagic stroke, but a CT contrast angiography revealed a confirmed blockage in the proximal anterior circulation. What is the appropriate acute management for this patient?
Your Answer: Alteplase plus thrombectomy
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, the recommended treatment is a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy. Thrombolysis involves the use of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator that breaks down the clot, while thrombectomy physically removes the clot using a specialized device inserted through the femoral artery. In this case, as the patient has confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation, both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be performed together for the best possible outcome. While alteplase alone can be considered if thrombectomy is not available, a better prognosis is more likely with the combination treatment. It would not be appropriate to perform thrombectomy alone without considering thrombolysis, as the patient is presenting within the window for thrombolysis and should be considered for both in combination according to the guidelines.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains feeling as though her environment is not real, almost like a dream. Additionally, she has been informed that she begins to smack her lips, although she has no memory of doing so. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure
Explanation:Focal aware seizures do not affect consciousness or awareness, and may involve automatic, repetitive actions such as lip smacking.
Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP clinic and asks for a prescription of Sildenafil (Viagra). He has a medical history of well-managed hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and suffered a middle cerebral artery infarct three weeks ago. He is currently taking amlodipine, atorvastatin, clopidogrel, and tamsulosin. Additionally, he is a heavy smoker and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week.
What is an absolute contraindication to Sildenafil?Your Answer: Recent stroke
Explanation:Patients who have recently had a stroke should not take PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil. However, the use of clopidogrel after a stroke does not prevent the use of sildenafil. Sildenafil can be used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and is not contraindicated in this case. While smoking is a risk factor for stroke and cardiovascular disease, it is not a contraindication for the use of sildenafil.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and his sputum test is positive for acid-fast bacilli. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and amlodipine. What is the recommended initial medication combination for him?
Your Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
Explanation:Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.
In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.
While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with pruritic, violaceous papules in a polygonal pattern on the flexor surface of his forearms. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a rash that appears as purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. It is often accompanied by Wickham’s striae on the surface and can also affect the mouth. In contrast, lichen sclerosus is characterized by white, itchy spots that commonly appear on the vulva of older women.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true?
Your Answer: Most common in children under the age of 6 months
Correct Answer: Most commonly caused by parainfluenza viruses
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus, and it is recommended to avoid throat examination as it may lead to airway obstruction.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain intermittently for the past three weeks, especially during meals. However, the pain has escalated significantly over the last 48 hours.
During examination, his temperature is 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals inadequate dental hygiene and pus seeping into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ludwigâs angina
Correct Answer: Left submandibular gland infection
Explanation:Differentiating Left Submandibular Gland Infection from Other Conditions
Left submandibular gland infection is a condition that occurs when a submandibular gland calculus obstructs the submandibular duct, leading to stasis of duct contents and infection. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
Sialolithiasis, another condition that affects the submandibular gland, typically presents with dull pain around the gland that worsens during mealtimes or when lemon juice is squirted onto the tongue. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes localized tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth.
Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth, which are common symptoms of left submandibular gland infection. Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth, typically follows a dental infection and presents with marked oedema and tenderness of submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces.
Mumps parotitis, which typically affects younger patients, presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Unlike left submandibular gland infection, pus is not seen draining into the floor of the mouth.
In summary, differentiating left submandibular gland infection from other similar conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and a facial rash and is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Her rheumatologist initiates treatment with hydroxychloroquine. What is the most crucial parameter to monitor during her treatment?
Your Answer: QT interval on ECG
Correct Answer: Visual acuity
Explanation:The use of hydroxychloroquine can lead to a serious and irreversible retinopathy.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the primary mode of operation of Nexplanon (etonogestrel contraceptive implant)?
Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The primary way in which Nexplanon works is by preventing ovulation.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is being evaluated after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during his recent hospitalization. He has a history of mitral stenosis and takes ramipril for hypertension. He was started on warfarin during his admission and was discharged with plans for follow-up in the cardiology clinic. However, he is now found to be in sinus rhythm during his current review. What is the appropriate course of action regarding anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Continue warfarin for 1 month
Correct Answer: Continue lifelong warfarin
Explanation:Warfarin should be continued indefinitely due to the patient’s risk factors for stroke and history of atrial fibrillation. It is preferred over direct oral anticoagulants due to his valvular heart disease.
NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 16
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from diarrhoea and frequent respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 72 mmol/l.
Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Genetic Inheritance Patterns and Examples of Associated Conditions
Autosomal Recessive:
Autosomal recessive inheritance occurs when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. The affected individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to develop the condition. Cystic fibrosis is an example of an autosomal recessive condition.Autosomal Dominant:
Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when an individual inherits one copy of a mutated gene from one parent. The affected individual only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene to develop the condition. Marfan syndrome and familial hypercholesterolaemia are examples of autosomal dominant conditions.Chromosomal Non-Disjunction:
Chromosomal non-disjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or when chromatids fail to separate during mitosis. This results in daughter cells having either two chromosomes/chromatids or none. Down syndrome is an example of a condition resulting from chromosomal non-disjunction.Chromosomal Translocation:
Chromosomal translocation occurs when two non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts, causing fusion chromosomes. Chronic myelogenous leukaemia is an example of a condition resulting from chromosomal translocation.Sex-Linked:
Sex-linked inheritance occurs when a mutated gene is located on the X or Y chromosome. As a result, the condition is more common in one sex than the other. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, red-green colour blindness, and haemophilia are examples of sex-linked conditions.Conclusion:
Understanding genetic inheritance patterns is important in diagnosing and managing genetic conditions. Genetic counselling can also be helpful in providing information about the risk of passing on a genetic condition to offspring. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is referred by her General Practitioner due to irregular and unpredictable menstrual cycle and headaches. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows a midline lesion. Further investigations reveal that her prolactin level is 2314 ng/ml (normal range: 2â29 ng/ml). To reduce the prolactin level, which mediator is manipulated for medical treatment?
Your Answer: Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Targeting Hormones in Prolactinoma Treatment
Prolactinoma is a pituitary lesion that results in excessive prolactin secretion. To reduce prolactin levels, dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are used to target dopamine receptors in the anterior pituitary. While increased prolactin can indirectly decrease gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secretion, GnRH receptors are not a therapeutic target in prolactin disorders. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) increases adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion and is not a target in prolactin disorders. Somatostatin decreases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and growth hormone secretion but does not affect prolactin levels. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) increases prolactin and TSH release, but its use is limited due to side-effects on thyroid regulation and the superiority of dopamine agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to surgery by her father. For the past 3 months she has been complaining of pain in her shins and ankles at night-time. Her symptoms are bilateral and she is otherwise healthy. There is no significant family history. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Growing pains
Explanation:Understanding Growing Pains in Children
Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs with no obvious cause.
One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.
Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with rapidly worsening testicular pain, redness, and swelling. Upon initial assessment, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.1ÂșC, heart rate of 104 bpm, respiratory rate of 16/min, oxygen saturations of 97% on room air, and a blood pressure of 106/91 mmHg. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, heart failure, osteoarthritis, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which medication is most likely responsible for his current presentation?
Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Correct Answer: Dapagliflozin
Explanation:SGLT-2 inhibitors, such as dapaglifozin, have been linked to a severe and rapidly progressing infection called necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene. This condition is caused by bacterial flora and is more common in diabetic and immunocompromised patients. It can lead to multiple organ failure and sepsis, making early surgical debridement and antibiotics crucial for management. It is important to note that Fournier’s gangrene is a serious adverse effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors, while the other options presented in the question are not associated with this condition.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the action of a protein called sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) in the kidneys. This results in a decrease in the amount of glucose that is reabsorbed by the body and an increase in the amount of glucose that is excreted in the urine. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
While SGLT-2 inhibitors can be effective in treating type 2 diabetes mellitus, they can also have some important adverse effects. One of the most common side effects is an increased risk of urinary and genital infections, which can occur due to the increased amount of glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported in some cases.
Another potential complication of SGLT-2 inhibitors is normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition in which the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. This can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition if left untreated. Additionally, there is an increased risk of lower-limb amputation in patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors, so it is important to closely monitor the feet for any signs of injury or infection.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have some positive effects on overall health. Many patients taking these medications experience weight loss, which can be beneficial in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and risks of SGLT-2 inhibitors with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's front is tender and swollen to touch. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. Her blood results show a TSH level of 12.3 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 4.2 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)
Explanation:Subacute thyroiditis can be differentiated from Hashimoto’s thyroiditis as a cause of hypothyroidism by the presence of tenderness in the thyroid gland. The symptoms are indicative of hypothyroidism, which is confirmed by elevated TSH levels and low T4 levels in the thyroid function tests. The occurrence of a painful goitre points towards subacute thyroiditis as the most probable diagnosis. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, leads to hyperthyroidism and not hypothyroidism. Although Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause hypothyroidism, it is typically painless. Riedel thyroiditis can cause hypothyroidism and may be painful, but it is less likely than subacute thyroiditis.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 21
Correct
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A 75-year-old man is prescribed oral alendronate after a hip fracture. Can you provide instructions on how to take the tablet?
Your Answer: Take at least 30 minutes before breakfast with plenty of water + sit-upright for 30 minutes following
Explanation:Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient presents with jaundice and an enlarged, nodular liver. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass, and CT-guided biopsy of the mass confirms a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells. Which virus is most likely directly related to the development of this tumour?
Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:Viral Infections and Their Link to Cancer
Hepatitis B, Epstein-Barr, human herpesvirus type 8, and human papillomavirus are all viral infections that have been linked to the development of cancer. Hepatitis B, for example, can lead to cirrhosis and ultimately hepatocellular carcinoma. Similarly, EBV has been associated with various malignancies, including lymphoproliferative disorders and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. HPV, on the other hand, is a common cause of genital warts and cervical cancer. It is important to recognize the early signs of these viral infections in order to prevent the development of cancer and improve prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old known to be HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. What is the probable cause of his diarrhoea?
Your Answer: Histoplasmosis
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Patients with HIV infection commonly experience diarrhoea as a result of Cryptosporidium, while respiratory infection may be caused by Histoplasmosis.
Diarrhoea in HIV Patients: Causes and Management
Diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by patients with HIV. It can be caused by the virus itself, known as HIV enteritis, or by opportunistic infections. The most common infective cause of diarrhoea in HIV patients is Cryptosporidium, an intracellular protozoa with an incubation period of 7 days. Symptoms can range from mild to severe diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the stool. Unfortunately, treatment is difficult, and supportive therapy is the mainstay of management.
Other possible causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients include Cytomegalovirus, Mycobacterium avium intracellulare, and Giardia. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare is an atypical mycobacteria that is typically seen when the CD4 count is below 50. Symptoms include fever, sweats, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through blood cultures and bone marrow examination. Management involves the use of rifabutin, ethambutol, and clarithromycin.
In summary, diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by HIV patients, and it can be caused by a variety of opportunistic infections. While treatment can be difficult, supportive therapy can help manage symptoms. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients and to work with their patients to develop an appropriate management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old overweight man visits the clinic with concerns about abdominal discomfort he experienced over the weekend. He reports that the discomfort began in his upper abdomen shortly after eating a large pizza on Friday night. The discomfort then shifted to the left side of his abdomen. He also vomited a few times. Most of the symptoms subsided within 24 hours. During the examination, he is still slightly tender in the left upper quadrant and has no fever or jaundice.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: Biliary colic
Explanation:Biliary colic is a common symptom of gallstones, occurring in 1-4% of patients with choledocholithiasis. The pain is intense and dull, usually resolving within 30-90 minutes, and often occurs after consuming fatty meals. This matches the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. If left untreated, biliary colic can progress to acute cholecystitis, which presents with upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. However, since the patient’s symptoms resolved within 24 hours, acute cholecystitis is unlikely. Acute viral hepatitis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as the patient has no known exposure to the viruses and her symptoms resolved too quickly. Acute pancreatitis presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever, which does not match the patient’s symptoms. Ascending cholangitis is also unlikely, as the patient is afebrile and not jaundiced, and her symptoms resolved within 24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to you after experiencing his first TIA. He states that he is typically in good health and was surprised to learn that he had suffered a 'mini stroke.' He is eager to resume his normal daily routine and is curious about when he can safely operate his vehicle once more.
What guidance would you offer him?Your Answer: Must inform DVLA immediately and have a medical assessment before a decision is made as to whether she can continue driving
Correct Answer: Can start driving if symptom free after 1 month - no need to inform the DVLA
Explanation:Group 1 drivers do not need to inform the DVLA and can resume driving after being symptom-free for one month following a single TIA.
The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 76-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. He reports not having had a bowel movement or passed gas in the past 48 hours. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has experienced constipation and weight loss in recent weeks. After a CT scan, a mass is discovered in the hepatic flexure, leading the medical team to suspect a large bowel obstruction caused by cancer. What is the most suitable surgical treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Right hemicolectomy
Explanation:The appropriate surgical procedure for a patient with caecal, ascending or proximal transverse colon cancer is a right hemicolectomy. This involves removing the cecum, ascending colon, and proximal third of the transverse colon. If the cancer is located at the hepatic flexure, an extended right hemicolectomy may be necessary. Hartmann’s procedure is reserved for emergencies such as bowel obstruction or perforation and involves complete resection of the rectum and sigmoid colon with the formation of an end colostomy. A high anterior resection is used for upper rectal tumors, while a left hemicolectomy is used for distal two-thirds of the transverse colon and descending colon tumors. A low anterior resection is used for low rectal tumors, but none of these procedures are appropriate for a patient with a mass in the hepatic flexure.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 27
Correct
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A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung cancer and a potassium (K+) level of 6.1 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5â5.0 mmol/l). The lab report indicates that there was a delay in processing this sample. His last K+ level recorded two days ago was 4.2 mmol/l. An electrocardiogram (ECG), urine output and observations all provide normal results.
What is the most appropriate initial step in this patientâs management?Your Answer: Repeat sample immediately
Explanation:Management of Suspected Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where hyperkalaemia is suspected, it is important to verify whether the elevated potassium levels are due to true hyperkalaemia or an erroneous result. This can be caused by a delay in sample processing, venepuncture technique, or haemolysis of the blood sample.
If hyperkalaemia is confirmed, treatment should be initiated without delay. Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride may be given to protect the myocardium in cases of severe hyperkalaemia. Insulin and dextrose are usually given to drive potassium into the cells.
However, before prescribing any medications, it is crucial to repeat the sample immediately to confirm the diagnosis of true hyperkalaemia. Delaying treatment may lead to fatal arrhythmia. Therefore, it is essential to manage suspected hyperkalaemia with urgency and accuracy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive decline over the past 10 months. His wife reports that he is struggling with basic tasks and becoming increasingly forgetful and confused. She has also noticed a change in his personality, including more frequent swearing and inappropriate behavior such as answering the door naked. Interestingly, his mother had a similar reputation in her later years. The patient reports smoking 20 cigarettes per day and drinking one glass of wine each evening. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from frontotemporal dementia, which is also known as Pick’s disease. This type of dementia is characterized by a change in personality and social disinhibition, and it often has a positive family history. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically presents with a decline in episodic memory and visuospatial awareness, while Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating confusion and hallucinations. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare condition that causes rapid neurodegeneration and may present with cognitive decline and personality changes, as well as additional symptoms such as abnormal movements and loss of coordination.
Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia. Common features of frontotemporal lobar dementias include onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems.
Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease. Macroscopic changes seen in Pick’s disease include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. Microscopic changes include Pick bodies, spherical aggregations of tau protein (silver-staining), gliosis, neurofibrillary tangles, and senile plaques.
In contrast, CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, with short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.
In terms of management, NICE does not recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ÂșC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a routine medical check-up. The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and high cholesterol but is otherwise healthy and medically capable. The aneurysm was infra-renal and had a diameter of 4.9 cm.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan every three months
Explanation:Screening and Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are screened for initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened as AAA is predominantly found in men.
If the initial scan shows an AAA of less than 3 cm, patients are discharged. If it is between 3 and 4.4 cm, they are invited back for yearly screening. If it is between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, patients receive an ultrasound scan every three months. If the aneurysm is above 5.5 cm, patients are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration for repair.
Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly, as clinical trials have shown that the risk of rupture is increased when the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm. Immediate surgery is only performed on those aneurysms that are leaking or ruptured.
Surveillance is required to ensure the aneurysm remains below 5.5 cm. Patients with an aneurysm over 4.5 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months. Once the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm, patients are referred for consideration of elective surgery.
Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Screening and Treatment Guidelines
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious health concern that require careful management. This article outlines the screening and treatment guidelines for AAAs.
Screening for AAAs is done initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened. Patients with an AAA less than 3 cm are discharged, while those with an AAA between 3 and 4.4 cm are invited back for yearly screening. Patients with an AAA between 4.5 and 5.4 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months, while those with an AAA over 5.5 cm are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration of elective surgery.
Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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