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Question 1
Correct
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You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has been experiencing headaches. What is the most characteristic feature of migraines?
Your Answer: Phonophobia
Explanation:Phonophobia is present in approximately 75% of patients.
Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of dementia. His neighbors are becoming worried about his behavior as they frequently observe him wandering outside in a seemingly disoriented state. You believe he may require a care package or residential care, but he adamantly refuses to consider such an option. Which legal framework is the most suitable for addressing this matter?
Your Answer: Mental Capacity Act
Explanation:The most appropriate legal framework to use for non-mental health disorders is the Mental Capacity Act. This act, which was established in 2005 and implemented in 2007, applies to individuals over the age of 16 and outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity encompasses the ability to make decisions regarding daily life, healthcare, and financial matters.
The Mental Capacity Act is based on five key principles. Firstly, a person is assumed to have capacity unless it is proven otherwise. Secondly, a person should not be considered unable to make a decision unless all possible steps have been taken to assist them in doing so. Thirdly, a person should not be deemed incapable of making a decision simply because they make an unwise choice. Fourthly, any action or decision made on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be in their best interests. Finally, before any action or decision is taken, consideration must be given to whether there is a less restrictive way to achieve the desired outcome that respects the person’s rights and freedom.
When patients lack capacity, they are typically treated without issue. However, problems arise when these patients refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest. In such cases, there are three frameworks that can be used: common law for emergency scenarios, the Mental Capacity Act for physical disorders affecting brain function, and the Mental Health Act for mental disorders. For patients already admitted to hospital, a section 5(2) may be used if there is not enough time for a more formal section 2 or 3. An example of this would be a patient with a mental health disorder attempting to discharge themselves, which could result in harm. For a more detailed review, the BMJ article When and how to treat patients who refuse treatment provides an excellent resource.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes.
Based on the probable diagnosis, what advice would you give the patient to prevent future episodes?Your Answer: Stress
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl who is in good health is placed in foster care. There is no known medical history of any significant illnesses in her biological family.
What can be said about her situation?Your Answer: He will require 6-monthly medical examinations by a doctor
Explanation:All children who are in long-term foster care must undergo a medical examination every six months. This is a legal requirement. It is important to note that once a child reaches the age of five, a yearly examination is sufficient. The Fostering Services 2002 Regulation 6 and Review of Children’s Cases Regulations 1991 state that the responsible authority must arrange for the child to receive a health assessment by a registered medical practitioner or registered nurse under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner. The assessment must be carried out at least once every six months before the child’s fifth birthday and at least once every twelve months after the child’s fifth birthday, unless the child refuses the assessment and is of sufficient understanding. It is important to follow these regulations to ensure the health and well-being of children in foster care.
Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old white male is diagnosed with hypertension.
He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history. His ECG is normal, he has no microalbuminuria, and clinical examination is otherwise unremarkable.
Assuming there are no contraindications, place the following in the correct order in which they should be initiated to manage his high blood pressure:
A ACE-inhibitor
B Calcium channel blocker
C Thiazide-like diuretic
D Alpha blockerYour Answer: A B C D
Correct Answer: C A B D
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Treatment
There are established guidelines published by NICE for managing high blood pressure. The guidelines outline a stepwise approach to pharmacological treatment. For patients under 55 years old and not of black African or Caribbean ethnic origin, the first-line treatment is an ACE inhibitor or a low-cost angiotensin receptor II antagonist. If additional treatment is needed, a calcium-channel blocker should be added, followed by a thiazide-like diuretic. If a fourth agent is required, options include a further diuretic, an alpha-blocker, or a beta-blocker. Spironolactone can be used if the patient’s potassium level is 4.5 mmol/L or less. If not, an alpha- or beta-blocker can be considered.
For patients of black African or Caribbean ethnic origin of any age (and all those over 55), the first-line antihypertensive treatment is a calcium-channel blocker. If the calcium-channel blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, then a thiazide-like diuretic would be first-line. If additional treatment is required, an ACE-inhibitor (or a low-cost angiotensin receptor II antagonist) should be added, followed by a thiazide-like diuretic. If necessary, a further diuretic (spironolactone), an alpha-blocker, or a beta-blocker can be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A research study examines the advantages of incorporating a new antiplatelet medication with aspirin after a heart attack in patients over the age of 60. The study yields the following outcomes:
Percentage of patients experiencing
another heart attack within 3 months
Aspirin 5%
Aspirin + new drug 3%
What is the number needed to treat to prevent one patient over the age of 60 from having another heart attack within 3 months?Your Answer: 100
Explanation:The formula for NNT is the reciprocal of the absolute risk reduction or the difference between the control event rate and the experimental event rate. For example, if the control event rate is 0.04 and the experimental event rate is 0.03, the NNT would be 1 divided by 0.01.
Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 8
Correct
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A 78-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a sudden cough that has lasted for four days and a dry throat. She feels sick but has no fever. Her lung examination is normal. Which of the following is not a reason to prescribe antibiotics immediately?
Your Answer: Hoarseness and/or laryngitis accompanying the cough
Explanation:Factors to Consider When Prescribing Antibiotics for Respiratory Infections
When considering prescribing antibiotics for respiratory infections, it is important to take into account various risk factors that may increase the likelihood of complications. While antibiotics may be necessary in some cases, their use should be weighed against potential adverse effects and the development of antibiotic-resistance patterns.
One factor to consider is hoarseness and/or laryngitis accompanying the cough. In most cases, laryngitis is mild and self-limiting, and antibiotics may not be necessary. However, they may be considered in patients with persistent symptoms.
Another factor to consider is a history of congestive cardiac failure. For patients between 65 and 79 years, two risk factors should be present before prescribing antibiotics.
Current use of oral glucocorticoids is also a risk factor, as these patients are immunosuppressed and may be more susceptible to complications from respiratory infections.
Diabetes and hospitalization in the previous year are also risk factors for complications and should be taken into account when considering antibiotic prescriptions.
Overall, it is important to carefully evaluate each patient’s individual risk factors before deciding whether antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of respiratory infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman returns home from the hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Postpartum depression
Correct Answer: Postpartum blues
Explanation:Postpartum Mental Health Conditions: Understanding the Differences
Postpartum mental health conditions can affect women after giving birth. It is important to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate care and support.
Postpartum blues is a common and short-lived condition that occurs in the first week after delivery. Symptoms include irritability, crying, depression, and emotional lability. Reassurance and explanation are usually enough to resolve this condition.
Major depression is not suggested in the vignette and there is no indication of an ongoing depressive illness.
Generalised anxiety disorder requires symptoms to be present for at least six months, which is not the case in this scenario.
Postpartum depression is more persistent and debilitating than postpartum blues. It can interfere with the mother’s ability to care for herself or her child and typically develops over the first three months after delivery.
Postpartum psychosis has a dramatic onset within the first two weeks after delivery. Symptoms include restlessness, insomnia, irritability, rapidly shifting mood, and disorganized behavior. Delusional beliefs or auditory hallucinations may instruct the mother to harm herself or her infant.
Understanding the differences between these conditions can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for women experiencing postpartum mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 30-year-old female who is being investigated for secondary amenorrhoea comes in with yellowing of the eyes. During the examination, spider naevi are observed, and the liver is tender and enlarged. The following blood tests are conducted:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 11.6 g/dl
- Platelets (Plt): 145 * 109/l
- White blood cell count (WCC): 6.4 * 109/l
- Albumin: 33 g/l
- Bilirubin: 78 µmol/l
- Alanine transaminase (ALT): 245 iu/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Explanation:When a young female experiences both abnormal liver function tests and a lack of menstrual periods, it is highly indicative of autoimmune hepatitis.
Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition that affects young females and has an unknown cause. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, hypergammaglobulinaemia, and HLA B8, DR3. There are three types of autoimmune hepatitis, which are classified based on the types of circulating antibodies present. Type I affects both adults and children and is characterized by the presence of Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA). Type II affects children only and is characterized by the presence of anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1). Type III affects adults in middle-age and is characterized by the presence of soluble liver-kidney antigen.
The symptoms of autoimmune hepatitis may include signs of chronic liver disease, acute hepatitis (which only 25% of patients present with), amenorrhoea (which is common), the presence of ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels, and liver biopsy showing inflammation extending beyond the limiting plate ‘piecemeal necrosis’ and bridging necrosis. The management of autoimmune hepatitis involves the use of steroids and other immunosuppressants such as azathioprine. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has just failed her medical for a career as a graphic designer because of previously undiagnosed red-green colour blindness. She has been told that she has inherited this from her parents and feels that it is their fault that she has been barred from her chosen career.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the cause of red-green colour blindness?Your Answer: Red-green colour blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait
Explanation:Understanding Red-Green Colour Blindness: Causes, Prevalence, and Implications for Driving and Employment
Red-green colour blindness is the most common type of colour vision deficiency, affecting 8% of men and 0.4% of women. This condition is usually congenital and inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. While less common forms of colour blindness are acquired and associated with macular disease, red-green colour blindness is often present from birth.
To assess red-green colour vision, Ishihara plates are commonly used as a screening tool. It is important to test colour vision in suspected optic nerve lesions and thyroid eye disease, as colour vision can be affected before visual acuity is impacted.
While the DVLA need not be informed of red-green colour blindness, certain occupations may exclude individuals with this condition. However, driving is generally not limited as traffic lights can be distinguished by their position.
Understanding the causes, prevalence, and implications of red-green colour blindness is important for individuals with this condition and their healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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An 81-year-old man with a history of hypertension controlled with bendroflumethiazide presents with 3 months of weakness in his hands, which has deteriorated to the point where he has to hold a cup of tea with two hands. On examination he has wasting and fasciculation of his hands but no sensory symptoms. His tongue appears wasted and fasciculates. He chokes on occasions when swallowing fluids.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: Symptoms and Presentations
Motor Neurone Disease, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, Myasthenia Gravis, and Parkinson’s Disease are all neurological disorders that present with different symptoms and modes of onset.
Motor Neurone Disease typically presents with minor symptoms in the hands and limbs, with no sensory symptoms and unaffected eyes. Upper and motor neurone signs are seen, and bulbar signs are present in 20% of patients.
Guillain-Barré Syndrome presents acutely with symmetrical weakness that starts in the lower extremities and ascends progressively. Sensory symptoms also start in the lower extremities.
Multiple Sclerosis can follow a relapsing remitting or progressive course, with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs. Objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of multiple sclerosis is necessary for diagnosis, as is the exclusion of other explanations for the clinical features.
Myasthenia Gravis presents with varying degrees of weakness in muscle groups, with muscles tending to fatigue after exercise. Ptosis and diplopia are often the first symptoms.
Parkinson’s Disease is a movement disorder characterised by tremor at rest, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
In summary, each neurological disorder has its own unique symptoms and presentations, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents with acute onset vertigo which started yesterday and has persisted.
The presence of which of the following features would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of labyrinthitis rather than vestibular neuronitis?Your Answer: Preceding upper respiratory tract infection
Correct Answer: Unsteadiness
Explanation:Understanding the Difference between Vestibular Neuronitis and Labyrinthitis
Vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis are two conditions that can cause vertigo, but they have different underlying causes and symptoms. Vestibular neuronitis is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, while labyrinthitis is caused by inflammation of the labyrinth. Both conditions often develop after a viral infection and can cause acute onset, spontaneous, prolonged vertigo.
The key difference between the two conditions is that labyrinthitis also causes hearing loss and tinnitus, while hearing is unaffected in vestibular neuronitis and tinnitus doesn’t occur. It is important to differentiate between the two conditions because the treatment and management may differ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 14
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to see you asking for a prescription for the contraceptive pill. She attends alone and tells you that she has had a boyfriend for the last few months and they have recently started having sexual intercourse. He is the same age as she is and up until now they have used condoms but she is worried about becoming pregnant as a friend of hers recently became pregnant by accident and had a termination.
You discuss things in detail and she says that she is going to continue to be sexually active but doesn't want to get pregnant. She tells you that her parents do not know that she has a boyfriend or that she is sexually active. She cannot be persuaded to tell her parents and doesn't consent to your discussing things with them. You discuss the implications of having sex and also methods of contraception and she understands and retains your advice.
What is the most appropriate management in this situation?Your Answer: Prescribe contraception and arrange follow up
Explanation:Fraser Guidelines for Young People’s Competence to Consent to Contraceptive Advice or Treatment
The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for healthcare professionals to determine whether a young person is competent to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment.
According to the guidelines, a young person is considered competent if they understand the doctor’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or allow the doctor to inform the parents, are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, their physical or mental health (or both) are likely to deteriorate if contraceptive advice/treatment is not given, and their best interests require the doctor to give advice/treatment without parental consent.
It is important to follow these guidelines as failure to provide contraceptive advice or treatment can put young people at risk of physical and mental harm, including unwanted pregnancies. In the UK, statistics suggest that about 30-40% of young people have had sexual intercourse by the time they are 16. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to assess young people’s competence to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:
Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.
Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.
Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.
Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.
Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are seeing an elderly patient with advanced gastric cancer at home who has called you due to persistent vomiting. The patient is receiving palliative care.
The patient reports persistent large volume vomiting with little preceding nausea, frequent hiccups, early satiety, and acid reflux. The patient also reports that vomiting provides relief.
Which antiemetic medication would be the most appropriate to prescribe?Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Treatment options for gastric stasis in palliative care
Gastric stasis can cause distressing symptoms such as large volume vomiting, acid reflux, hiccoughs, and early satiety. In palliative care, the use of metoclopramide is advised despite restrictions issued by the European Medicines Agency. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing prokinetic drugs with antimuscarinic activity. Haloperidol is effective in treating nausea and vomiting caused by chemical imbalances, while cyclizine is indicated for patients with cerebral disease, motion sickness, and nausea due to mechanical bowel obstruction. Levopromazine is a broad-spectrum antiemetic that can be used when first-line treatments fail. Ondansetron, a 5-HT3 antagonist, is commonly used to treat emetogenic chemotherapy. By understanding the various treatment options available, healthcare professionals can provide effective symptom management for patients with gastric stasis in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 17
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had visited the emergency department 3 days ago but was only given advice. He has been experiencing ear pain for 5 days now.
During the examination, his temperature is recorded at 38.5ºC, and his right eardrum appears red and bulging. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Start amoxicillin
Explanation:To improve treatment without antibiotics, guidelines suggest waiting 2-3 days before considering treatment if symptoms do not improve. This is especially important when a patient has a fever, indicating systemic involvement. Therefore, recommending regular paracetamol is not appropriate in this case.
While erythromycin is a useful alternative for patients with a penicillin allergy, it should not be the first choice for those who can take penicillin. It is particularly useful as a syrup for children due to its lower cost compared to other alternatives.
Penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for tonsillitis, as amoxicillin can cause a rash in cases of glandular fever. However, it is not typically used for otitis media.
For otitis media, amoxicillin is the recommended first-line medication at a dosage of 500mg three times a day for seven days.
Co-amoxiclav is only used as a second-line option if amoxicillin is ineffective and is not typically used as a first-line treatment according to current guidelines.
References: NICE Guidelines, Clinical Knowledge Summaries
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the true statement regarding falls in the elderly from the given list?
Your Answer: The majority of falls in the elderly are due to cardiovascular disease or drugs
Correct Answer: 50% of people over the age of 80 have had a fall in the previous 12 months
Explanation:Understanding the Causes and Risks of Falls in the Elderly
As people age, the risk of falling increases significantly. In fact, around 30% of those over 60 years old experience a fall each year, with this number rising to 50% for those over 80. While simple trips account for 50% of falls, 30% are idiopathic, meaning the cause is unknown. However, dizziness, cardiovascular issues, and drug use can also contribute to falls.
Neurological diseases like Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s, as well as previous cerebrovascular disease, are common causes of falls in those who have these conditions. Even patients in stroke rehabilitation wards have a high risk of falling, with up to 50% experiencing a fall. Unfortunately, falls often result in injury, with up to 70% causing harm and 10% resulting in fractures.
Interestingly, female sex is a risk factor for falls, and certain medications like hypnotics, antidepressants, blood pressure-lowering drugs, and anticonvulsants have been linked to a higher risk of falling. By understanding the causes and risks of falls in the elderly, we can take steps to prevent them and keep our loved ones safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to depression caused by multiple miscarriages. She is not ready to return to work and asks her doctor to extend her sick leave. What is the maximum duration that her doctor can sign her off for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Fit notes are limited to a maximum of 3 months per form during the initial issuance.
The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes
The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.
It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.
Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A Health Visitor has requested a review of a 9-month-old girl who is not reaching out for objects. The mother reports that the child is able to sit with support and has started to crawl.
Which is the single most appropriate initial intervention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to Paediatrics
Explanation:Referral and Support for Children with Developmental Delays
Children who present with delays in their development require a thorough assessment to identify the underlying cause. In cases where delays are observed in one area, such as fine motor development, a full developmental assessment with a Paediatrician is recommended. The Paediatrician can then refer the child to other services, such as Physiotherapy, Audiology, and Speech and Language Therapy, as needed.
Concerns regarding hearing, speech, and language development should prompt a referral to Audiology. While congenital hearing problems are usually detected via newborn screening tests, it is important to consider hearing loss in children presenting with developmental concerns.
Offering reassurance is not always sufficient, especially if a child is unable to reach out for objects by six months. In such cases, further assessment is necessary.
Health Visitors play a crucial role in monitoring children with developmental concerns and offering support to parents. Parents can contact the Health Visiting service directly without a referral from primary care.
Physiotherapy can be helpful in children presenting with delays in gross motor development. However, for children with concerns regarding fine motor development, a review by a Paediatrician is necessary before considering a referral to Physiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. His parents brought him to the doctor after noticing he was restricting his food intake and losing weight. What type of treatment is typically recommended for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Family based therapy
Explanation:The primary treatment for anorexia nervosa in children and adolescents is family therapy that specifically targets anorexia.
Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.
The diagnosis of anorexia nervosa is based on the DSM 5 criteria, which no longer specifically mention BMI and amenorrhoea. Instead, the criteria focus on the restriction of energy intake, fear of gaining weight, and disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is experienced.
The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.
Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A mother brings a 7-week-old girl to the practice for a routine 6–8-week physical examination.
Which is the SINGLE option that would normally be carried out at that examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auscultation of the heart
Explanation:Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns
Newborns undergo several tests to ensure their health and development. These tests include auscultation of the heart, examination for developmental dysplasia of the hip, congenital cataracts, and undescended testicles. However, some heart murmurs may not be detected until the ductus arteriosus closes early in life. A hearing test, specifically the automated otoacoustic emission test, is often performed before discharge from the hospital or during the first 4-5 weeks of life. The cover test for squint is not usually done during the newborn stage as it requires the child to fixate on an object held away from the eyes. Blood-spot screening for conditions such as congenital hypothyroidism, phenylketonuria, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell disease is ideally carried out at five days. A urine test is a diagnostic test rather than a screening test at this age and is usually done if a urinary infection is suspected.
Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A recently published meta-analysis on the prevalence of interstitial lung disease in elderly patients with a history of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) is discussed at a geriatric medicine conference that you attend. The speaker suggests that there may be a publication bias affecting the results.
What statistical method, graph or examination would be the most effective in exploring the speaker's hypothesis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Funnel plot
Explanation:A funnel plot is the correct tool to use when evaluating meta-analyses for publication bias. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis, with an asymmetrical funnel indicating the presence of publication bias or small study effects. In contrast, a box and whisker plot is not an appropriate test for publication bias, as it primarily displays quartiles, median, and variability. Similarly, the chi-square test and Kruskal-Wallis test are not suitable for investigating publication bias, as they are designed to evaluate binary outcomes and compare means of independent groups, respectively.
Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses
Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).
In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his father. His father reports that he has been eating less and refusing food for the past few weeks. Despite this his father has noticed that his abdomen is distended and he has developed a 'beer belly'. For the past year he has opened his bowels around once every other day, passing a stool of 'normal' consistency. There are no urinary symptoms. On examination he is on the 50th centile for height and weight. His abdomen is soft but slightly distended and a non-tender ballotable mass can be felt on the left side. His father has tried lactulose but there has no significant improvement. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Speak to a local paediatrician
Explanation:The evidence for the history of constipation is not very compelling. It is considered normal for a child to have a bowel movement of normal consistency every other day. However, the crucial aspect of this situation is identifying the abnormal examination finding – a palpable mass accompanied by abdominal distension. While an adult with such a red flag symptom would be expedited, it is more appropriate to consult with a pediatrician to determine the most appropriate referral pathway, which would likely involve a clinic review within the same week.
Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.
If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.
Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A professional man aged 55, previously healthy, is constantly consumed by the fear that he has bowel cancer, despite being reassured that all investigations have come back negative. He acknowledges that the tests have shown no signs of disease, but he cannot shake the worry that he may have cancer. He has lost his appetite and spends most of his time at home since being laid off from work. He drinks 5-6 glasses of wine daily and has confided in his wife that he is contemplating suicide.
Which statement accurately describes his situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He is likely to have a rapid improvement on chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Understanding the Mental Health Condition of a Redundant Middle-Aged Man
This man is likely experiencing depression due to being made redundant in mid-life. His fear of bowel cancer is a manifestation of hypochondriasis, which is a somatoform disorder. However, it is distinct from somatisation, although there can be overlap. Additionally, he is exhibiting heavy alcohol consumption as a symptom of his condition.
Given his expressed suicidal thoughts, tricyclics should be avoided. Instead, citalopram is recommended due to its more benign toxicity profile. While cognitive therapy may be helpful, it is unlikely to lead to complete resolution of his condition given the nature of his symptoms. It is important to understand the complexity of his mental health condition and provide appropriate support and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are tasked with creating a study to determine if living in close proximity to electricity pylons is a risk factor for adolescent leukemia. What study design would be most suitable for this investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:A case-control study is used to compare a group of individuals with a particular disease to a group without the disease. The study examines their past exposure to a potential causal agent for the condition. This approach is preferred over a cohort study as childhood leukemia is a rare outcome, and a cohort study would require an extensive amount of time to yield significant results.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old lady presents to you with a six week history of bilateral breast pain. She has no significant medical history. She has had two normal vaginal deliveries and breastfed each baby. She reports losing around 20 pounds through a strict diet and exercise routine in the past six months.
During the examination, you note that her BMI is 20 kg/m2 and there is erythema and indentation of the skin adjacent to the underwiring of her bra. Her breasts appear normal and there is no palpable lymphadenopathy.
The patient denies smoking or drinking. Her grandfather passed away from lung cancer and her mother has asthma.
What would be your next steps?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest a better fitting bra and reassess if the pain persists
Explanation:Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Breast Cancer
Current NICE guidelines focus on symptoms and signs of breast cancer in individuals aged 30 and over. Referral for an appointment within two weeks is recommended for those with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or for those aged 50 and over with nipple discharge, retraction, or other changes of concern. Non-urgent referral may be considered for those under 30 with an unexplained breast lump. However, in cases where the cause of the problem may be an ill-fitting bra, conservative management is recommended. Topical NSAIDs may be given for symptom relief, but evening primrose oil has no evidence to support its use for cyclical mastalgia. Re-examination should be considered if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about depression in individuals below 18 years of age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is good evidence for the efficacy of SSRIs in the treatment of moderate to severe depression in the under 8s
Explanation:Treatment options for deliberate self-harming in adolescents
SSRIs and tricyclics are not recommended for the treatment of deliberate self-harming in adolescents. The Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) advises that the balance of risks and benefits for the use of SSRIs in individuals under 18 years is unfavorable. Fluoxetine has shown some benefit, but there are concerns regarding an increased risk of self-harm and suicidal thoughts. Therefore, counselling with family therapy is the preferred option for treating deliberate self-harming in adolescents. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of any treatment option and to work closely with healthcare professionals to determine the best course of action for each individual case. By prioritizing the mental health and well-being of adolescents, we can help prevent and manage deliberate self-harming behaviors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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When starting contraception at any time in a teenage girl's menstrual cycle, a clinician should be fairly certain that she is not pregnant.
Which of the following statements would allow a health professional to be reasonably certain that a teenage girl is not currently pregnant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She is eight weeks postpartum and bottle feeding
Explanation:Criteria for Exclusion of Pregnancy
Health professionals can confidently exclude pregnancy in women if certain criteria are met. These include not having had intercourse since the last normal menstrual period, consistent use of reliable contraception, being within the first seven days of a normal menstrual period, being within four weeks postpartum for non-lactating women, being within the first seven days post-abortion or miscarriage, or being fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than six months postpartum.
While a pregnancy test can provide additional confirmation, it should only be carried out at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. If a woman is at risk of pregnancy due to recent unprotected intercourse, a pregnancy test should be considered within the first seven days. By following these guidelines, health professionals can accurately exclude pregnancy and provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern about her facial acne. She has a combination of comedones and pustules, but no significant scarring. Despite using a topical retinoid, she is hesitant to try another oral antibiotic after experiencing no improvement with three months of lymecycline. She has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, her blood pressure is normal, and her cervical screening is up to date. She is interested in exploring hormonal treatments for her acne. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microgynon
Explanation:When treating moderate acne that doesn’t respond to topical treatments, it may be appropriate to add an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline for up to three months. If there is no improvement, the acne worsens, or the patient cannot tolerate side effects, a different antibiotic can be tried. However, if the patient doesn’t want to try a different antibiotic, combined oral contraceptives can be considered as long as there are no contraindications. Second or third-generation combined oral contraceptives are typically preferred, such as Microgynon. It is important to note that Cerelle, a progesterone-only contraceptive, can worsen acne due to its androgenic activity. Dianette (co-cyprindiol) is a second-line contraceptive option for moderate to severe acne, but it comes with an increased risk of VTE and should only be used after careful discussion of the risks and benefits with the patient. It should be discontinued three months after acne has been controlled. Similarly, Cerazette is not a suitable option due to its androgenic activity.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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