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Question 1
Incorrect
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Fatima is a healthy 6-year-old girl who visits your clinic with her mother. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past few months. Fatima is feeling anxious because she is going on a sleepover at her friend's house next week and is worried about wetting the bed. She asks if there is anything that can help her avoid bedwetting.
What treatment options would you suggest for Fatima's nocturnal enuresis? Should she restrict fluids or try Desmopressin? Would an enuresis alarm be appropriate for her age?Your Answer: Recommend a trial of Duloxetine
Correct Answer: Suggest Desmopressin and fluid restriction
Explanation:Desmopressin is a viable option for managing enuresis in the short term, particularly in children aged 7 and above. However, its effectiveness in younger children is not well-established. It is advisable to commence treatment a week before a school trip to assess its efficacy. Simply limiting fluid intake is not recommended. Karim should be offered desmopressin as a treatment option, along with reassurance. Duloxetine is not suitable for this condition. While an enuresis alarm is a viable long-term solution, it is not practical to try it out during a school trip.
Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.
The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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During a local measles outbreak you are contacted by a number of elderly patients who are enquiring about immunisation for themselves.
In which of the following groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?Your Answer: Egg allergy
Correct Answer: Gelatin allergy
Explanation:Contraindications and Considerations for MMR Vaccine
Anaphylaxis to the MMR vaccine is rare, with less than 15 cases per million. The few contraindications to the vaccine include pregnancy, immunosuppression, gelatin or neomycin allergy with previous known anaphylaxis, and anaphylaxis to a previous dose of MMR. Egg allergy is not a contraindication, but some regions suggest immunizing in the secondary care setting. Breastfeeding and milk allergy are also not contraindications. Patients with pre-existing neurological conditions can receive the vaccine, but it is advised to postpone immunization if the condition is poorly controlled or progressive.
According to the Green Book, minor illnesses without fever or systemic upset are not valid reasons to postpone immunization. However, if an individual is acutely unwell, immunization should be postponed until they have fully recovered to avoid confusing the differential diagnosis of any acute illness by wrongly attributing any signs or symptoms to the adverse effects of the vaccine. It is important to note that patients who have received the MMR vaccine in the past can receive another dose, and the risk of allergy reduces with each successive immunization. At least two doses should provide satisfactory cover, but further immunization may not be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Correct
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You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.
What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?Your Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily
Explanation:For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old girl presents at the antenatal clinic.
She is approximately six weeks pregnant and the pregnancy was unplanned. She has a two year history of grand mal epilepsy for which she takes carbamazepine. She has had no fits for approximately six months. She wants to continue with her pregnancy if it is safe to do so.
She is worried about the anticonvulsant therapy and its effects on the baby. She asks how she should be managed.
Which of the following management plans is the most appropriate in this case?Your Answer: Advise termination due to drug teratogenicity
Correct Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the patient and fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants may fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Prior to delivery, the mother should receive vitamin K. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease has a serum creatinine of 746 μmol/l (60-120 μmol/l). He was known to have normal renal function two years previously. On examination, he has evidence of rigidity, resting tremor and postural instability. He appears to have bilateral small pupils. He has a postural BP drop from 160/72 mm/Hg when supine to 138/60 mmHg when standing. Ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis and a full bladder.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of obstructive renal failure in this patient?Your Answer: Neurogenic bladder
Explanation:Neurogenic Bladder and Other Causes of Obstructive Renal Failure in Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s disease is often associated with autonomic dysfunction, which can lead to bladder problems such as urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence. In some cases, these symptoms may be mistaken for benign prostatic hypertrophy, but it is important to consider the possibility of neurogenic bladder when risk factors are present. Multichannel urodynamic studies can help confirm the diagnosis and prevent complications such as post-prostatectomy incontinence. Other potential causes of obstructive renal failure in Parkinson’s disease include retroperitoneal fibrosis and renal papillary necrosis, which are rare but serious conditions that require prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 who has recently discovered she is expecting. She has a medical history of epilepsy, familial hypercholesterolaemia, type 2 diabetes, and sciatica.
During her pregnancy, which medications should Sarah discontinue taking?Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Statin therapy should not be used during pregnancy due to potential risks. However, paracetamol is considered safe for use during pregnancy. Lamotrigine is preferred over other anti-epileptics due to a lower risk of neurodevelopmental effects on the foetus, but all pregnant women on anti-epileptics should take 5mg folic acid before conception and during the first trimester. Metformin and insulin are commonly used to treat diabetes during pregnancy. It is important to note that all statins should be avoided during pregnancy as they have been associated with congenital anomalies.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause.
Her last period was 14 months ago. She has been experiencing low mood, which has been attributed to the menopause, but there are no symptoms of overt depression. She has a past history of breast cancer, treated three years ago. She is currently taking Tamoxifen. She has no allergies. She would like treatment for her symptoms.
What is the most suitable course of action for her symptoms?Your Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Hormone Therapy Contraindicated in Breast Cancer Patient
Hormone therapies are not an option for a woman with a history of breast cancer due to contraindications. This rules out all hormone therapy options. Additionally, fluoxetine, which inhibits the enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, should not be used in this case. This is because it reduces the amount of active drug that is released.
The most appropriate treatment option for low mood in the absence of depression is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). While it may not help with menopausal flashes, it is recommended by NICE and is the best choice from the list of options provided.
Overall, it is important to consider a patient’s medical history and any contraindications before prescribing any treatment options. In this case, hormone therapy and fluoxetine are not suitable, and CBT is the recommended course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Correct
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Among the given options, which disorder exhibits a polygenic mode of inheritance?
Your Answer: Manic depressive psychosis
Explanation:Inherited Conditions: Types and Patterns of Inheritance
Inherited conditions can be classified based on their patterns of inheritance. Polygenic traits, such as height, are affected by multiple genes and do not follow Mendelian inheritance. Mental health conditions are often polygenic. Huntington’s chorea is an autosomal-dominant condition that presents in adulthood with involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and memory problems. Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal-recessive condition that typically presents before age 25. Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked-dominant condition and the most common inherited cause of learning disability. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be detected through newborn screening or present with respiratory and/or gastrointestinal symptoms. Understanding the patterns of inheritance can aid in diagnosis and genetic counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed with COPD.
You wish to use the 'stages of change' model, which is comprised of:
A Action
B Contemplation
C Maintenance
D precontemplation
E Preparation
Which of the following correctly orders the listed stages in the 'stages of change' model?Your Answer: B E D C A
Correct Answer: A D C B E
Explanation:The Stages of Change Model for Smoking Cessation
The ‘stages of change’ model is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to categorize a patient’s readiness to act on a new health behavior, such as smoking cessation. The correct order of the model is precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.
It is important to determine where the patient fits in the model to tailor the approach accordingly. Patients in the earlier stages may benefit from education on the benefits of quitting smoking and increasing their awareness of the positive outcomes. This can help them move towards the later stages of the model.
Patients in the later stages may require more direct intervention, such as pharmacological management with nicotine replacement or varenicline, and advice on preventing relapse. By utilizing the stages of change model, healthcare professionals can provide personalized care and support for patients seeking to quit smoking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with extreme tiredness and fevers. The GP arranges some urgent tests as he is concerned that it may be a malignancy.
Which of the following is the most common childhood cancer?Your Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:Childhood Cancer Incidence
Leukaemia is the most prevalent form of childhood cancer, accounting for 31% of all cases. Brain and central nervous system tumours follow closely behind at 21%, while lymphoma, neuroblastoma, and Wilms’ tumours make up 10%, 7%, and 5% respectively. It is important to understand the incidence rates of childhood cancers in order to better allocate resources for research and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 11
Correct
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A 46-year-old man comes to you with a scrotal swelling on the right side that has been worsening over the past two weeks. He is concerned about its appearance and has developed a dragging sensation. Upon examination while lying flat, a tense varicocele is observed on the right side. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to Urology
Explanation:If a patient has rapidly developing varicoceles, solitary right-sided varicoceles, or varicoceles that remain tense when lying down, especially if they are over 40 years old, it could be a sign of testicular tumors. In such cases, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary to rule out cancer. Given the presence of several red flags in this patient, an urgent referral is required. Other options should be avoided as they may cause delays in diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele
Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rubbery 3-cm swelling of the left breast disc. He has no past history of breast disease and is currently undergoing hormone therapy for prostatic cancer. His body mass index is 28 kg/m2. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Fibroadenoma
Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Gynaecomastia is a common condition characterized by the benign enlargement of male breast tissue. It affects more than 30% of men and can occur at any age, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition presents as a firm or rubbery mass that extends concentrically from the nipples. While usually bilateral, it can also be unilateral.
Gynaecomastia can be classified as physiological or pathological. Physiological gynaecomastia is seen in newborns, adolescents during puberty, and elderly men with low testosterone levels. Pathological causes include lack of testosterone, increased estrogen levels, liver disease, and obesity. Drugs, such as finasteride and spironolactone, can also cause gynaecomastia in adults.
In this scenario, the patient is likely being treated with a gonadorelin analogue for prostate cancer, which can cause side effects similar to orchidectomy. While the patient is overweight, his body mass index doesn’t meet the definition of obesity.
It is important to note that male breast cancer accounts for only 1% of all breast cancer cases. While unilateral swelling may increase the likelihood of breast cancer, other factors such as rapid growth, a hard irregular swelling, or a size greater than 5cm should also be considered.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for gynaecomastia can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and seek appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 13
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her mother initially contacted the pediatrician concerned with ongoing bedwetting and it turns out that the girl has never had a 'dry night'.
The pediatrician has provided general advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting behavior, though the mother says the bedwetting has not resolved. Despite the use of a reward system, the girl still wets the bed at night and the mother is getting worried.
She speaks to the enuresis clinic and is sent home with an intervention.
What intervention is likely to be recommended?Your Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:If general advice has not been effective in treating nocturnal enuresis in a child, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines. However, it may be worth exploring alternative reward systems to ensure the child is motivated to make the necessary effort. It is assumed that the mother can appropriately motivate their child, so this may not be a route taken by the clinic. If the enuresis alarm doesn’t work, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered.
Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.
The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has a vivid red rash on her nose and cheeks. The patient complains that consuming alcohol exacerbates her rash, causing her great embarrassment. She also reports experiencing occasional pustules.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acne rosacea
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest acne rosacea, which is characterized by flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks, and forehead, as well as the presence of papules and pustules. This condition is known to worsen with alcohol consumption. In contrast, acne vulgaris typically presents with comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and/or cysts, and is less erythematous than rosacea. Erythema ab igne, on the other hand, is caused by exposure to high levels of heat or infra-red radiation, while psoriasis is characterized by a silver-scaly rash that typically appears on the knees and elbows. Although the patient’s symptoms could be mistaken for a butterfly rash, there is no evidence to suggest lupus.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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Lila is a 4-year-old girl who presents with a high fever, sore throat and sandpaper-like rash on her torso. You suspect scarlet fever. Her father inquires about the duration of time she should stay away from preschool.
Your Answer: Keep out of nursery until 24 hours after starting antibiotics
Explanation:It is recommended that children diagnosed with scarlet fever should not attend nursery or school until they have been on antibiotics for at least 24 hours.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral artery disease is prescribed ramipril for newly diagnosed stage 2 hypertension. After 10 days, his repeat U&Es show a decline in renal function. What is the probable cause of this deterioration?
Before starting ramipril, his U&Es were within normal limits, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 3.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine level of 78 µmol/L (55 - 120). However, ten days later, his U&Es showed an increase in urea level to 8.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) and creatinine level to 128 µmol/L (55 - 120), while his sodium and potassium levels remained stable and his bicarbonate level increased to 26 mmol/L (22 - 29).Your Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Explanation:If a patient with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis starts taking an ACE inhibitor, they may experience significant renal impairment. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of bilateral renal artery stenosis in patients with risk factors for atherosclerotic vascular disease, especially if they develop hypertension later in life and experience a sudden drop in renal function after starting an ACE inhibitor. This acute decline in renal function is not consistent with chronic kidney conditions like diabetic or hypertensive nephropathy. Glomerulonephritis or pre-renal acute kidney injury from dehydration are unlikely based on the information provided.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following a recent weaning off of high dose steroids. After two weeks, he experiences intense discomfort in his epigastrium and upper right quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duodenal ulceration
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:When it comes to the risk of pancreatitis, mesalazine is more likely to cause it than sulfasalazine. Although oral aminosalicylates can cause gastric side-effects such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and colitis exacerbation, acute pancreatitis is a rare but possible complication.
Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.
Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a mugging on his way back from the bar last night. The assailant bit him during the altercation, leaving deep bite marks on his hand, which appears red and swollen. You decide to administer tetanus and hepatitis B prophylaxis.
What antibiotic do you recommend for his treatment?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate treatment for human bites, similar to animal bites. In case the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole can be used. However, since there is no mention of any allergies, we assume that the patient has none. Waiting for the swab results is not the correct approach. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for various conditions, including hand/foot/facial injuries, deep puncture wounds, wounds requiring surgical debridement, wounds involving joints/tendons/ligaments, suspected fractures, and patients who are immunosuppressed, diabetic, cirrhotic, asplenic, or elderly. Antibiotic treatment is necessary for infected bites, which is the case here as the bite appears red, swollen, and is on the hand. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is treated with flucloxacillin.
Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.
What condition is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General Practitioner as she has been experiencing a feeling of detachment from her surroundings during her attacks. She describes it as as if there is a veil between me and the outside world. What is the most appropriate term for this symptom?
Your Answer: Derealisation
Explanation:Differentiating between psychological experiences: Derealisation, Delusion, Depersonalisation, Flight of Ideas, and Hallucination
Psychological experiences can be complex and difficult to differentiate. Here are some explanations of five different experiences: derealisation, delusion, depersonalisation, flight of ideas, and hallucination.
Derealisation is the feeling that the external world is unreal, distant, or distorted. Patients may describe it as a veil between themselves and their surroundings.
Delusion is a fixed false belief that doesn’t change despite conflicting evidence. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings. Delusions are commonly associated with schizophrenia, not anxiety.
Depersonalisation is the feeling of being a detached observer of oneself. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings.
Flight of ideas is a rapid flow of thoughts that often connect and is part of the hyperexcitable state of mania. It is not typically seen in anxiety with derealisation.
Hallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of a real external stimulus. For example, hearing voices when no one has spoken. This patient has not described any false sensory perception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset weakness of the muscles on the left side of his face. He is unable to wrinkle his forehead and has difficulty closing his eye. Additionally, he reports loss of taste on the anterior part of his tongue and discomfort with loud noises. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bell’s palsy
Explanation:Understanding Facial Paralysis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Facial paralysis can be caused by a variety of factors, including lower motor neurone lesions, upper motor neurone lesions, herpes zoster, Lyme disease, and sarcoidosis. In cases of lower motor neurone lesions, patients may be unable to wrinkle their forehead due to the destruction of the final common pathway to the muscles. However, in upper motor neurone lesions, the forehead muscles may be partially spared due to alternative pathways in the brainstem.
Bell’s palsy, also known as idiopathic facial paralysis, is the most common cause of unilateral facial paralysis. While further testing or referral is not usually required, it’s important to assess patients to exclude other possible identifiable causes. Symptoms of Bell’s palsy may include the inability to close the eye, pain, and vesicles in the ear, hard palate, and anterior two thirds of the tongue.
Steroids, such as prednisolone, are an effective treatment for Bell’s palsy and should be started within 72 hours of onset. This treatment option can also be used in children. Full recovery occurs in approximately 80% of cases. If the failure to close the eye is endangering the cornea, further intervention may be necessary.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for facial paralysis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What other screening method has strong evidence for its effectiveness in detecting bowel cancer besides faecal occult blood testing for those aged 60-74?
Your Answer: Faecal elastase
Correct Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy
Explanation:Bowel Screening and the Benefits of Flexible Sigmoidoscopy
Bowel screening is a crucial aspect of healthcare, and it has been offered to those aged 60-69 using faecal occult blood testing. From July 2006 to December 2010, over 5 million people participated in bowel screening, and over 7,000 cancers were detected, with over 40,000 patients undergoing polyp removal. The screening has now been extended to those aged 70-74 and is offered every two years.
One alternative and complementary bowel screening modality to faecal occult blood testing is flexible sigmoidoscopy. A randomised control trial funded by Cancer Research UK was conducted between 1994 and 2010, covering 14 UK centres. The study found that flexible sigmoidoscopy is a safe test and confers a significant and sustained long-term benefit if offered as a one-off procedure between the ages of 55 and 64. The trial data suggest that flexible sigmoidoscopy could prevent approximately 3,000 cancers a year.
Based on these findings, flexible sigmoidoscopy is being piloted to be incorporated into the current bowel screening programme over the next few years. This test is a reliable and effective way to detect bowel cancer and prevent it from developing further. It is essential to continue to promote bowel screening and encourage people to participate in these life-saving tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 65-year-old lady comes to see you about her husband. He suffers with Alzheimer's dementia and she is finding it difficult to cope. She says that she doesn't drive and has had to resort to employing private carers to allow her time to do the shopping. She says that they are both in receipt of generous pensions but her sister has suggested that she applies for any benefits that are applicable.
What can you tell her about the Attendance Allowance (AA)?Your Answer: To qualify for Attendance Allowance patients must be State Pension age or over
Explanation:Attendance Allowance – A Guide for GPs
Attendance Allowance is a tax-free benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals who are State Pension age or older and have a disability that requires additional help with personal care. This benefit is not affected by income or employment status. To qualify, the individual must have required assistance for at least six months, unless they are terminally ill. There are two levels of Attendance Allowance – lower and higher.
As a GP, you may be asked to complete a statement at the end of the Attendance Allowance claim form by your patient. If the decision maker cannot determine benefit entitlement without further evidence, they may request that you complete a medical report based on your medical records and knowledge of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the most accurate definition of informed consent?
Your Answer: Putting the best interests of the patient first
Explanation:Understanding Informed Consent
Informed consent is a crucial process in healthcare that involves informing patients about the potential benefits and risks of a particular course of action. It is a way of ensuring that patients are fully aware of what they are agreeing to and that they have given their permission to proceed. This process is essential in upholding the principle of patient autonomy, which recognizes the right of patients to make decisions about their own healthcare.
It is important to note that informed consent is not the same as putting the best interests of the patient first. While doctors are obligated to act in the best interests of their patients, informed consent is about ensuring that patients have the information they need to make their own decisions. This means that patients may choose a course of action that is not necessarily in their best interests, but that they have the right to make that choice.
Obtaining a second opinion is not always necessary for informed consent, but it can be helpful in certain situations. For example, if a patient is considering a complex or risky procedure, they may want to seek a second opinion to ensure that they have all the information they need to make an informed decision. Ultimately, the goal of informed consent is to empower patients to make decisions about their own healthcare and to ensure that those decisions are respected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman complains of vision loss in her left eye accompanied by frontal headaches and lethargy for the past two weeks. During examination, her left eye shows only hand movements while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/9. Fundoscopy of the left eye reveals an oedematous and pale optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Correct Answer: Temporal arteritis
Explanation:It is probable that this individual has developed left-sided anterior ischemic optic neuropathy.
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman develops rapid, pressured speech and insomnia for five consecutive nights. She says her energy levels are normal. She has had systemic lupus erythematosus for five years. For two weeks, she has been taking a large daily dose of prednisolone because of a flare-up of this condition. She has no previous personal or family history of psychiatric illness or cardiovascular disease, and she denies using illicit drugs or alcohol.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer: Acute psychosis
Correct Answer: Drug reaction
Explanation:Possible Causes of Psychosis in a Patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Psychosis is a rare but possible complication in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. However, in the case of a patient presenting with symptoms of psychosis, the time frame of symptoms in relation to starting corticosteroids, the patient’s age, and the lack of previous history suggest corticosteroid-induced psychosis. Corticosteroids have been associated with various psychiatric reactions, ranging from psychotic reactions and behavioral disturbances to sleep disturbances and cognitive dysfunction. Symptoms usually appear within days to weeks of starting treatment, and most patients recover after a dose reduction or withdrawal of the medication, with some requiring antipsychotic medication. In adults, severe psychiatric reactions may occur in up to 5-6% of cases.
Other possible causes of psychosis, such as uraemia in end-stage renal failure or acute psychosis, are unlikely in this patient, as there is no history or other symptoms of renal failure, and the symptoms do not match those of acute psychosis. While systemic lupus erythematosus increases the risk of stroke, hypomania/mania after a stroke is rare, occurring in only about 1% of patients. Psychosis is also uncommon in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, occurring in only 5% of cases at some point during the course of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Correct
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A new case of Chickenpox has been reported at the daycare yesterday. A mother attends with her 4-year-old son and is anxious because she is going away for a week’s holiday on the next day. She wonders how soon her son will develop symptoms.
Select from the list the option within which the incubation period for Chickenpox lies.Your Answer: Medium (7-21 days)
Explanation:Understanding Incubation Periods and Latent Periods in Diseases
Incubation period refers to the time between exposure to a pathogenic organism and the onset of symptoms. This period can range from minutes to even 30 years, depending on the disease. Latent period, on the other hand, is the time from infection to infectiousness. While the two terms may be synonymous, a distinction is sometimes made between them.
Examples of diseases with short incubation periods include norovirus, influenza, and scarlet fever. Diseases with medium incubation periods include roseola, measles, and pertussis. Mumps, erythema infectiosum, and rubella have long incubation periods, while infectious mononucleosis and hepatitis A have extra-long incubation periods. Hepatitis B has an incubation period greater than six weeks.
Clinical latency occurs in diseases like AIDS, where people infected with HIV may not show any symptoms or signs of AIDS despite having a large viral load. It is important to understand incubation and latent periods in diseases to prevent their spread and manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her interpersonal relationships at work and in her personal life. She reports that this has been an ongoing issue since her teenage years. The patient finds it challenging to collaborate with others and describes herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, others have described her as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?
Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for individuals who exhibit rigidity in their morals, ethics, and values and are hesitant to delegate work to others is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals are often described as perfectionists who adhere to strict rules and have difficulty adapting to different ways of doing things. Avoidant personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, paranoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder are incorrect diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as low self-esteem, unstable relationships, paranoia, and eccentric behavior.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic for a medication review. He has been prescribed clopidogrel after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack during an overnight hospital stay. Which medication from his repeat prescription is expected to decrease the efficacy of clopidogrel?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Using clopidogrel and omeprazole/esomeprazole at the same time can decrease the effectiveness of clopidogrel.
Research has demonstrated that taking clopidogrel and omeprazole simultaneously can lead to a decrease in exposure to the active metabolite of clopidogrel. This interaction is considered moderate in severity according to the BNF, and the manufacturer recommends avoiding concurrent use. The same holds true for esomeprazole.
There is no evidence to suggest that any of the other medications listed have an impact on the effectiveness of clopidogrel.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.Your Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease
Explanation:Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis
The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.
The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.
In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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