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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, accompanied by red and weeping areas. The dermatologist performs a skin biopsy, which reveals a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epidermolysis bullosa
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, particularly in the mouth. It is caused by autoantibodies to desmoglein 3, a component of the desmosome. The blisters are thin-walled and easily ruptured, leaving painful erosions. Diagnosis is made with a skin biopsy, and treatment involves high-dose corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive drugs.
Bullous pemphigoid is another blistering disorder, but it involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured than in pemphigus vulgaris. Mucous membranes are typically not affected.
Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic clusters of small blisters on the elbows, knees, back, and buttocks. It is associated with HLA-DQ2 and DQ8 and is often seen in patients with coeliac disease.
Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes the skin to become very fragile, leading to blistering and erosions. Symptoms appear at birth or shortly afterwards.
Tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering and is a genetic disorder that causes benign tumours to grow in various organs, including the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman seeks guidance on managing her menopausal symptoms. She has experienced cessation of her menstrual cycle and is bothered by hot flashes and night sweats. Due to her sister's breast cancer, she is not interested in hormone replacement therapy. What is the most suitable treatment option to suggest?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman attends the general practice surgery with her husband who is concerned that since she has started working from home several months ago, she has had a continuous cold. She reports frequent sneezing, clear nasal discharge and a terrible taste in her mouth in the morning. Her eyes look red and feel itchy. She has noticed that the symptoms improve when she is at the office or when they have been on vacation. She has a history of migraines and is otherwise well. She has not yet tried any treatment for her symptoms.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Allergic rhinitis
Explanation:Understanding Allergic Rhinitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis
Allergic rhinitis is a common condition that presents with a range of symptoms, including sneezing, itchiness, rhinorrhea, and a blocked nose. Patients with allergic rhinitis often experience eye symptoms such as bilateral itchiness, redness, and swelling. While the diagnosis of allergic rhinitis is usually based on characteristic features, it is important to exclude infectious and irritant causes.
In this case, the patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest an allergic cause for his condition. It would be prudent to inquire about his new home environment, as the allergen may be animal dander from a pet or house dust mites if there are more soft furnishings and carpets than in his previous home.
Other possible diagnoses, such as acute infective rhinitis, acute sinusitis, rhinitis medicamentosa, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history. For example, acute infective rhinitis would present more acutely with discolored nasal discharge and other upper respiratory tract infection symptoms. Acute sinusitis would present with facial pain or pressure and discolored nasal discharge. Rhinitis medicamentosa is caused by long-term use of intranasal decongestants, which is not the case for this patient. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is rare and typically presents with unilateral symptoms and a middle-ear effusion.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and differential diagnosis of allergic rhinitis is crucial for proper management and treatment of this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old man comes to you with a painful and swollen left knee. He recently returned from a trip to Spain about 4 weeks ago. He denies any history of knee problems or trauma. Upon examination, you notice that his left knee is warm and swollen, but he has a full range of motion. Additionally, he complains of pain when moving his ankle joints, but there is no visible swelling. You also observe a waxy yellow rash on the soles of both feet. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Keratoderma blenorrhagica is the cause of the rash on the soles. The reactive arthritis he is experiencing could be a result of a gastrointestinal infection or Chlamydia.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.
Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with terminal lung cancer is evaluated by the palliative care team to determine his analgesic requirements. He is currently on a regimen of 30 mg slow-release morphine twice daily, which effectively manages his pain. However, he is experiencing difficulty swallowing both tablet and liquid forms of the medication. The palliative team suggests transitioning him to subcutaneous morphine. What is the appropriate daily dosage for him?
Your Answer: 60mg
Correct Answer: 30mg
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while shopping. Upon examination, she appears alert and oriented, and her vital signs are stable. Her CBG level is 5.8 mmol/l, and her pulse is irregular with a low volume at 89 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying and standing. There is no raised jugular venous pressure, and her apex beat is forceful but undisplaced. Heart sounds reveal a soft S2 and a soft ejection systolic murmur loudest in the right second intercostal space, with a possible fourth heart sound heard. Chest examination reveals occasional bibasal crackles that clear with coughing, and there is no peripheral edema. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?
Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Understanding Aortic Stenosis and Differential Diagnosis
Aortic stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and potential collapse or blackout if the stenosis is critical. A low-volume pulse, narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising carotid pulse, undisplaced, sustained/forceful apex beat, soft or absent A2, ejection systolic murmur + fourth heart sound, and pulmonary edema are significant signs of aortic stenosis.
It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from other conditions such as mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mixed mitral and aortic valve disease. Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla, while aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur with a characteristic opening snap. There is no definitive evidence of mitral valve disease in this clinical scenario.
Understanding the signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis and differentiating it from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. His wife reports that he has been experiencing worsening confusion for approximately one week. Upon examination, there are evident indications of chronic liver disease, along with nystagmus and cerebellar ataxia. The patient appears highly confused. His liver function tests (LFTs) are normal except for elevated gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), a full blood count reveals macrocytosis, and blood glucose levels are normal. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy (WE)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Confusion in a Patient with Alcohol Misuse
Wernicke Encephalopathy (WE), caused by thiamine deficiency and commonly associated with chronic alcoholism, is a serious neurological disorder that presents with a classic triad of ocular findings, cerebellar dysfunction, and confusion. Rapid correction of brain thiamine deficiency is crucial, and treatment is initially administered parenterally. Neurological dysfunction, especially memory and learning impairment, can persist even after treatment, leading to Korsakoff syndrome.
Subdural hematoma, more common in individuals who misuse alcohol, is an important differential diagnosis in cases of acute confusion. However, a history of head injury, even minor, and a headache with or without vomiting are typically present. Acute hematomas present soon after the injury, while chronic hematomas may not present until 2-3 weeks after the trauma.
Acute alcohol poisoning is unlikely in a patient with worsening confusion over the past week. Sudden onset of confusion following an alcohol binge that improves with abstinence is expected.
Hepatic encephalopathy, a spectrum that develops in patients with advanced liver disease, may present with a change in personality, short-term memory loss, or reduced level of consciousness. However, cerebellar signs such as nystagmus and ataxia are not associated with this condition.
Delirium tremens, a rapid onset of confusion as a result of alcohol withdrawal, typically appears three days after abstinence from alcohol and may include visual hallucinations, acute confusion, and tremor. If untreated, seizures may occur. However, the presence of nystagmus and ataxia in this case makes WE the more likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to clinic with increasing breathlessness, weight loss and peripheral oedema over the past 2 months. His family are concerned that he has also become a bit more confused over the past week.
His past history includes hypertension and a 35 pack-year smoking history. An echocardiogram from last year showed good biventricular contraction.
His blood tests show the following:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 150 g/L
Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
White cell count (WCC) 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 124 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 2.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 62 µmol/L (55 - 120)
C reactive protein (CRP) 6 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lung cancer
Explanation:Investigation for lung cancer should be considered in a long-term smoker with a history of weight loss and breathlessness, as SIADH is a common endocrine complication of small cell lung cancer. If the patient has not had a normal echo recently, right-sided heart failure may be a more likely explanation for their symptoms. While COPD and pulmonary fibrosis can also cause breathlessness, they would not account for the peripheral oedema and hyponatraemia.
SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections such as tuberculosis or pneumonia, and certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs. Other causes may include positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment for SIADH involves slowly correcting the sodium levels to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis. This can be done through fluid restriction, the use of demeclocycline to reduce responsiveness to ADH, or the use of ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as glimepiride and glipizide, have been reported to cause SIADH according to the BNF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You assess a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. Due to her BMI of 33 kg/m², she underwent a routine oral glucose tolerance test which yielded the following results:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 7.8
2 10.6
Apart from this, there have been no other complications during her pregnancy and her anomaly scan showed no abnormalities. What would be the best course of action?Your Answer: Start metformin + advice about diet / exercise + self-monitor glucose levels
Correct Answer: Start insulin + advice about diet / exercise + self-monitor glucose levels
Explanation:The gestational diabetes guidelines of NICE have been updated, stating that insulin treatment must commence if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l. Additionally, it is recommended to consider administering aspirin due to the heightened risk of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right gaze, right-sided facial weakness and left flaccid hemiparesis.
Which of the following is the most likely site for her lesion?Your Answer: Right cerebral hemisphere
Correct Answer: Right pons
Explanation:Lesions in different areas of the brainstem can cause specific neurological symptoms. A lesion in the right pons can result in left-sided weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and double vision when looking towards the lesion. This is known as Millard-Gubler syndrome and is caused by a blockage in the penetrating branches of the basilar artery. A lesion in the right midbrain can affect cranial nerves III and IV, while a lesion in the left midbrain can cause contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral hypoglossal nerve palsy, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy. A lesion in the left pons can cause contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral gaze palsy, and ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face. Lesions in the cerebral hemisphere produce purely contralateral and upper motor neuron signs. The insertion site, cranial nerves, and skull base associated with each area of the brainstem are also important to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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