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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman, who has been struggling with drug addiction and living on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman, who has been struggling with drug addiction and living on the streets, presents to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain. The patient reports that she developed acute abdominal pain two hours prior to the presentation after eating a hot dog. The patient otherwise has no significant past medical history, takes no medications and admits to smoking and occasional alcohol consumption.
      On examination, the patient has normal vital signs. Her abdominal examination demonstrates normoactive bowel sounds, no tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium and no guarding or rebound tenderness. Rectal exam for stool occult blood is negative and a chest X-ray does not reveal free air under the diaphragm. A right upper quadrant ultrasound does not demonstrate stones. The doctor recommends antacids. When the doctor tells the patient that she is safe for discharge, the patient insists that she must be admitted to the hospital for further tests.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Malingering, Hypochondriasis, Conversion Disorder, Factitious Disorder, and Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy

      When evaluating patients, it is important to differentiate between various conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Malingering is a condition where a patient feigns or exaggerates symptoms for secondary gain, such as meals or a place to sleep. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where a patient fears having a medical illness despite negative tests and reassurance. Conversion disorder refers to the manifestation of psychological illness as neurologic pathology, while factitious disorder involves a patient who assumes the sick role for personal satisfaction. Finally, Munchausen syndrome by proxy is similar to factitious disorder but involves a patient seeking the sick role vicariously through a second patient, often a child. By understanding the differences between these conditions, healthcare providers can provide appropriate care and treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman has recently undergone a partial abdominal hysterectomy and unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has recently undergone a partial abdominal hysterectomy and unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, and is discussing hormone replacement therapy.
      Which of the following pieces of advice may she be offered?

      Your Answer: Although she has had no bone loss so far, she needs to start oestrogen therapy to prevent bone loss from occurring

      Correct Answer: The benefits of oestrogen therapy are maintained only so long as treatment is continued for the next 5-10 years at least

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen therapy must be continued for at least 5-10 years to maintain its benefits, including a decreased risk of fragility fractures. Starting oestrogen therapy immediately can prevent osteoporotic fractures in old age. Bisphosphonates are the first-line treatment for bone-sparing. HRT should not be prescribed solely for preventing osteoporosis, but a combination of oestrogen and progesterone should be used in women with a uterus. Patients who have a salpingo-oophorectomy should be monitored for hormone-related conditions. SSRIs, SNRIs, and clonidine should not be the first-line treatment for vasomotor symptoms alone. Vaginal oestrogen can be offered to women with urogenital atrophy, even if they are on systemic HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?

      Your Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old male carpenter visits the GP clinic complaining of right foot drop....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male carpenter visits the GP clinic complaining of right foot drop. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. During the examination, the doctor observed weakness in the right foot dorsiflexion and eversion. The patient also reported sensory loss on the dorsum of the right foot and lower lateral part of the right leg. No other neurological deficits were detected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from common peroneal nerve palsy, which may be caused by diabetes. This condition can result in weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion. L5 nerve root compression is a possible cause of foot drop, but it does not lead to weakness of foot eversion, so it is not the correct option. Sciatic nerve palsy can also cause foot drop, but it can also affect other nerves, resulting in weakness of foot plantar flexion and sensory loss of the sole of the foot, which is not present in this case. Stroke is a central cause of foot drop, but the absence of upper motor neuron signs suggests common peroneal nerve pathology is more likely. Polyneuropathy involves multiple nerves, so it is not the correct option.

      Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion

      A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve, which divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The most notable symptom of this type of nerve damage is foot drop, which is characterized by weakness or paralysis of the muscles that lift the foot.

      In addition to foot drop, other symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion may include weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, as well as the extensor hallucis longus muscle. Sensory loss may also occur over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and there may be wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for this type of nerve injury. With proper care and management, it may be possible to improve symptoms and prevent further damage to the affected nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are consulted by the parents of a 5-year-old girl. She has a...

    Correct

    • You are consulted by the parents of a 5-year-old girl. She has a lifelong history of bedwetting at night, and they are becoming increasingly concerned that the problem is not getting any better. She never has accidents in the day and opens her bowels at least once a day. She has been potty-trained since the age of two. Apart from hay fever, there is no relevant family history. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no abnormality. Things have come to a head as she is starting school in two weeks’ time, and they do not want her to wet the bed.
      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Give general advice on enuresis, reassure the parents that he is almost certain to grow out of the problem and prescribe desmopressin to be taken during the camping trip to prevent bedwetting

      Explanation:

      Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options

      Primary enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common condition affecting 15-20% of children. It is characterized by nocturnal wetting without daytime symptoms and is thought to be caused by bladder dysfunction. Parents of children with primary enuresis may be reassured that their child is likely to grow out of the problem by age 15, with only 1% of patients continuing to have symptoms into adulthood.

      Treatment options for primary enuresis include the use of an enuresis alarm combined with a reward system to teach and reward good habits. Fluid should not be restricted. In children over the age of 5, short-term control can be achieved with a prescription of desmopressin to prevent enuresis during sleepovers or school trips.

      It is important to involve the child in the management plan and explore family habits. Referral to a paediatric urologist may be necessary for children with primary enuresis and daytime symptoms or for those who have failed two complete courses of treatment with an enuresis alarm or desmopressin.

      Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      72.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme thirst and nocturia up to five times a night. Her serum calcium concentration is 2.3 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l), random plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l) and potassium 3.5 mmol/l (reference range 3.6–5.2 mmol/l). After an overnight fast, her serum sodium is 149 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l).
      What is the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency

      Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Polyuria and polydipsia can be caused by various conditions, including cranial diabetes insipidus, chronic cystitis, hypokalaemia-induced polyuria, iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency, and primary polydipsia. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, resulting in the passage of large volumes of dilute urine. Chronic cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract, while hypokalaemia-induced polyuria occurs when there is a low concentration of potassium in the filtrate. Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency is a possible cause of polydipsia/polyuria, but less consistent with this scenario. Primary polydipsia is suspected when large volumes of very dilute urine occur with low-normal plasma osmolality. Differentiating between these conditions can be challenging, but a combination of plasma ADH assay and water deprivation testing can lead to greater accuracy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. He had been diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia by his doctor and treated with antibiotics at home. However, his condition suddenly worsened, and he now has a heart rate of 120/min, respiratory rate of 22/min, oxygen saturation of 77%, and a temperature of 38°C. The patient has a medical history of COPD and is a carbon dioxide retainer. What is the best course of action to address his low oxygen saturation?

      Your Answer: Reservoir mask at 15 litres/min

      Correct Answer: 28% Venturi mask at 4 litres/min

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Emergency Oxygen Therapy

      The British Thoracic Society has updated its guidelines for emergency oxygen therapy in 2017. The guidelines recommend that in critically ill patients, such as those experiencing anaphylaxis or shock, oxygen should be administered via a reservoir mask at 15 l/min. However, certain conditions, such as stable myocardial infarction, are excluded from this recommendation.

      The guidelines also provide specific oxygen saturation targets for different patient groups. Acutely ill patients should aim for a saturation range of 94-98%, while patients at risk of hypercapnia, such as those with COPD, should aim for a lower range of 88-92%. Oxygen therapy should be reduced in stable patients with satisfactory oxygen saturation.

      For COPD patients, a 28% Venturi mask at 4 l/min should be used prior to availability of blood gases. The target oxygen saturation range for these patients should be 88-92% if they have risk factors for hypercapnia but no prior history of respiratory acidosis. If the pCO2 is normal, the target range can be adjusted to 94-98%.

      The guidelines also highlight situations where oxygen therapy should not be used routinely if there is no evidence of hypoxia. These include myocardial infarction and acute coronary syndromes, stroke, obstetric emergencies, and anxiety-related hyperventilation.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear recommendations for the administration of emergency oxygen therapy in different patient groups and situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman reports leakage of urine, which is happening more often. She...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman reports leakage of urine, which is happening more often. She is unable to control her urine when she feels the urge to go and has had a few instances where she couldn't make it to the bathroom in time. There is no pain during urination and her urine dipstick test is negative. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urge incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects more women than men and increases with age. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own set of symptoms. Functional incontinence occurs when a person is unable to hold urine due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium or impaired mobility. Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress and urge incontinence, while overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss during periods of increased intra-abdominal pressure, while urge incontinence is associated with a sudden and intense desire to void that cannot be prevented. Symptoms of urge incontinence include urinary frequency and nocturia. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of the incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman is admitted with chronic congestive heart failure.

    Based on this...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is admitted with chronic congestive heart failure.

      Based on this history, what is the most important factor to consider when prescribing medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Administration of a β-blocker reduces mortality

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Heart Failure: A Summary of Medications and Their Effects

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management to improve symptoms and reduce mortality rates. Two medications that have been found to be effective in reducing mortality are β-blockers and ACE inhibitors. These medications work by reducing afterload and should be offered as first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. Loop diuretics, on the other hand, have no mortality benefit but can provide symptomatic relief. Digoxin, while effective in providing symptomatic relief, has been found to increase mortality rates and should be used with caution. Spironolactone, however, has been shown to greatly reduce mortality and sudden cardiac death rates and should be added to the treatment. Finally, while angiotensin II receptor antagonists can be used in patients who are intolerant of ACE inhibitors or added to ACE inhibitors and β-blockers if patients remain symptomatic, ACE inhibitors have been found to result in better prognosis. It is important to carefully consider the benefits and risks of each medication when treating patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
    What should be prescribed in combination...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
      What should be prescribed in combination with hydrocortisone to benefit him?

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a condition in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. To manage this condition, patients are typically given replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid medication used in this treatment. However, dexamethasone, aspirin, and both types of contraceptive pills have no role in the treatment of Addison’s disease. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at the emergency department with dysarthria and left-sided weakness that she noticed earlier today. During the examination, left-sided hemiparesis is observed, and her blood glucose level is 6.5 mmol/L. What is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Non-contrast CT head

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Investigations for Stroke

      Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.

      When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhoea that has been ongoing for six...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhoea that has been ongoing for six weeks. She reports passing 3-4 loose stools per day with small amounts of blood. She feels lethargic but has no fever or significant abdominal pain. A colonoscopy reveals inflammatory changes in the ascending, transverse, and descending colon consistent with ulcerative colitis. Her blood work shows Hb of 142 g/L, platelets of 323 * 109/L, WBC of 8.1 * 109/L, and CRP of 22 mg/L. What is the most appropriate first-line medication for inducing remission?

      Your Answer: Rectal corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Oral aminosalicylate + rectal aminosalicylate

      Explanation:

      For a patient experiencing a mild to moderate flare-up of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to supplement rectal aminosalicylates with oral aminosalicylates. This is because enemas have limited reach and may not effectively treat the disease outside of their range.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the...

    Incorrect

    • When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the District Nurse wants to confirm if the patient has received complete tetanus vaccination. What is the number of tetanus vaccine doses required for life-long protection?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.8
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  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the eye clinic with a painful red eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the eye clinic with a painful red eye after a minor injury. The doctor diagnoses her with a corneal ulcer in her left eye and prescribes topical antibiotics for treatment. She asks for a prescription of the same numbing eye drops that were used during the examination to use at home. What is the most appropriate pain management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Tetracaine eyedrops two times a day

      Correct Answer: Oral analgesics

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to prescribe anaesthetic eye drops to patients with corneal ulcers as it can potentially worsen the condition by slowing down the healing process.

      Understanding Corneal Ulcers

      A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a unilateral hand tremor....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a unilateral hand tremor. Her family has noticed changes in her behavior, mood, and speech over the past year. During the examination, a resting tremor is observed in her right hand, along with bradykinesia and a lack of movement. Additionally, dark circular marks are visible around her iris. The patient mentions that her uncle passed away from liver cirrhosis at the age of 42. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: α1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Correct Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Wilson’s disease is indicated by the presence of both liver and neurological conditions, as well as the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings and a family history of liver disease.

      Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes excessive copper buildup in the body tissues due to increased copper absorption from the small intestine and decreased hepatic copper excretion. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13. Symptoms usually appear between the ages of 10 and 25, with children presenting with liver disease and young adults with neurological disease. The disease is characterised by excessive copper deposition in the brain, liver, and cornea, resulting in various symptoms such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioural problems, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails.

      To diagnose Wilson’s disease, a slit lamp examination is conducted to check for Kayser-Fleischer rings, and blood and urine tests are performed to measure copper levels. The diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene. The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. However, trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation for the treatment of Wilson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - As a junior doctor in General Practice, you come across a 27-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in General Practice, you come across a 27-year-old woman who is worried about her declining work performance. Her boss has labeled her as 'neurotic' due to her frequent missing of deadlines. She identifies herself as a 'perfectionist' and is unable to comprehend why this is happening. She has always found solace in keeping her workspace clean and organized and struggles to handle situations where she is not in control, especially at work. She recalls being an anxious child but has never sought help from a psychiatrist. What is the most probable cause of her difficulties?

      Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is exhibiting symptoms of anankastic personality disorder, also known as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). This disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and an excessive focus on details, as well as a need for control over one’s environment and interpersonal relationships. However, this often comes at the expense of flexibility, openness to new experiences, and efficiency. Unlike obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), where thoughts and behaviors are seen as unwanted and unhealthy, those with OCPD view their behaviors as rational and desirable. This can lead to difficulty completing tasks, as the individual becomes overly focused on perfectionism and attention to detail. Generalized anxiety disorder is less likely to be the diagnosis in this case, as the individual’s worries are specific to work-related issues. Schizoid personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a lack of interest in forming close relationships with others and a preference for solitude. These individuals may appear cold and uninterested in intimacy or pleasure from life.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following medications for treating diabetes is most likely to result...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications for treating diabetes is most likely to result in cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis can be caused by sulphonylureas.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease

      Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.

      Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.

      Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.

      It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      30.1
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  • Question 18 - A 19-year-old young woman is enjoying a meal at a Chinese restaurant to...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old young woman is enjoying a meal at a Chinese restaurant to celebrate her birthday. Despite having a nut allergy, the restaurant has taken precautions to ensure her safety. However, while trying a friend's chicken dish, she unknowingly ingested peanuts and experiences a severe allergic reaction, including difficulty breathing and facial swelling. Thankfully, her friend has an EpiPen® and administers it before calling for an ambulance. Although her symptoms improve, she remains unwell and struggling to breathe. Her friend remembers that a second EpiPen® can be used if necessary. When is it appropriate to administer the second dose of adrenaline?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline can be administered every 5 minutes in the management of anaphylaxis. It is recommended that individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry two auto-injectors with them in case a second dose is needed.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney failure has been instructed by his nephrologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney failure has been instructed by his nephrologist to adhere to a 'renal diet'. He visits you to gain further knowledge about this. What is typically recommended to individuals with chronic kidney disease?

      Your Answer: High protein diet

      Correct Answer: Low potassium diet

      Explanation:

      Dietary Recommendations for Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Chronic kidney disease patients are recommended to follow a specific diet to reduce the strain on their kidneys. This diet includes low levels of protein, phosphate, sodium, and potassium. The reason for this is that these substances are typically excreted by the kidneys, and reducing their intake can help ease the burden on the kidneys. By following this diet, patients can help slow the progression of their kidney disease and improve their overall health. It is important for patients to work with a healthcare professional or registered dietitian to ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs while following these dietary restrictions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of pain in her right...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of pain in her right knee. She is an avid runner and reports that the pain is most noticeable after exercise. She denies any swelling or redness in the joint and has not experienced any locking of the knee. Upon examination, the knee has a full range of motion, but there is sharp pain when palpating the lateral epicondyle of the femur, especially when the knee is flexed at 30 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Explanation:

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent reason for knee pain, especially among runners. A typical history and examination for this condition involves assessing lateral knee pain in avid runners. In contrast, Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, would result in pain and swelling around the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans would cause joint locking, swelling, and tenderness. Patellar tendonitis would also cause post-exercise pain, but it would typically be located at the lower part of the patella.

      Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.

      To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.

      In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      16.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/3) 33%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
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