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Question 1
Incorrect
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Whose work on imprinting had a significant impact on the field of attachment?
Your Answer: Ainsworth
Correct Answer: Lorenz
Explanation:Imprinting – A Rapid, Unreinforced, Irreversible Attachment in Animals and Humans
Imprinting is a fascinating phenomenon observed in some animals and humans, where a phase-sensitive attachment is formed towards the first conspicuous object seen after birth of hatching. Konrad Lorenz’s classic experiment with Greylag geese demonstrated that imprinting consists of three stages – following response, attachment development, and sexual preference formation. Imprinting is a rapid process that can occur within minutes, and it does not require any reinforcement to happen. It also occurs during a clearly defined period known as the critical period, and once it happens, it is irreversible.
Imprinting has been observed in various species, including birds, mammals, and even humans. In humans, imprinting can occur during the early stages of life and can influence social and emotional development. For example, infants may develop an attachment towards their primary caregiver, which can shape their future relationships and social interactions.
Overall, imprinting is a fascinating and complex phenomenon that highlights the importance of early experiences in shaping an individual’s behavior and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is experiencing anxiety and wants to rate his level of anxiety. Which rating scale would be most suitable for him to use?
Your Answer: The Montgomery-Asberg depression rating scale (MADRS)
Correct Answer: Beck's depression inventory (BDI)
Explanation:The Beck depression inventory (BDI of BDI-II) was created by Dr. Aaron T. Beck to measure the severity of depression. It consists of 21 multiple choice questions, with each answer being assigned a score from 0-3. The total score ranges from 0-63, with scores of 0-9 indicating minimal depression, 10-18 indicating mild depression, 19-29 indicating moderate depression, and 30-63 indicating severe depression.
The Hamilton rating scale for depression (HAM-D) is a clinician-rated scale used to monitor the severity of depression and assess the effects of treatment.
The standard assessment of depressive disorders (SADD) is a semi-structured, clinician-rated instrument developed by the WHO for assessing depressive disorders.
The Montgomery-Asberg depression rating scale (MADRS) is a clinician-rated diagnostic questionnaire consisting of 10 items used to measure the severity of depressive episodes in patients with mood disorders. Each item can be scored from 0-6, with a maximum score of 60. There is also a self-rated version of MADRS called MADRS-S, which consists of 9 questions and has a maximum score of 54.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What are some common symptoms that are typically observed in the initial phases of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Ventricular enlargement
Correct Answer: Hippocampal atrophy
Explanation:The medial temporal lobe, comprising the hippocampus and parahippocampal gyrus, exhibits the earliest neuropathological alterations.
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 4
Correct
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Which symptom is unlikely to be the first one noticed in a person with normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Your Answer: Headache
Explanation:Headache and other symptoms commonly associated with hydrocephalus may not be present in normal pressure hydrocephalus due to the fact that intracranial pressure does not typically remain elevated.
Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.
The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the lowest amount of fluoxetine that can effectively treat adults?
Your Answer: 20 mg
Explanation:Adults require a minimum effective dose of 20 mg of fluoxetine.
Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses
According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:
– Citalopram: 20 mg/day
– Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
– Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
– Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
– Sertraline: 50 mg/day
– Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
– Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
– Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
– Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
– Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
– Trazodone: 150 mg/dayNote that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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What are the roles of purposes of the amygdala?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:The Amygdala: A Key Player in Emotional Processing
The amygdala is a small, almond-shaped structure located in the anterior temporal lobe of the brain. As a core component of the limbic system, it plays a crucial role in emotional processing and regulation.
To better understand its function, we can use the metaphor of a car being driven on the road. The frontal lobe of the brain acts as the driver, making decisions and navigating the environment. The amygdala, on the other hand, serves as the dashboard, providing the driver with important information about the car’s status, such as temperature and fuel levels. In this way, the amygdala gives emotional meaning to sensory input, allowing us to respond appropriately to potential threats of opportunities.
One of the amygdala’s primary functions is to activate the fight or flight response in response to perceived danger. It does this by sending signals to the hypothalamus, which in turn triggers the release of stress hormones like adrenaline and cortisol. This prepares the body to either confront the threat of flee from it.
In addition to its role in the fight or flight response, the amygdala also plays a role in regulating appetite and eating behavior. Studies have shown that damage to the amygdala can lead to overeating and obesity, suggesting that it may be involved in the hypothalamic control of feeding behavior.
Overall, the amygdala is a key player in emotional processing and regulation, helping us to respond appropriately to the world around us.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 7
Correct
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What intervention has been demonstrated, through systematic review, to decrease the likelihood of sudden, unforeseen death in individuals with epilepsy?
Your Answer: Nocturnal supervision
Explanation:SUDEP, of sudden unexpected death in epilepsy, is a condition where patients with epilepsy die suddenly and unexpectedly without any apparent cause. It is estimated to be responsible for 20-30% of deaths in epilepsy patients. The condition is more common in adults than in children, affecting 1 in 1,000 adults with epilepsy per year. The main risk factor for SUDEP is having active generalised tonic clonic seizures (GTCS), and better control of these seizures through improved compliance can reduce the risk of SUDEP. Other risk factors include nocturnal seizures, lamotrigine, never having been treated with an antiepileptic drug, intellectual disability, and male sex. However, the evidence for these factors is considered low. Autopsy findings in SUDEP cases do not reveal any specific cause of death, but obstruction of the airways and cardiorespiratory events such as arrhythmia are thought to be possible mechanisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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In what type of epilepsy is it most common to experience an aura?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe
Explanation:This question is presented in two variations on the exam, with one implying that auras are primarily linked to temporal lobe epilepsy and the other to complex partial seizures. In reality, partial seizures are most commonly associated with auras compared to other types of seizures. While partial seizures can originate in any lobe of the brain, those that arise in the temporal lobe are most likely to produce an aura. Therefore, both versions of the question are accurate.
Epilepsy and Aura
An aura is a subjective sensation that is a type of simple partial seizure. It typically lasts only a few seconds and can help identify the site of cortical onset. There are eight recognized types of auras, including somatosensory, visual, auditory, gustatory, olfactory, autonomic, abdominal, and psychic.
In about 80% of cases, auras precede temporal lobe seizures. The most common auras in these seizures are abdominal and psychic, which can cause a rising epigastric sensation of feelings of fear, déjà vu, of jamais vu. Parietal lobe seizures may begin with a contralateral sensation, usually of the positive type, such as an electrical sensation of tingling. Occipital lobe seizures may begin with contralateral visual changes, such as colored lines, spots, of shapes, of even a loss of vision. Temporal-parietal-occipital seizures may produce more formed auras.
Complex partial seizures are defined by impairment of consciousness, which means decreased responsiveness and awareness of oneself and surroundings. During a complex partial seizure, a patient is unresponsive and does not remember events that occurred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 10
Correct
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Which statement about modafinil is accurate?
Your Answer: It does not tend to lead to dependence
Explanation:Modafinil shares similarities in its mechanism of action with amphetamine, and its effects are relatively brief with a half-life of approximately 8-12 hours. Additionally, the side effects of modafinil are comparable to those of amphetamine.
Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement
Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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How would you define a term that refers to a mark of shame of dishonor that distinguishes an individual from their peers?
Your Answer: Stigma
Explanation:Stigma refers to a characteristic of behavior that is deemed shameful by society and causes an individual to be viewed as different from others.
Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants
While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.
One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.
Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.
Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.
Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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Regarding the pharmacokinetics of psychotropic drugs, which statement is accurate?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine induces its own biotransformation
Explanation:Enzyme induction can accelerate drug metabolism and increase the risk of inadequate treatment. This process is often triggered by drugs such as ethanol, rifampin, barbiturates (e.g. phenobarbital, primidone), phenytoin, and carbamazepine. Carbamazepine, for instance, induces its own metabolism through cytochrome P450 enzymes 3A4 and 2E1. Typically, enzyme induction boosts glucuronyl transferase activity, which enhances drug conjugation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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What is a true statement about multisystem atrophy?
Your Answer: Associated Parkinson's symptoms respond poorly to levodopa
Explanation:Parkinson plus syndromes, including multisystem atrophy, exhibit a limited efficacy towards Parkinson’s treatment, such as levodopa.
Multisystem Atrophy: A Parkinson Plus Syndrome
Multisystem atrophy is a type of Parkinson plus syndrome that is characterized by three main features: Parkinsonism, autonomic failure, and cerebellar ataxia. It can present in three different ways, including Shy-Drager Syndrome, Striatonigral degeneration, and Olivopontocerebellar atrophy, each with varying degrees of the three main features.
Macroscopic features of multisystem atrophy include pallor of the substantia nigra, greenish discoloration and atrophy of the putamen, and cerebellar atrophy. Microscopic features include the presence of Papp-Lantos bodies, which are alpha-synuclein inclusions found in oligodendrocytes in the substantia nigra, cerebellum, and basal ganglia.
Overall, multisystem atrophy is a complex and debilitating condition that affects multiple systems in the body, leading to a range of symptoms and challenges for patients and their caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 15
Correct
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Which drug has the largest margin of safety between its therapeutic and toxic doses?
Your Answer: Gabapentin
Explanation:Narrow Therapeutic Index Drugs
Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are medications that have a small difference between the amount that causes a therapeutic effect and the amount that causes toxicity. In other words, the therapeutic index (TI) of these drugs is narrow. The TI is a ratio that compares the blood concentration at which a drug causes a therapeutic effect to the amount that causes death of toxicity.
In clinical practice, the TI is the range of doses at which a medication appeared to be effective in clinical trials for a median of participants without unacceptable adverse effects. For most drugs, this range is wide enough, and the maximum plasma concentration of the drug achieved when the recommended doses of a drug are prescribed lie sufficiently above the minimum therapeutic concentration and sufficiently below the toxic concentration.
However, some drugs have a narrow therapeutic index, which means that even small changes in dose of blood concentration can lead to serious adverse effects. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) defines a drug product as having an NTI when there is less than a twofold difference in the minimum toxic concentrations and minimum effective concentrations in the blood and safe and effective use of the drug requires careful titration and patient monitoring.
Examples of drugs with a narrow therapeutic index include carbamazepine, lithium, phenytoin, warfarin, digoxin, and gentamicin. These drugs require close monitoring to ensure that the blood concentration remains within the therapeutic range and does not reach toxic levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following does the statement I saw a man shut his car door today and instantly knew this was a sign that I had to kill the queen exemplify?
Your Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What condition has been associated with decreased small interneurons in cortical layer II of the prefrontal cortex, which are believed to be related to the GABA system?
Your Answer: Narcolepsy
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:The key to answering this question is identifying that it pertains to the prefrontal cortex, which is strongly linked to schizophrenia. Other conditions that are associated with abnormalities in this region include ADHD and bipolar disorder. Schizophrenia is characterized by changes in GABA function, including both release and uptake. Additionally, a decrease in small interneurons in cortical layer II of the prefrontal cortex is believed to contribute to these alterations. Sedvall’s 2002 work on the pathophysiological mechanisms of schizophrenia provides further insight into these issues.
Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the recommended course of treatment for a man who experiences depression after a heart attack?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRIs, of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are the first-line treatment for depression in most patients. However, some SSRIs have different side effects and interactions than others. For example, fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, while citalopram is useful for elderly patients as it is associated with lower risks of drug interactions. SSRIs should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and fluoxetine is the drug of choice in this population.
Common side effects of SSRIs include gastrointestinal symptoms, sedation, and sexual dysfunction. Paroxetine is considered the most sedating and anticholinergic, while vortioxetine is associated with the least sexual dysfunction. Patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, and a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if they are also taking an NSAID.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, and gastrointestinal symptoms.
SSRIs can also have interactions with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. Patients should be reviewed by a doctor after starting antidepressant therapy, and if they make a good response, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
In patients who have had a myocardial infarction, approximately 20% develop depression. SSRIs are the preferred antidepressant group post-MI, but they can increase the bleeding risk, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it too is associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-myocardial infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which type of axon is responsible for the intense and sudden pain experienced during an injury?
Your Answer: A-beta
Correct Answer: A-delta
Explanation:Primary Afferent Axons: Conveying Information about Touch and Pain
Primary afferent axons play a crucial role in conveying information about touch and pain from the surface of the body to the spinal cord and brain. These axons can be classified into four types based on their functions: A-alpha (proprioception), A-beta (touch), A-delta (pain and temperature), and C (pain, temperature, and itch). While all A axons are myelinated, C fibers are unmyelinated.
A-delta fibers are responsible for the sharp initial pain, while C fibers are responsible for the slow, dull, longer-lasting second pain. Understanding the different types of primary afferent axons and their functions is essential in diagnosing and treating various sensory disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Correct
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What is a true statement about the PANSS?
Your Answer: Each item is scored out of 7
Explanation:The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the equation for Hardy-Weinberg?
Your Answer: p² + 2pq + q²= 1
Explanation:Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency
Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What was the amount of drug X ingested by a patient who has overdosed, given that the drug has a volume of distribution of 4L and their blood concentration of X is 10 mg/L, assuming 100% bioavailability via the route of administration?
Your Answer: 2.5mg
Correct Answer: 40mg
Explanation:Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology
The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.
The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.
The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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John is a 25-year-old man who has been referred for depression that has not improved with two courses of SSRIs. He reports feeling low, but his mood improves significantly when he spends time with his friends. He used to enjoy playing video games, but now finds it difficult to concentrate on them.
John believes that his current problems stem from his recent breakup with his girlfriend. He feels like he is carrying a heavy weight on his shoulders. He denies having trouble sleeping, but is concerned about his recent weight gain.
He complains of having an insatiable appetite and has had to buy new clothes because his old ones no longer fit. John feels like people are treating him differently because of his weight gain. When asked about his eating habits, he becomes upset and feels like he is being judged for being overweight.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Atypical depression
Explanation:Atypical depression can often be mistaken for a personality disorder due to its symptoms, which include sensitivity to rejection, low but reactive mood, some ability to experience pleasure (though not to normal levels), hyperphagia with at least 3 kg of weight gain in three months, hypersomnia, and a feeling of heaviness in the limbs. However, the key to diagnosing atypical depression is a change in function. It is important to gather collateral history to determine if there is a lifelong pattern of problems that have been exacerbated of if the break-up is due to the depression and the resulting sensitivity to rejection. The preferred treatment for atypical depression is MAOIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following is not a licensed treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)
The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.
– Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
– Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
– Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
– Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
– Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
– Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
– OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
– Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
– PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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Choose the initial treatment option for focal epilepsy from the given choices:
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Epilepsy: An Overview
Epilepsy is a condition that is diagnosed when a person experiences at least two unprovoked seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart. In the UK, the prevalence of epilepsy is 5-10 cases per 1000. Seizure types are categorized as focal onset of generalized onset. Focal seizures only involve a localized part of the brain, while generalized seizures involve the whole of both hemispheres. Temporal lobe epilepsy is the most common type of focal epilepsy, accounting for 60-70% of cases.
In 60% of people with epilepsy, there is no identifiable cause. Approximately 70% of people with epilepsy achieve remission, meaning they have no seizures for 5 years on of off treatment. of those with convulsive seizures, 2/3 have focal epilepsies and secondary generalized seizures, while the other 1/3 have generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treatment with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) after a second epileptic seizure. For newly diagnosed focal seizures, carbamazepine of lamotrigine are recommended as first-line treatment. Levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, of sodium valproate may be offered if carbamazepine and lamotrigine are unsuitable of not tolerated. For newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, with lamotrigine as an alternative if sodium valproate is unsuitable. For absence seizures, ethosuximide of sodium valproate are recommended as first-line treatment. For myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, and for tonic of atonic seizures, sodium valproate is also recommended as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the definition of secondary deviance?
Your Answer: An individual's reaction to experiences resulting from being labelled as deviant
Explanation:Primary deviance refers to the initial act of breaking a social rule of expectation, which may include health-related norms. On the other hand, secondary deviance describes the consequences of being stigmatized as a result of the primary deviant behavior. An example of this could be an individual joining a gang as a means of finding acceptance after being rejected by mainstream society. For more information on this topic, one can refer to resources such as SOS Sociology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the percentage of children who exhibit a secure attachment based on Ainsworth's initial research?
Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 28
Correct
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This is an example of automatic obedience. We can provide more details as the psychiatrist uses only a minimal amount of force to move the patient's arm, which is an instance of mitgehen. Mitgehen is an extreme form of automatic obedience.
Your Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:The examiner’s use of minimal force to move the patient’s arm is an instance of automatic obedience, but it can be categorized more precisely as mitgehen, which represents a heightened form of automatic obedience.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What signs of symptoms would indicate an epileptic seizure instead of a dissociative seizure?
Your Answer: A reduced postictal prolactin level
Correct Answer: Amnesia for the event
Explanation:Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Correct
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What clinical symptom is commonly seen in individuals with an underactive thyroid gland?
Your Answer: Prolonged relaxation phase of deep tendon reflexes
Explanation:Graves’ disease is a specific type of hyperthyroidism that is characterized by unique signs such as lid lag and retraction, exophthalmos, and pretibial myxoedema. Other signs of hyperthyroidism include low body weight and hyperactivity. However, signs such as periorbital edema, dry skin, and hoarse voice are associated with hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 31
Correct
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What is the purpose of the 'time out' strategy?
Your Answer: Reducing unwanted behaviour
Explanation:Managing Violent Behavior: Time Out vs Punishment vs Positive Reinforcement
When dealing with violent behavior, non-coercive methods such as time out are preferred. The goal is to help the patient calm down and learn to handle their anger of frustration in a non-violent manner. Time out involves the patient voluntarily removing themselves from the aggressive situation to a less stimulating environment. This technique is different from punishment, which is an aversive stimulus used to suppress an undesired response. Punishment reduces the likelihood of the response occurring again. Generalizing a learned behavior of stimulus generation is another method used to explain higher learning. This is related to classical conditioning and is not related to the time out technique. Positive reinforcement, such as praise, can be used to increase of learn new behaviors. For example, children may complete homework to earn a reward from a parent of teacher, of employees may finish projects to receive praise of promotions. Time out is not used to increase unwanted behavior of reduce desirable behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Treatments
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Question 32
Correct
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Which of the following is an example of an open question?
Your Answer: How did you feel when you were told you had schizophrenia?
Explanation:Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions
When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 33
Correct
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How can the inheritance pattern of a knight's move be demonstrated?
Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Explanation:The only X-linked condition among the 5 options is Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Modes of Inheritance
Genetic disorders can be passed down from one generation to the next in various ways. There are four main modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked (sex-linked), and multifactorial.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one. This type of inheritance shows vertical transmission, meaning it is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy, where a single gene influences several characteristics.
Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
In autosomal recessive conditions, a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and is labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.
X-linked (Sex-linked) Inheritance
In X-linked conditions, the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions, they can be dominant of recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons. In X-linked recessive conditions, the inheritance pattern is characterised by transmission from affected males to male grandchildren via affected carrier daughters.
Multifactorial Inheritance
Multifactorial conditions result from the interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 34
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six months ago, but stopped taking it five days ago due to perceived lack of efficacy. He has a history of asthma but no other significant medical history. Over the past two days, he has been experiencing heightened anxiety, sweating, headaches, and a sensation of needles in his head. During the appointment, he appears restless and paces around the room. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:It is important to be aware of the higher likelihood of experiencing discontinuation symptoms with paroxetine compared to other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors during exams.
Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 35
Correct
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Who received the Nobel prize for their discovery of dopamine's function as a neurotransmitter?
Your Answer: Carlsson
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A toy company is assessing a new product for children's cognitive development. What scale would be the most effective in evaluating the impact of the new educational toy?
Your Answer: Global assessment of functioning scale
Correct Answer: Scale for assessment of positive (SAPS) and assessment of negative symptoms (SANS)
Explanation:Several scales are utilized to assess the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, including the assessment of positive symptoms (SAPS) and assessment of negative symptoms (SANS). These scales are commonly used in research to evaluate the effectiveness of new medications. The global assessment of functioning scale is used by clinicians to determine a patient’s overall level of functioning. The Hamilton rating scale for depression (HAM-D) is a useful tool for monitoring the severity of depression and measuring the impact of treatment. Additionally, the schedule for affective disorders and schizophrenia (SADS) was created to standardize the diagnostic evaluation of psychiatric symptoms and reduce variability in information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 37
Correct
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In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the highest?
Your Answer: Young men
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is in a car accident where several individuals lose their lives. Although she is not physically harmed, she experiences a sense of detachment, confusion, and disorientation in the days that ensue, along with physical symptoms of trembling and perspiration. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a brief yet intense condition triggered by a highly distressing event that can cause a range of symptoms. Although the symptoms can appear quickly, they typically subside within a few days. These symptoms may include psychological effects like feeling disconnected of confused, as well as physical symptoms such as sweating, trembling, heart palpitations, and difficulty sleeping. In some cases, individuals may progress to develop post-traumatic stress disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 39
Incorrect
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How do an organism's genes and environmental factors interact to produce certain outcomes?
Your Answer: Karyotype
Correct Answer: Phenotype
Explanation:Inheritance: Phenotype and Genotype
Phenotype refers to the observable traits of an individual, such as height, eye colour, and blood type. These traits are a result of the interaction between an individual’s genotype and the environment. The term ‘pheno’ comes from the same root as ‘phenomenon’ and simply means ‘observe’.
On the other hand, genotype refers to an individual’s collection of genes. These genes determine the traits that an individual will inherit from their parents. A haplotype, on the other hand, is a set of DNA variations of polymorphisms that tend to be inherited together.
Finally, a karyotype refers to an individual’s collection of chromosomes. These chromosomes contain the genetic information that determines an individual’s traits. By examining an individual’s karyotype, scientists can determine if there are any genetic abnormalities of disorders present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 40
Correct
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How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?
Your Answer: A symbolic image in the collective unconscious
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 41
Correct
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What is the definition of the term 'prolixity'?
Your Answer: A less severe form of flight of ideas
Explanation:Prolixity is a minor form of flight of ideas that can occur during hypomania. It is characterized by a decrease in clang and verbal associations, and a more focused direction of thought. The speed of thought is also not as rapid as in other forms of flight of ideas.
Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 42
Correct
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What is a true statement about ADHD?
Your Answer: The heritability is similar in males and females.
Explanation:ADHD and Genetics
Decades of research have shown that genetics play a crucial role in the development of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and its comorbidity with other disorders. However, twin estimates of heritability being less than 100% suggest that environmental factors also play a role. Parents and siblings of a child with ADHD are more likely to have ADHD themselves, but the way ADHD is inherited is complex and not related to a single genetic fault. The heritability of ADHD is around 74%, and longitudinal studies show that two-thirds of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood. Adoption studies suggest that the familial factors of ADHD are attributable to genetic factors rather than shared environmental factors. The heritability is similar in males and females, and studies suggest that the diagnosis of ADHD is the extreme of a continuous distribution of ADHD symptoms in the population. Several candidate genes, including DAT1, DRD4, DRD5, 5 HTT, HTR1B, and SNAP25, have been identified as significantly associated with ADHD.
Source: Faraone (2019) Genetics of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Molecular Psychiatry volume 24, pages 562–575 (2019).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 43
Correct
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What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?
Your Answer: Generosity
Explanation:The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 44
Correct
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Can you identify a condition that falls under the category of tauopathy?
Your Answer: Pick's disease
Explanation:Tau and Tauopathies
Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.
When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.
The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 45
Correct
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What is the primary neurotransmitter in the brain that has an inhibitory effect?
Your Answer: GABA
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 46
Correct
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What is the main reason for the absence of staff uniforms in therapeutic communities?
Your Answer: Communalism
Explanation:Principles of Therapeutic Communities
Therapeutic communities are based on four main principles that guide their operations. The first principle is communalism, which emphasizes that staff and service users should not be separated by uniforms of behaviours. This means that everyone in the community is treated equally and with respect. The second principle is democratisation, which involves shared decision-making and unit management. This means that everyone in the community has a say in how things are run and decisions are made collectively. The third principle is permissiveness, which involves accepting and tolerating occasional unpredictable behaviour. This means that members of the community are encouraged to be themselves and express their emotions freely. The fourth principle is reality confrontation, which involves group members challenging self-deception among others. This means that members of the community are encouraged to be honest with themselves and others.
Group cohesion is another important aspect of therapeutic communities. It refers to the sense of belonging and acceptance that members of the community feel. This sense of belonging is fostered by the shared goal that the community is working towards. Members of the community understand that they are all in this together and that they need to support each other to achieve their goals. The sense of belonging and acceptance that comes with group cohesion is essential for the success of therapeutic communities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 47
Correct
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What is a side effect of sildenafil that occurs frequently, affecting more than 10% of users?
Your Answer: Headache
Explanation:Side effects of sildenafil (viagra) that occur frequently (affecting more than 1 in 10 people) include:
Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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As part of a cognitive evaluation, can you tell me the name of the current Prime Minister? This will help assess which type of memory?
Your Answer: Episodic
Correct Answer: Semantic
Explanation:According to Gelder (2009), semantic memory pertains to knowledge of facts and concepts that can be consciously recalled. Unlike episodic memory, which is also a type of declarative memory, semantic memory is not tied to any particular personal experience.
Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 49
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of memantine?
Your Answer: NMDA receptor antagonist
Explanation:Although cholinergic agents have been tested in Alzheimer’s disease, they have shown limited effectiveness. On the other hand, memantine, a N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, works by reducing the impact of glutamate mediated toxicity and has shown promise in treating the disease. Additionally, anti-amyloid strategies are currently being developed and, if successful, could directly target the disease process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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What is the most likely negative outcome for a patient who has just started taking donepezil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Headache is a very common symptom, while agitation and fatigue are also frequently reported. Bradycardia is less commonly observed. Extrapyramidal symptoms are rare occurrences.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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