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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient presents with an overdose of an unknown quantity of an unknown drug, which she took 4 hours earlier. During your assessment, she complains of severe ‘ringing’ in her ears. She has a resting respiratory rate of 24/min. Chest examination is clear.
Which one of the following drugs is she most likely to have taken?Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Common Overdose Symptoms and Treatments for Various Medications
Aspirin overdose can lead to tinnitus and hyperventilation, which are caused by metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis. Treatment for salicylate overdose is generally supportive care, but some patients may require urinary alkalinisation or haemodialysis.
Lithium overdose can cause neurological symptoms such as myoclonic jerks and twitches, confusion, and seizures, as well as cardiac dysrhythmias.
Paracetamol overdose is initially symptomless or causes gastrointestinal disturbance.
Amitriptyline overdose results in a stereotypical tricyclic overdose syndrome with dry mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, hypotension, low Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, and seizures.
Codeine phosphate overdose can have opiate effects.
Symptoms and Treatments for Common Medication Overdoses
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which bone is an uncommon location for metastatic spread?
Your Answer: Scapula
Correct Answer: Tibia
Explanation:Bone Metastasis and its Common Sites
Bone metastasis is a common cause of pain in cancer patients. It can also lead to pathological fractures and hypercalcaemia. The spine is the most commonly affected part of the skeleton, followed by the pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull. However, the tibia is rarely involved in bone metastasis.
In summary, bone metastasis is a significant concern for cancer patients, as it can cause pain and other complications. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients for signs of bone metastasis, especially in the commonly affected sites such as the spine, pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 29-year-old man presented to the hospital, accompanied by the police after having had a fight in a casino. The casino manager called the police when the man refused to leave after he had spent almost 24 hours gambling. The patient ran out of money and was harassing other clients, trying to borrow money from them and telling them that he will return it after he had won and invested the prize money. The patient has no known next of kin and refuses to engage with the attending doctor. He threatens to assault the medical staff and is eventually put under urgent mental health Section 4. A review of his medical notes reveals that the only medication on which he has been is lithium for a known psychiatric illness, but he has not been in touch with his general practitioner for the past two months.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Check the lithium levels and consider adding olanzapine
Explanation:Management of Bipolar Depression with Mania or Hypomania
According to the latest NICE guideline CG85, patients with bipolar depression presenting with mania or hypomania should have their lithium levels checked and consider adding an antipsychotic such as haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine or risperidone. Therefore, checking the lithium levels and considering adding olanzapine is the correct answer in this case.
Stopping lithium without checking the levels first is not recommended as it is a mood stabiliser and may be required for the patient. Starting haloperidol or risperidone without checking the lithium levels is also not recommended as the doctor must consider the patient’s lithium levels before adding an antipsychotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain is concentrated in the epigastric region and is relieved by leaning forward. He has vomited twice, but there was no blood in the vomit.
Upon examination, he appears unwell and sweaty. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 100/72 mmHg, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and temperature is 39.2 ºC.
Given his complex medical history and multiple daily medications, which medication is most likely causing his symptoms?Your Answer: Clozapine
Correct Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:The drug that can cause drug-induced pancreatitis is mesalazine. This patient is exhibiting the typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, such as severe epigastric pain that is relieved by leaning forward, accompanied by vomiting and fever. Although there can be multiple causes of this condition, drug-induced pancreatitis is a common one. Mesalazine has been identified as a causative agent, but the exact mechanism is still unknown. It is believed that salicylic acid may increase the permeability of the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation.
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures, but it has not been shown to cause pancreatitis, although it can cause hepatitis and other side effects. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat complicated schizophrenia, but it has not been linked to pancreatitis, although it can cause agranulocytosis, neutropenia, constipation, myocarditis, and seizures. Ramipril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor that has not been associated with pancreatitis, but it may cause cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of diarrhoea that has lasted for 2 weeks. She mentions passing mucous and blood rectally and reports feeling generally unwell. During the examination, the GP observes aphthous ulceration in her mouth and suspects a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis (UC). The GP decides to refer the patient to a gastroenterology consultant.
What is the recommended first-line medication for patients with mild to moderate UC?Your Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the rectum and may spread to the colon. The main symptom is bloody diarrhea, and the disease follows a relapsing and remitting course. The goal of UC management is to treat acute relapses, prevent relapses, and detect cancers early.
Mesalazine is an effective first-line treatment for mild to moderate UC, which involves enemas and oral medication. For moderately active cases, oral aminosalicylates, topical aminosalicylates, and corticosteroids are used. Azathioprine is an immunomodulator that is rarely used to induce remission but is used to keep patients in remission. Hydrocortisone is a systemic steroid used for severe cases. Infliximab is an anti-tumor necrosis factor biologic used for moderate to severe cases that are refractory to standard treatment. Methotrexate is an alternative immunomodulator for patients who cannot tolerate azathioprine. It is important to discuss adequate contraception with patients on methotrexate due to its teratogenicity.
Understanding Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old man with a history of asthma and ulcerative colitis presents with an itchy, red rash in the right and left popliteal regions. He works as a teacher and continuously scratches the back of his knees when he is at work. This is the second time he has suffered from such a popliteal rash. He states that previously he has had similar skin conditions affecting his anterior wrist and antecubital areas. On examination, both popliteal areas are erythematosus with slight oedema and weeping. There are some overlying vesicles and papules.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions Based on Location and Distribution
When it comes to diagnosing skin conditions, the location and distribution of the rash or lesion are just as important as its appearance. For example, a rash in the flexural regions of an adult patient, such as the popliteal region, is likely to be atopic dermatitis. This is especially true if the patient has a history of asthma, indicating an atopic tendency. Acute dermatitis typically presents with redness, swelling, vesicles, and papules.
Other skin conditions have different characteristic distributions. Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is associated with coeliac disease and malabsorption, typically appears as grouped vesicles or papules on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. Seborrhoeic dermatitis is found in areas with sebaceous glands, such as the scalp, eyebrows, and presternal regions. Lichen planus presents as flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques, usually on the wrists, ankles, or genitalia. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces silvery, scaling, erythematosus plaques, primarily on the extensor surfaces.
In summary, understanding the location and distribution of a skin condition can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease and depression underwent bypass surgery last night. His depression has responded well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and there is no past history of psychosis. His blood pressure is also well controlled with medications. The following morning, he develops confusion, agitation and irritability, tries to remove his intravenous (iv) lines and wants to run away from hospital. His level of consciousness fluctuates, and at times he forgets who he is. He is given a neuroleptic drug and appears much improved.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Adjustment disorder
Correct Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Differentiating Delirium from Other Psychiatric Disorders in Postoperative Patients
Delirium is a common complication that can occur after surgery and general anesthesia. It is characterized by acute changes in mental status, including waxing and waning levels of consciousness, agitation, irritability, and psychosis. While delirium is self-limited and can be managed with low-dose neuroleptics, it is important to differentiate it from other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms.
Schizophrenia, for example, typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and bizarre behavior, and tends to start at a younger age than the acute symptoms seen in postoperative patients. It is also characterized by a progressive deterioration in functioning. Adjustment disorder, on the other hand, can result from any psychosocial or biological stressor, and may present with anxiety, irritability, and depressive mood. However, fluctuating levels of consciousness are not typically seen in this disorder.
Dementia can also present with irritability, confusion, and agitation, but it follows an insidious course and does not have a fluctuating course like delirium. Finally, severe depression can present with psychotic features, suicidal ideation, and irritability, but the patient’s history of good response to SSRIs and lack of prior history of psychosis can help differentiate it from delirium.
In summary, while delirium is a common complication of surgery and anesthesia, it is important to consider other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms in order to provide appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 8
Correct
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A 49-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a witnessed fall. He struck his head on the pavement. He is known to the nursing staff, having been brought in on numerous occasions for the management of alcohol intoxication. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits, but he is minimally responsive to verbal commands and has slurred speech. He has an elevated serum alcohol level. A computed tomography (CT) brain is reported as normal. He is admitted for overnight observation, hydrated with intravenous dextrose and given acetaminophen for pain relief.
By day 2 of his admission, he remains confused and inappropriate. He appears at times indifferent and does not pay attention to questioning. When he does respond, his answers are tangential and he does not appear to know his own name. On morning ward rounds, you notice that he has a bilateral rectus palsy which was not present at the time of admission. A repeat CT of his brain is normal.
To which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is this presentation is most likely due?Your Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:The Importance of B Vitamins in Neurological Health
B vitamins play a crucial role in neurological health, and deficiencies can lead to a range of symptoms and conditions. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, characterized by encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction, and gait ataxia, is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B1 and is commonly seen in chronic alcohol users and those with anorexia nervosa or hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B3 deficiency can cause neurologic symptoms, photosensitivity dermatitis, and GI upset, while vitamin B2 deficiency can lead to normochromic, normocytic anemia, pharyngitis, cheilitis, glossitis, and stomatitis. Vitamin B5 deficiency is rare but can cause paraesthesiae of the extremities and GI upset. Vitamin B12 deficiency has multi-system effects, including neurologic syndromes, haematologic syndrome, and skeletal changes. It is crucial to address any potential deficiencies in B vitamins to prevent these neurological complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of feeling tired and dizzy upon standing up. His family members are worried because they have noticed a change in his facial appearance. Upon further investigation, the following laboratory results were obtained:
Serum:
Na+ 128 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
K+ 6.1 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
Short adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test:
Plasma cortisol:
0900 h 150 nmol/l (140–690 nmol/l)
30 min after ACTH: 155 nmol/l
60 min after ACTH: 155 nmol/l
0900 h ACTH: 6 ng/l (normal <50 ng/l)
What condition is consistent with these findings?Your Answer: Cushing’s disease
Correct Answer: Abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy
Explanation:Causes of Adrenal Hypofunction: Understanding the Biochemistry
Adrenal hypofunction can occur due to various reasons, and understanding the underlying biochemistry can help in identifying the cause. The following are some of the common causes of adrenal hypofunction and their associated biochemical changes:
Abrupt Withdrawal of Corticosteroid Therapy: The most common cause of adrenal hypofunction is the suppression of the pituitary-adrenal axis due to therapeutic corticosteroid therapy. During therapy, patients may present with Cushing’s syndrome, which causes a moon face. However, if therapy is withdrawn abruptly or demand for cortisol increases without a concomitant dosage increase, symptoms and signs of adrenal hypofunction can occur. This results in the loss of Na+ and retention of K+. Prolonged suppression of the adrenals means that output of cortisol cannot increase in response to the ACTH stimulation test until function has recovered. Additionally, patients will classically become hypotensive.
Adrenal Metastases: Adrenal metastases cause adrenal failure through destruction of the gland tissue. So the same biochemistry will occur as in abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy, but ACTH levels would be expected to be high, owing to lack of negative feedback.
Conn’s Syndrome: In Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism), the high aldosterone levels result in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia, unlike what is seen in patients with adrenal hypofunction.
Hypopituitarism: This results in secondary adrenal failure, so Na+ is lost and K+ retained.
Cushing’s Disease: Cushing’s disease resulting from overproduction of cortisol results in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia because cortisol has some mineralocorticoid activity.
In conclusion, understanding the biochemistry of adrenal hypofunction can help in identifying the underlying cause and guiding appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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You are asked to assess a 50-year-old woman who has a medical history of bipolar disorder and is currently undergoing lithium therapy. The patient seems disoriented and restless. The nurse informs you that she has ingested a significant amount of lithium, and her blood tests reveal a rapid deterioration in kidney function. As part of your initial treatment, you order fluids.
What is the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer: Haemodialysis
Explanation:Haemodialysis is necessary in cases of severe lithium toxicity.
When a patient presents with acute lithium toxicity, particularly if it has led to renal impairment and neurological symptoms, haemodialysis is the recommended course of action. While supportive measures like fluid resuscitation may be used initially, dialysis is the most effective way to clear the body of excess lithium in cases of severe toxicity.
Understanding Lithium Toxicity
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.
Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.
In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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