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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week history of fever, malaise, a generalised rash and a sore throat. During the examination, there is an erythematous rash affecting the entire body and generalised lymphadenopathy. She confesses to a history of intravenous drug use. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Glandular fever

      Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficieny Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      HIV, glandular fever, measles, rubella, and syphilis are all infectious diseases with distinct symptoms and modes of transmission. HIV is more common among at-risk groups such as intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, and sex workers. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus and is common in young adult populations. Measles and rubella are RNA viruses transmitted by respiratory droplet spread, with measles being uncommon in the UK due to vaccination rates. Syphilis is a treponemal infection with distinct stages, but is not associated with drug use and doesn’t present with prominent systemic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      78.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A preschool teacher arranges an educational session at the Preschool assembly where they...

    Correct

    • A preschool teacher arranges an educational session at the Preschool assembly where they talk about healthy eating. This could be best described as an example of which of the following concepts?

      Your Answer: Health promotion

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum includes Public Health as part of the statement on ‘Healthy People: promoting health and preventing disease,’ which are commonly encountered in Primary Care.

      The nurse in this scenario is practicing health promotion, which is defined by the World Health Organisation as ‘the process of enabling people to increase control over, and to improve, their health.’

      Health surveillance, as defined by WHO, involves the continuous and systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data for public health practice. An example of this is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.

      Screening is the process of testing a population or selected subgroup for a disease in its early or pre-symptomatic stage to provide earlier treatment and improve outcomes. In the UK, examples of screening programs include breast screening, cervical screening, and bowel cancer screening. It is linked to the concept of secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a disease at an earlier stage to reduce morbidity and mortality.

      Understanding Health Promotion and Surveillance

      Health promotion refers to the process of empowering individuals to take control of their health and improve it. This is achieved through various means such as education, awareness campaigns, and access to healthcare services. The World Health Organisation defines health promotion as a continuous process that enables people to increase their control over their health.

      On the other hand, health surveillance is the systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data. This data is used to plan, implement, and evaluate public health practices. Health surveillance is crucial in identifying health trends and patterns, which can help in the prevention and control of diseases. An example of health surveillance is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.

      In summary, health promotion and surveillance are essential components of public health. Health promotion empowers individuals to take control of their health, while health surveillance provides valuable data that can be used to plan and implement effective public health interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about mumps infection? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about mumps infection?

      Your Answer: Sterility commonly follows orchitis

      Explanation:

      Mumps: Symptoms and Complications

      Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. It can affect any of the salivary glands, but sometimes only one gland is affected. In rare cases, mumps can cause meningoencephalitis, which is inflammation of the brain and its surrounding tissues.

      One of the common complications of mumps is orchitis, which is inflammation of the testicles. This occurs in around 25% of cases and can cause pain, swelling, and fever. However, sterility is a relatively uncommon complication following orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old schoolteacher is admitted with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

    His temperature is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old schoolteacher is admitted with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

      His temperature is 39.0°C, pulse rate 120 beats/min and he has no skin rash or focal neurological signs. His Glasgow coma scale is 15/15.

      A CT scan shows no contraindication to lumbar puncture. CSF is obtained and Gram stain shows Gram-positive cocci, subsequent culture confirms a pneumococcal meningitis.

      What chemoprophylaxis should be offered to his pupils?

      Your Answer: No chemoprophylaxis required

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Chemoprophylaxis for Meningitis Close Contacts

      Chemoprophylaxis is not typically recommended for individuals who have been in close contact with someone who has pneumococcal meningitis. However, for those who have been in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis, chemoprophylaxis with rifampicin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, or azithromycin is often used. For individuals who have been in close contact with someone who has Haemophilus influenza meningitis, rifampicin is recommended. Additionally, children under the age of two should receive a vaccination for Haemophilus influenza meningitis. Proper chemoprophylaxis and vaccination can help prevent the spread of meningitis and protect individuals who have been in close contact with those who have the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      112.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
    In...

    Correct

    • A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
      In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?

      Your Answer: 60-69 years

      Explanation:

      Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK

      According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.

      Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.

      It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about to board a plane. She reports general uneasiness about travelling in any form of transport and has started avoiding it if possible. Six months earlier, she sustained minor injuries in a fatal plane crash. She has also become irritable and intolerant to noise, has been awoken by dreams about accidents and admits to being depressed.
      Which of the following is the most suitable management option?

      Your Answer: Prescribe temazepam

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that requires appropriate treatment. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line treatment for those with severe symptoms or persistent symptoms beyond the first month after the event. This therapy includes exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing is an alternative therapy for prolonged symptoms. Antidepressants may be used as an adjunct to psychological therapy or if patients decline or fail to respond to psychological therapy.

      Hypnotics such as temazepam may be considered for short-term use, but they are not first-line treatment for PTSD. Mirtazapine is a suitable second-line treatment if cognitive therapy is unsuitable or ineffective. Relaxation and non-directive therapy should not be routinely offered as they do not address traumatic memories.

      For mild symptoms present for less than four weeks after the event, watchful waiting should be considered, with follow-up within one month. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for PTSD to improve symptoms and overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      97.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner?

      Your Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.

      Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.

      Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old female presents following a recent hospital admission with a small stroke.

    She...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old female presents following a recent hospital admission with a small stroke.

      She informs you that she has had some difficulty finding her way to your surgery in the car. On closer questioning it is quite apparent that she has some problems with memory impairment and has become slower after this small stroke.

      She had a medical examination one year ago and has three years left on her driving licence before she next needs a further medical. You inform her that you feel she should give up driving but she adamantly refuses to give up as she is dependent upon the car for getting about.

      What should you do?

      Your Answer: Inform the DVLA that in your opinion the patient is not fit to drive

      Explanation:

      Duty to Report Elderly Drivers

      Elderly drivers are at a higher risk of accidents, even in good conditions and involving only two vehicles. This risk is further increased by any disabilities they may have. While doctors have a duty of confidentiality, this is outweighed by their duty to the wider community. If a patient is considered a risk and cannot be persuaded to give up driving voluntarily, the doctor should inform the DVLA. The patient should also be informed that if they do not inform the DVLA, the doctor will do so in the best interests of the public. Additionally, regulations require that elderly drivers give up driving for a month after a stroke. It is important for doctors to prioritize public safety and take action when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      395.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old male patient of yours is confused. He has had nausea and...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male patient of yours is confused. He has had nausea and vomiting for two days and is now complaining of yellow vision.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Xanthopsia and Digoxin Toxicity

      Confusion, nausea, vomiting, and yellow discoloration of vision are all symptoms that suggest digoxin toxicity. Xanthopsia, or yellow vision, is a rare but possible side effect of digoxin toxicity, particularly in the elderly. Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits and impaired vision, but it doesn’t result in xanthopsia.

      While rotavirus and viral labyrinthitis may cause nausea and vomiting, they do not result in xanthopsia. It is important to note that the elderly are often more susceptible to side effects from medications due to various factors such as declining renal function and rates of gastric emptying.

      If a patient presents with xanthopsia and other symptoms of digoxin toxicity, it is crucial to consider the possibility of digoxin toxicity and take appropriate action. The British National Formulary provides information on digoxin and its potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with a large scaly erythematous eruption...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with a large scaly erythematous eruption on the left side of his chest with a few smaller patches nearby. He believes it started about a year ago. The edge of the lesion looks a bit more inflamed than the central parts. It is itchy. Your colleague gave him topical steroids, and he thinks there may have been some improvement, but it never went away and worsened on stopping the treatment.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Tinea corporis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Epidermal Conditions: Distinguishing Features and Diagnosis

      When it comes to epidermal conditions, eczema and psoriasis are often the first to come to mind. However, there are other conditions that produce scale and have distinct features that set them apart. One such condition is ringworm, which is characterized by asymmetrical lesions with an active scaly edge and central clearing. To diagnose ringworm, skin scrapings should be taken and sent for fungal analysis, as it is often caused by the dermatophyte Trichophyton rubrum.

      It is important to note that treating a potential tinea infection with potent steroids can alter the appearance of the lesion and even produce pustules. Therefore, it is crucial to have a negative skin scraping before using strong steroids. Additionally, tinea infections may also be present on the feet with nail involvement.

      Other epidermal conditions, such as pityriasis rosea and pityriasis versicolor, have their own distinct features. Pityriasis rosea begins with a herald patch followed by smaller oval red scaly patches mainly on the chest and back. Pityriasis versicolor, on the other hand, affects the trunk, neck, and/or arms and is caused by a yeast infection rather than a dermatophyte infection.

      In summary, understanding the distinguishing features and proper diagnosis of different epidermal conditions is crucial in providing effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      196.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not yet developed much speech. His ears seem abnormally large and he has a long thin face. He is quite an overactive child.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms

      Fragile X Syndrome, ADHD, Down Syndrome, Marfan Syndrome, and Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness are genetic disorders that affect individuals in different ways. Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both boys and girls, causing learning difficulties, delayed development, and other symptoms such as attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, autistic spectrum disorder, and speech problems. ADHD is a combination of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning and/or development. Down Syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, physical abnormalities, and a low IQ due to an additional chromosome 21. Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting connective tissue, resulting in skeletal, skin, cardiac, aortic, ocular, and dura mater malformations. Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness is most commonly inherited by autosomal-recessive genes, and children have a normal appearance and IQ. Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these genetic disorders is crucial for early diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few months she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, mood changes and pain on intercourse. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) has been > 40 µIU/l on two separate occasions, and her serum oestradiol level is low. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin are normal. Fasting blood glucose is normal. Pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premature ovarian insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Symptoms

      Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a condition that affects at least 1% of women under the age of 40 years. It is characterized by elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), low oestradiol, and prolonged amenorrhoea. In most cases, no underlying cause is identified, but familial history, autoimmune lymphocytic oophoritis, infections, and iatrogenic causes such as surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy may contribute to the condition. Spontaneous recovery of fertility is unlikely.

      Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour, hypopituitarism, polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and thyrotoxicosis are incorrect diagnoses for POI. Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour is rare and presents with hirsutism, acne, and clitoral enlargement. Hypopituitarism is caused by anterior pituitary tumours and may result in pressure features, ACTH deficiency, TSH deficiency, GH deficiency, ADH deficiency, and gonadotrophin deficiency. PCOS is unlikely due to the raised FSH and lack of hyperandrogenism. Thyrotoxicosis is ruled out by the normal TSH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle. The male GP takes a detailed history and requests to examine the genital area, offering a chaperone. The patient agrees, and a female nurse practitioner acts as a chaperone. The GP conducts the examination, speaking only when necessary. Following the examination, he documents the chaperone's acceptance, last name, and role.

      Has anything been done incorrectly?

      Your Answer: The offer of a chaperone

      Correct Answer: Recording of only the last name and role

      Explanation:

      It is important to document the full name and role of a chaperone when they are used during an intimate or intrusive examination. The chaperone should be impartial and not related to the patient. Patients are allowed to express a preference for the gender of the chaperone. During the examination, it is recommended that the GP only speaks if necessary.

      GMC Guidelines on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided comprehensive guidance on how to conduct intimate examinations and the role of chaperones in the process. Intimate examinations refer to any procedure that a patient may consider intrusive or intimate, such as examinations of the genitalia, rectum, and breasts. Before performing such an examination, doctors must obtain informed consent from the patient, explaining the procedure, its purpose, and the extent of exposure required. During the examination, doctors should only speak if necessary, and patients have the right to stop the examination at any point.

      Chaperones are impartial individuals who offer support to patients during intimate examinations and observe the procedure to ensure that it is conducted professionally. They should be healthcare workers who have no relation to the patient or doctor, and their full name and role should be documented in the medical records. Patients may also wish to have family members present for support, but they cannot act as chaperones as they are not impartial. Doctors should not feel pressured to perform an examination without a chaperone if they are uncomfortable doing so. In such cases, they should refer the patient to a colleague who is comfortable with the examination.

      It is not mandatory to have a chaperone present during an intimate examination, and patients may refuse one. However, the offer and refusal of a chaperone should be documented in the medical records. If a patient makes any allegations against the doctor regarding the examination, the chaperone can be called upon as a witness. In cases where a patient refuses a chaperone, doctors should explain the reasons for offering one and refer the patient to another service if necessary. The GMC guidelines aim to ensure that intimate examinations are conducted with sensitivity, respect, and professionalism, while also protecting the interests of both patients and doctors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old woman presents with painful, red skin on the inside of her...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with painful, red skin on the inside of her thigh. This has developed over the past 4-5 days and has not happened before. She is normally fit and well and no past medical history of note other than depression.

      On examination she has erythematous, tender skin on the medial aspect of her right thigh consistent with the long saphenous vein. The vein is palpable and cord-like. There is no associated swelling of the right calf and no history of chest pain or dyspnoea.

      Her heart rate is 84/min and her temperature is 37.0ºC. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Refer for an ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound scan should be conducted on patients with superficial thrombophlebitis of the long saphenous vein to rule out the possibility of an underlying DVT.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of patients will have an underlying deep vein thrombosis at presentation and 3-4% will progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. The use of low-molecular weight heparin has been shown to reduce extension and transformation to DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT and can be considered for prophylactic doses of LMWH for up to 30 days. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea for six months. A pregnancy test is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea for six months. A pregnancy test is negative. Over the past few months, she has occasionally been leaking milk and presents now as this has occurred more and more during stimulation and intercourse and she is becoming distressed by it. Thyroid function testing is normal. She takes no medication. Her serum prolactin level is 2400 mU/l.
      Which of the following statements regarding this patients diagnosis and management is correct?

      Your Answer: A visual field defect is likely

      Correct Answer: Cabergoline is effective therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cabergoline Therapy for Prolactinomas

      Prolactinomas are benign tumors of the pituitary gland that secrete prolactin, a hormone responsible for lactation. In women, high levels of prolactin can cause menstrual irregularities, infertility, and osteoporosis. Cabergoline is a dopamine agonist that effectively lowers prolactin levels and shrinks microprolactinomas.

      Diagnosis of a microprolactinoma is typically made through MRI scanning and elevated serum prolactin levels. Cabergoline is the preferred treatment option, as it has fewer adverse effects than bromocriptine and can normalize prolactin levels in 70-100% of patients. Long-term treatment may be necessary, but withdrawal can be attempted after two years.

      A visual field defect is unlikely unless the patient has a macroadenoma, which can cause pressure effects due to its size. Surgery may be necessary for macroprolactinomas to reduce tumor size. Observation may be appropriate for asymptomatic patients, but treatment is indicated for adverse effects of hyperprolactinemia, such as infertility and osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      90.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner in a state of distress....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner in a state of distress. He reports that he has been abusing opiates and has suddenly stopped, experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following features is NOT typical of opiate withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Rapid heart rate

      Correct Answer: Constricted pupils

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioid Withdrawal Syndrome: Symptoms and Signs

      Opioid withdrawal syndrome can be likened to a severe flu-like illness. The symptoms include rhinorrhea, sneezing, yawning, lacrimation, abdominal and leg cramping, gooseflesh, sweating, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and rapid heart rate. Patients may also feel anxious, tremulous, and restless. Dilated pupils are a common sign of opioid withdrawal and cannot be easily faked. Therefore, careful inspection of the pupils is necessary when a patient claims to be experiencing withdrawal symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      143
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The dementia specialist starts a senior woman, diagnosed with severe Alzheimer's dementia, on...

    Incorrect

    • The dementia specialist starts a senior woman, diagnosed with severe Alzheimer's dementia, on a medication to address her cognitive impairment. What medication does NICE suggest for severe Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Correct Answer: Memantine

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine, are a class of drugs used to treat cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia. The goal is to slow down the rate of decline, and approximately half of patients respond positively to the medication. However, it is difficult to determine the individual response as it is unknown how much deterioration would have occurred without the medication. Memantine, a glutamate receptor antagonist, is another drug used in Alzheimer’s disease and is recommended for severe dementia or when anticholinesterase inhibitors cannot be used. Rivastigmine can also be prescribed for dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease. Unfortunately, there are currently no medications available to treat cognitive symptoms in vascular dementia. While specialists with expertise in prescribing these medications (such as psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists) are currently the only ones who can initiate treatment, GPs may be asked to take over prescribing and monitoring under Shared Care Agreements. Therefore, it is important for GPs to be aware of prescribing issues.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who is being treated by a...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who is being treated by a rheumatologist. Despite taking methotrexate and sulfasalazine, she did not experience satisfactory results and is now on leflunomide. The rheumatologist has advised her to continue taking her combined oral contraceptive pill, but she is interested in starting a family in the future. What is the recommended waiting period after discontinuing leflunomide before attempting to conceive?

      Your Answer: At least 2 years

      Explanation:

      Women and men who are taking leflunomide must use effective contraception for a minimum of 2 years and 3 months respectively after discontinuing the medication, similar to the requirements for thalidomide.

      Leflunomide: A DMARD for Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Leflunomide is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. It is important to note that this medication has a very long half-life, which means that its teratogenic potential should be taken into consideration. As such, it is contraindicated in pregnant women, and effective contraception is essential during treatment and for at least two years after treatment in women, and at least three months after treatment in men. Caution should also be exercised in patients with pre-existing lung and liver disease.

      Like any medication, leflunomide can cause adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include gastrointestinal issues such as diarrhea, hypertension, weight loss or anorexia, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and pneumonitis. To monitor for any potential complications, patients taking leflunomide should have their full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and blood pressure checked regularly.

      If a patient needs to stop taking leflunomide, it is important to note that the medication has a very long wash-out period of up to a year. To help speed up the process, co-administration of cholestyramine may be necessary. Overall, leflunomide can be an effective treatment option for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are conducting a medication review for Mrs Jones, a 75-year-old woman. You...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a medication review for Mrs Jones, a 75-year-old woman. You observe that she has been on alendronate for the past 4 years following a FRAX score that indicated a risk of fracture. She has not experienced any fractures before. Her other medications consist of ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, and allopurinol. She reports no adverse effects from her medications.

      What is the best course of action concerning her bisphosphonate treatment?

      Your Answer: Continue alendronate for now as ongoing risk factors

      Correct Answer: Arrange a repeat DEXA scan and reassess need to continue alendronate

      Explanation:

      According to the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group and NICE guidelines, individuals with osteoporosis who are undergoing treatment with alendronate should have their 10 year fracture risk evaluated again after 5 years. After this point, it may be appropriate to discontinue treatment, although this decision should be made on a case-by-case basis. Patients who are over 75, have a history of hip or vertebral fracture, have experienced any low trauma fracture while on treatment, or are still taking steroid therapy should continue with their treatment.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year old female patient has come to you seeking advice on alternative...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old female patient has come to you seeking advice on alternative contraception. She recently received a diagnosis of epilepsy and has been prescribed a new medication by a neurologist. The neurologist informed her that her current method of contraception, the combined oral contraceptive pill, will be less effective with the new medication. Can you identify which medication she may have started taking?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine induces P450 enzymes.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      717.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist.

      What is an example of a medication that falls under the category of muscarinic antagonist?

      Your Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      8.9
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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for 3 months. The patient reports no significant improvement in the frequency of the episodes. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line pharmacological treatment for panic disorder?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman receives a Levonorgestrel-intrauterine system for birth control on the 6th...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman receives a Levonorgestrel-intrauterine system for birth control on the 6th day of her menstrual cycle. How many more days of contraception does she need?

      Your Answer: None

      Explanation:

      No additional contraception is needed if an LNG-IUS or Levonorgestrel-IUS is inserted on day 1-7 of the cycle. However, if it is inserted outside this timeframe, 7 days of additional contraception is required. Since the patient is currently on day 6 of her cycle, there is no need for extra precautions.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to...

    Correct

    • A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to provide concerning sperm collection?

      Your Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as...

    Correct

    • A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as they are concerned about his development. He was born at term. He was a little slow to crawl but started walking at around 18 months. He has never had much speech. In the last few weeks, he has stopped walking and stopped feeding himself. He has started clapping his hands every few minutes and at times seems very distressed and screams. He has not been unwell with a fever or recent illness. The is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child in the video exhibits symptoms of a rare neurological genetic disorder called Rett syndrome. This condition is caused by a random mutation of the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome and typically affects girls between six and 18 months of age. Symptoms include delayed speech, muscle weakness, and jerky hand movements, which can be distressing for the individual. Other possible symptoms include microcephaly, seizures, and scoliosis. Sturge-Weber syndrome, Angelman syndrome, phenylketonuria, and encephalitis are unlikely diagnoses based on the absence of specific symptoms and history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you due to ongoing problems with reflux.

      The baby has been seen in paediatric outpatients and was started on ranitidine. You can see from the clinic letters that this was started at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg three times a day but to achieve symptom control it has been titrated to 3 mg/kg TDS. The higher dose seems to be controlling symptoms well.

      The paediatricians have asked you to continue to prescribe the ranitidine at a dose of 3 mg/kg until they review the child again in four weeks time.

      You weigh the child today and the current weight is 6 kg. Ranitidine oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 1 ml TDS

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Ranitidine Dose for a 5 kg Child

      When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on their weight. In this case, the child weighs 5 kg and the prescribed dose of ranitidine is 3 mg/kg TDS. To calculate the correct dose, we multiply the child’s weight by the prescribed dose: 5 x 3 = 15 mg TDS.

      The oral solution of ranitidine is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. This means that there is 15 mg of ranitidine in 1 ml of the solution. Therefore, the correct dose for the child is 1 ml TDS.

      It is important to ensure that the correct dosage is administered to avoid any potential adverse effects or ineffective treatment. By following the appropriate calculations and using the correct concentration of medication, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      147.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.

      She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.

      Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?

      Your Answer: Isotretinoin

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      Medications and Depression

      Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30 for contraception for the past two years. However, she recently went on a weekend trip with her partner and forgot to take her pills, missing two in a row. She had regular intercourse with her partner during the weekend. Today, she is supposed to take the 19th pill of the packet and claims not to have missed any other pills. You advise her to take two pills as soon as possible. What further advice should you give her?

      Your Answer: Use condoms for the next 7 days

      Correct Answer: Use condoms for the next 7 days + skip the 7 day break

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      82.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Ms Adebayo, a 26-year-old patient, presents with a complaint of feeling constantly tired....

    Correct

    • Ms Adebayo, a 26-year-old patient, presents with a complaint of feeling constantly tired. She believes this has been happening gradually over the past few months and has no other specific physical symptoms. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, a non-smoker, and reports drinking a bottle of wine per week. Ms Adebayo has a family history of thyroid disease and wonders if she is developing a thyroid problem. She also mentions that she has been a vegan for a couple of years and asks if this could be related.

      After conducting various blood tests, an abnormal full blood count was discovered:

      Hb 91 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 220 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      MCV 109 fL (80-100)

      What is the likely underlying cause of Ms Adebayo's fatigue?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      A deficiency in Vitamin B12 is a risk factor for megaloblastic anaemia, which is the most likely cause in this case. Vegans are particularly susceptible to B12 deficiency as it is only naturally found in animal products. To prevent this, vegans should consume B12 fortified products or take supplements.

      Excessive alcohol consumption can also lead to megaloblastic anaemia, but there is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest this as the cause.

      Iron deficiency is an incorrect answer as it causes microcytic anaemia. However, vegans should still ensure they consume enough iron in their diet.

      Hyperthyroidism is also an incorrect answer as it is hypothyroidism that causes macrocytic anaemia.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      61.6
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with coeliac disease. You need to refer him...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with coeliac disease. You need to refer him to a dietician. You have the dietitian email address and so decide to email the referral.

      Which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: You should ensure that both your email account and that of the dietician are encrypted and secure

      Explanation:

      Importance of Secure Information Transmission

      It is crucial to ensure that information is transmitted securely, regardless of the method used. This means that sending information via email is acceptable as long as it is secure. When answering questions related to this topic, it is essential to consider the broader principles involved rather than specific referral patterns. It is possible that different regions may have different referral methods, so it is important not to become confused or overwhelmed if the scenario presented doesn’t match your own practice. For example, just because you send referrals by letter doesn’t mean you should choose the option to send the referral by post as well. The key principle is that the method used should be secure. The NHS Code of Practice on Confidentiality provides further guidance on this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      2386.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/2) 0%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (1/3) 33%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (2/2) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Leadership And Management (1/1) 100%
Passmed