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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following patients is eligible for AAA screening?
Your Answer: 65-year-old male with no significant past medical history or family history
Explanation:AAA screening is available for men who are 65 years of age or older, as well as for men and women who have a significant family history of AAA. None of the other options meet the criteria for AAA screening eligibility.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication. You want to choose a drug that is least likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Your clinic has recently implemented an electronic clinical decision support tool, so you decide to utilize it to determine the best medication option. You enter the query Antipsychotic/least extrapyramidal side effects into the tool, and it recommends either olanzapine or risperidone. What course of action should you take?
Your Answer: Get more clinical information and check if there is a guideline in place about whether antipsychotics should be first prescribed in primary or secondary care
Correct Answer: Ask another Registrar what they think
Explanation:Cautionary Note on Clinical Decision Support Tools
When it comes to clinical decision making, it’s important to exercise caution and not rely solely on clinical decision support tools. While tools like NIHR can be helpful, they should not be followed blindly. It’s always best to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.
For instance, while olanzapine or risperidone may be the best options for treating schizophrenia, there may be guidelines in place that recommend prescribing antipsychotics in secondary care. Therefore, it’s important to consider all relevant factors before making a decision.
In summary, clinical decision support tools can be useful, but they should not be the sole basis for decision making. It’s important to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic for a medication review. He has been prescribed clopidogrel after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack during an overnight hospital stay. Which medication from his repeat prescription is expected to decrease the efficacy of clopidogrel?
Your Answer: Ranitidine
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Using clopidogrel and omeprazole/esomeprazole at the same time can decrease the effectiveness of clopidogrel.
Research has demonstrated that taking clopidogrel and omeprazole simultaneously can lead to a decrease in exposure to the active metabolite of clopidogrel. This interaction is considered moderate in severity according to the BNF, and the manufacturer recommends avoiding concurrent use. The same holds true for esomeprazole.
There is no evidence to suggest that any of the other medications listed have an impact on the effectiveness of clopidogrel.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about pertussis infection?
Your Answer: An inspiratory whoop is required for the diagnosis
Correct Answer: doesn't occur in the neonatal period
Explanation:Pertussis: Symptoms and Complications
Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a respiratory condition that can manifest at any time. Patients with pertussis experience paroxysms of coughing during waking hours, but unlike many respiratory conditions, sleep is usually undisturbed. An inspiratory whoop may not be present, and complete apnoea may occur. A useful feature in the history taking is that patients typically do not experience disturbed sleep. Additionally, there is typically a lymphocytosis present.
It is important to note that asthma in the mother is not a contraindication for pertussis. However, complications can arise from the disease, such as hemiplegia and convulsions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents who are worried about her constant tugging on her left ear and increased fussiness over the past 24 hours.
During the examination, the child's temperature is found to be 38.5ÂșC, and the left tympanic membrane appears red. There is no discharge in the ear canal, the right ear is normal, and there are no signs of mastoiditis. The child has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Regular analgesia, call back in 3 days time if the symptoms are not resolving
Explanation:Parents should be informed that antibiotics are not always necessary for treating acute otitis media in children. The condition typically resolves on its own within 24-72 hours without the need for antibiotics. Pain relief medication can be used to alleviate discomfort and reduce fever during this time. However, if symptoms persist for more than 4 days or worsen, parents should seek medical attention. Immediate antibiotic prescription is not recommended unless the child is under 2 years old, has bilateral otitis media, otorrhoea, or is immunocompromised. Amoxicillin is the first-line therapy, while erythromycin and clarithromycin are alternative options for children allergic to penicillin. Topical antibiotics are not recommended for treating otitis media, and oral antibiotics should be used if necessary. Referral to the emergency department is not necessary unless there are signs of complications such as acute mastoiditis, meningitis, or facial nerve paralysis. Swabbing the ear is not useful, even if there is discharge present, as the condition is likely to have resolved before culture results become available.
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old man comes to see you to discuss his fatherâs recent diagnosis of Huntingtonâs disease. He is particularly concerned about the possibility that he could develop the disease himself, and that he could pass it on to his children.
Select the single correct statement concerning Huntington's disease.Your Answer: The condition is an autosomal dominant trait, giving a 50% risk of passing the disease on to children
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: A Progressive Neurodegenerative Disorder
Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a gene on chromosome 4. It can present at any age from 20 years to old age and is associated with cell loss in the basal ganglia and cortex. The disease is characterized by a distinct phenotype, including chorea and dystonia, incoordination, cognitive decline, and behavioral problems, ultimately leading to death.
There is often a prodromal phase of mild psychotic and behavioral symptoms that can last up to 10 years before the development of chorea. Unfortunately, drug therapy has no effect on the progression of disability, and while hyperkinesia and psychiatric symptoms may respond to pharmacotherapy, neuropsychological deficits and dementia remain untreatable.
Management of Huntington’s disease is supportive, and a predictive diagnosis is possible in offspring of affected individuals if they wish it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Ramsey Hunt syndrome
Your Answer: Try a different antibiotic and review in 3 days to assess response
Correct Answer: Refer under 2-week wait to ENT for suspected cancer
Explanation:If an adult presents with unilateral middle ear effusion, it could be a sign of nasopharyngeal cancer. In such cases, the appropriate action would be to refer the patient for an urgent 2-week wait ENT appointment to investigate the possibility of cancer. This is especially important if the patient is of East Asian origin and the effusion is not related to an upper respiratory tract infection. Other options, such as arranging a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses, do not address the urgent need to rule out cancer and should not be done in primary care. Further investigations, such as nasal endoscopy or MRI, may be arranged by the specialist to confirm or rule out the possibility of nasopharyngeal cancer.
Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.
To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a foul-smelling, watery discharge from her vagina. Upon examination, clue cells are found in a swab.
Medical history:
Endometriosis
Current medications:
Yasmin
Loratadine 10 mg once daily
Allergies:
Penicillin
Clindamycin
What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral metronidazole
Correct Answer: Topical clindamycin
Explanation:Patients with bacterial vaginosis who have a history of clue cells can be treated with topical clindamycin as an alternative to metronidazole, according to the BNF. This is particularly useful for patients who are allergic to metronidazole.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic after experiencing three episodes of transient left-sided weakness in the past two weeks. What advice should be given regarding driving?
Your Answer: Cannot drive for 3 months
Explanation:DVLA guidance following multiple TIAs: driving prohibited for a period of 3 months.
The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.
For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during his yearly check-up. He is aware of other patients with type 1 diabetes who have developed renal failure and required dialysis a few years after being diagnosed with nephropathy. When examining his vascular risk profile, which parameter is most likely to decrease the risk of future renal failure?
Your Answer: BP <145 systolic
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Managing Nephropathy Progression
Tight control of blood pressure and glucose levels is crucial in managing the progression of nephropathy. The recommended target for systolic blood pressure is 130 or less, while the HbA1c target should be less than 53 mmol/mol. Although BMI, diastolic blood pressure, and cholesterol are relevant factors, they are less significant compared to blood pressure and glucose control.
Among all antihypertensives, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) have the strongest evidence for reducing nephropathy progression. Therefore, it is important to prioritize these medications in the management of nephropathy. Proper management of blood pressure and glucose levels, along with the use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs, can significantly slow down the progression of nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bony pain that has been present for several months, mainly affecting his left femur, pelvis, and lower back. His blood test shows a normal serum calcium level, but an elevated alkaline phosphatase. X-rays of the femur and pelvis reveal mixed lytic and sclerotic changes with accentuated trabecular markings. His chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pagetâs disease
Explanation:Paget’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Paget’s disease is a bone disorder that affects approximately 2% of the population above 55 years of age. However, 90% of those affected are asymptomatic. The disease progresses through three phases, starting with lytic changes, followed by mixed lytic and sclerotic changes, and finally primarily sclerotic changes with increasing bony thickening. The new bone formed during the disease is disorganised, mechanically weaker, bulkier, less compact, more vascular, and prone to pathological fractures and deformities.
The main goals of treatment for Paget’s disease are to normalise bone turnover, maintain alkaline phosphatase levels within the normal range, minimise symptoms, and prevent long-term complications. Bisphosphonates are the mainstay of treatment and are often given as intermittent intravenous courses.
Long-term complications of Paget’s disease include deafness (in up to 50% of patients with skull-base Paget’s disease), pathological fractures, and, very rarely, osteogenic sarcoma.
Other bone disorders, such as multiple myeloma, hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, and secondary carcinoma, have different symptoms, diagnostic criteria, and treatments. Therefore, it is essential to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate care for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are investigating an elderly patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 1300 ng/litre.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Referral to cardiology within 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Repeat test in 4 weeks
Explanation:NT-proBNP Levels and Referral Guidelines for Heart Failure
An NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2000 ng/litre should prompt a referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 6 weeks. However, if the NT-proBNP level is above 2000 ng/litre, urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks is necessary due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels. On the other hand, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use (diuretics, ACE-I, beta blockers, and spironolactone) can reduce the NT-proBNP reading and may affect the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the GP with a six-month history of excessive tiredness, feeling thirsty, weight loss and passing a lot of urine. He has a strong family history of Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
During examination, his blood pressure was found to be 125/72 mmHg and urinalysis showed ++glucose but no ketones. The abdomen was soft and tender with no masses. His body mass index is 32 kg/mÂČ. He is retired and doesn't drive.
Blood tests arranged showed HbA1c at 58 mmol/mol.
As per NICE guidelines, what is an important part of managing this patient with new-onset Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?Your Answer: Issue blood sugar monitoring devices for home checks
Correct Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:If a patient over the age of 60 presents with new-onset diabetes and weight loss, it is recommended to refer them for an urgent CT abdomen to rule out pancreatic cancer. In this case, the patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus based on symptoms and blood tests. While metformin can be initiated in primary care, it is important to prioritize ruling out pancreatic cancer as a potential cause for the diabetes. Medication options should be considered based on the patient’s history and blood tests, with gliclazide not being the best choice for this patient’s body mass index. Blood sugar monitoring devices are not typically necessary for type 2 diabetes mellitus patients, unless they are started on a medication that can cause hypoglycemia. Hba1c monitoring is usually sufficient. This information is based on guidelines from NICE CKS.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting fluoxetine treatment for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior history of taking antidepressants and has no other medical conditions. During the assessment, she denies any suicidal thoughts and has good support from her partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She reports no adverse effects from fluoxetine but has heard positive feedback about St John's Wort from a friend. What would be the most appropriate action to take for this patient?
Your Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for CBT
Correct Answer: Change to a tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs
When a patient has been taking a Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.
There are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, it is important to note that switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics requires great caution as it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.
Although there is some evidence of the benefit of St John’s Wort, it is not recommended that doctors prescribe or advocate its use due to the lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and antiepileptics.
For moderate depression, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication. It is important to monitor the patient’s response to treatment and adjust accordingly to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline and topical adapalene for three months to treat moderate acne vulgaris. He reports a positive response to the treatment with only occasional breakouts on his forehead. He has no allergies and is not on any other medications.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Stop lymecycline and continue adapalene
Explanation:When treating acne vulgaris, it is important to limit the use of a single oral antibiotic to a maximum of three months. Additionally, it is recommended to review the treatment plan every 8-12 weeks. If topical treatments are not effective for moderate acne, an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline can be added for a maximum of three months to prevent antibiotic resistance. Once the acne has cleared or improved significantly, maintenance therapy with topical retinoids or azelaic acid should be considered as first-line options, unless contraindicated.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain that has persisted for several months and was previously diagnosed as osteoarthritis by another GP. She also experiences fatigue, sleep disturbance, and constipation. Despite undergoing routine tests, thyroid function tests, and rheumatological investigations, all results have been normal. Her joint examination is also normal. What is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Naproxen
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia: Choosing the Right Medication
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, there are several treatment options available to manage its symptoms.
One medication commonly prescribed for fibromyalgia is amitriptyline, an antidepressant that can improve pain, mood, and sleep quality. Aerobic exercise and cognitive behavior therapy can also be effective in improving overall wellbeing.
However, medications such as methotrexate and prednisolone are not recommended for fibromyalgia as they are used for inflammatory conditions and lack evidence of benefit for this condition. Strong opioids like slow-release morphine sulfate are also not recommended due to their potential for addiction and tolerance. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like naproxen may provide short-term relief for acute pain, but are not typically used for chronic pain management in fibromyalgia.
It is important for patients with fibromyalgia to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both solids and liquids, and inflamed cervical lymph nodes.
Select the most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Oral antibiotics and analgesia
Correct Answer: Referral to hospital for admission
Explanation:When to Admit a Patient with a Sore Throat: Indications and Recommendations
Admission to the hospital for a sore throat is necessary in certain cases. One such case is when the patient cannot swallow, making oral treatments ineffective. A Paul-Bunnell test may be considered, but it is not the first-line management. An ultrasound scan is only necessary for unexplained cervical lymphadenopathy.
According to NICE, hospital admission is recommended for sore throat cases that are immediately life-threatening, such as acute epiglottitis or Kawasaki disease. Other indications include dehydration or reluctance to take fluids, suppurative complications like quinsy, immunosuppression, and signs of being markedly systemically unwell.
It is important to be aware of these indications and recommendations to ensure proper management and treatment of sore throat cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with dizziness when she moves, particularly when she turns her head to the side. She has a past history of numbness affecting both hands and around her peri-oral paraesthesia, which caused her to attend the Emergency Department one year ago, but nil else of note. On examination, her BP is 110/80 mmHg, pulse is 65/min and regular. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and her BMI is 22. There are no cranial nerve palsies. Dix Hallpike test is positive to the left.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Benign positional vertigo
Explanation:Diagnosing Benign Positional Vertigo: Differential Diagnosis
Benign positional vertigo (BPV) is a common cause of vertigo, which occurs when otoliths become detached from the macula and continue to move within the semi-circular canals even when the head has stopped moving. The Dix Hallpike test is used to diagnose posterior canal BPV, which accounts for approximately 90% of cases. Epley’s manoeuvre is an effective treatment for BPV, with a low recurrence rate over a 5-year period.
When considering a differential diagnosis for vertigo, it is important to rule out other conditions. Multiple sclerosis is unlikely in this case, as the Dix Hallpike test is consistent with BPV and the previous history of numbness may represent a panic attack. Acoustic neuroma is also unlikely, as there are no cranial nerve palsies or tinnitus. Labyrinthitis is not a likely diagnosis, as it is associated with vertigo with any movement rather than a movement to one side. MĂ©niĂšre’s disease is also unlikely, as it is characterized by episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and a sensation of aural pressure, which occur in clusters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Correct
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Samantha, a 10-year-old girl, visits your clinic with her mother. She reports having a constant headache for several weeks. Her mother is extremely worried. However, Samantha is always anxious during medical appointments and refuses to cooperate with a thorough examination.
As a healthcare provider, you are concerned about Samantha's condition and decide to request an immediate referral. What is the maximum time frame within which she should receive an appointment with a specialist?Your Answer: 3 days
Explanation:Referral Guidelines for Children with Suspected Cancer
When a child presents with symptoms and signs of cancer, it is important to refer them to a paediatrician or a specialist children’s cancer service, if appropriate. If the child experiences headaches and vomiting that cause early morning waking or occur on waking, this could be a sign of raised intracranial pressure, and an immediate referral should be made.
It is important to note that patients have a legal right to be seen by a specialist within two weeks of being urgently referred for suspected cancer by their GP. If this is not possible, the NHS must do everything it reasonably can to offer them clinically appropriate alternatives. By following these referral guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that children with suspected cancer receive timely and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the most suitable medication for preventing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such as seizures or delirium tremens?
Your Answer: Acamprosate
Explanation:Medications for Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal
Acamprosate is a medication that can be helpful in maintaining abstinence in individuals with alcohol dependence. Buprenorphine, on the other hand, is an opioid analgesic. Bupropion is commonly used as a supplement for smoking cessation, but it is contraindicated in patients who are experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Long-acting benzodiazepines are the preferred treatment for preventing symptoms of acute withdrawal. Diazepam is a commonly used benzodiazepine, but chlordiazepoxide is recommended as the first choice because it has less of a market for illicit use.
By using these medications, individuals with alcohol dependence can receive the support they need to maintain abstinence and manage withdrawal symptoms. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual’s unique needs. Proper medication management, along with therapy and support, can greatly improve the chances of successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 21
Correct
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A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.
On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.
What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?Your Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice
Explanation:Managing Gastroenteritis in Children
Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.
Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient with hypertension who is 65 years old. As part of the review, you assess his 10 year cardiovascular disease risk and this is significant at 32%.
This prompts discussion about the role of lipid lowering treatment in the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Following discussion, you both agree to start him on atorvastatin 20 mg daily. You can see his recent blood tests (FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs and fasting glucose) are all normal.
In terms of follow up blood testing, which of the following should be performed after starting the atorvastatin?Your Answer: Liver function blood test within three months of initiation and at 12 months after initiation
Correct Answer: Full blood count every three months for the first 12 months after initiation
Explanation:Monitoring Liver Function in Statin Therapy
Before starting statin therapy, it is important to measure liver function. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can still be used.
Once statin therapy is initiated, liver function tests should be repeated within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months. Additionally, liver function tests should be measured if a dose increase is made or if signs or symptoms of liver toxicity occur.
It is crucial to monitor liver function in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure their safety and prevent potential liver damage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of liver toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as they are concerned about his development. He was born at term. He was a little slow to crawl but started walking at around 18 months. He has never had much speech. In the last few weeks, he has stopped walking and stopped feeding himself. He has started clapping his hands every few minutes and at times seems very distressed and screams. He has not been unwell with a fever or recent illness. The is no family history of note.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:The child in the video exhibits symptoms of a rare neurological genetic disorder called Rett syndrome. This condition is caused by a random mutation of the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome and typically affects girls between six and 18 months of age. Symptoms include delayed speech, muscle weakness, and jerky hand movements, which can be distressing for the individual. Other possible symptoms include microcephaly, seizures, and scoliosis. Sturge-Weber syndrome, Angelman syndrome, phenylketonuria, and encephalitis are unlikely diagnoses based on the absence of specific symptoms and history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with persistent fatigue, poor appetite, occasional sweats and a feeling of upper abdominal discomfort. He smokes 15 cigarettes per day, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week. He has no change in bowel habit. His records show that he injected heroin for a short period of time in his twenties.
He had an urgent ultrasound scan which shows a mass in his liver which has now been biopsied and reported as hepatocellular cancer of the liver.
What is the greatest risk factor for hepatocellular primary liver cancer in this 60-year-old man?Your Answer: Hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A infection
Explanation:Hepatitis C and Liver Cancer
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes undiagnosed for up to 20 years, making it a significant risk for those who engage in needle sharing and drug use. This infection can lead to cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the risk of developing primary liver cancer. In fact, around 80% of hepatocellular carcinoma cases are caused by viral infections with either hepatitis C or hepatitis B.
While gallstones and caffeine intake are not associated with an increased risk of liver cancer, previous cholecystectomy and chronic infection with hepatitis B can increase the risk. Statin use and hepatitis A infection, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk.
It is crucial to consider hepatitis C testing for at-risk populations and to maintain a low index of suspicion for liver cancer in those with a hepatitis C diagnosis. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for those with liver cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 20-month-old son for review following a recent admission after a febrile convulsion. Which one of the following statements regarding febrile convulsions is not correct?
Your Answer: The immunisation schedule should continue and can be safely done in the community
Correct Answer: Giving antipyretics promptly can reduce the chance of further seizures
Explanation:There is no proof that administering antipyretics to a child with a fever can prevent febrile convulsions.
Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.
There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.
Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.
The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ÂșC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed with COPD.
You wish to use the 'stages of change' model, which is comprised of:
A Action
B Contemplation
C Maintenance
D precontemplation
E Preparation
Which of the following correctly orders the listed stages in the 'stages of change' model?Your Answer: E D B A C
Correct Answer: A D C B E
Explanation:The Stages of Change Model for Smoking Cessation
The ‘stages of change’ model is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to categorize a patient’s readiness to act on a new health behavior, such as smoking cessation. The correct order of the model is precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.
It is important to determine where the patient fits in the model to tailor the approach accordingly. Patients in the earlier stages may benefit from education on the benefits of quitting smoking and increasing their awareness of the positive outcomes. This can help them move towards the later stages of the model.
Patients in the later stages may require more direct intervention, such as pharmacological management with nicotine replacement or varenicline, and advice on preventing relapse. By utilizing the stages of change model, healthcare professionals can provide personalized care and support for patients seeking to quit smoking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to an evening surgery after swallowing a battery from a watch. On examination, she is well, with no drooling, respiratory symptoms or abdominal tenderness.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Ask his mother to collect all stools and return in 48 hours if the battery doesn't pass
Correct Answer: Arrange immediate admission for investigation and possible endoscopy
Explanation:The Dangers of Swallowing Button Batteries: Why Immediate Action is Necessary
Button batteries are small, but they can cause serious harm if swallowed. These batteries contain metals and concentrated solutions of caustic electrolytes, which can damage the oesophageal wall if left stuck for even just two hours. Therefore, it is essential to arrange immediate admission for investigation and possible endoscopy if a child has swallowed a button battery.
Prescribing laxatives and taking no further action is not appropriate for a high-risk foreign body like a button battery. Similarly, asking the mother to collect all stools and return in 48 hours if the battery doesn’t pass is not recommended. Instead, it may be appropriate to observe asymptomatic children for the passage of the battery in the stool, but only if certain conditions are met.
Reassuring the mother that no action is necessary is also not appropriate, as symptoms may still develop even if the child is asymptomatic. Referring for an abdominal X-ray on the next day is also not recommended, as urgent chest and abdominal X-rays will be carried out in the hospital.
In conclusion, immediate action is necessary when a child swallows a button battery. Delaying treatment can lead to serious harm, and it is important to seek medical attention as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer has recently started taking oral opiates for pain relief. On the previous day, she took modified-release morphine 20 mg 12-hourly and required four 5 mg rescue doses of immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. She had been advised that she could take the rescue doses every 2-4 hours, if necessary.
What is the most suitable analgesic regimen for her?Your Answer: Add a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug to the current regime
Correct Answer: Modified-release morphine 30 mg twice daily plus immediate-release morphine 10 mg 2-4 hourly as required
Explanation:Regular review of pain management is crucial in palliative care patients, especially if rescue analgesia is needed frequently. Each patient should be assessed individually, taking into account factors such as pain relief efficacy, adverse effects, and patient preference. For opioid-naĂŻve patients, a safe starting dose of morphine is between 20-30 mg daily, while patients switching from a regular weak opioid can start with 40-60 mg daily. The dose can be given as an immediate-release preparation every four hours or as a modified-release preparation every 12 hours, with additional rescue doses for breakthrough pain. Dose adjustments should be made based on the number of rescue doses required and the patient’s response to them, with increases not exceeding one-third to one-half of the total daily dose every 24 hours. Adjuvant analgesics can also be considered during dose titration. Oxycodone can be used as an alternative to morphine for patients who cannot tolerate it, with a conversion rate of 6.6mg orally to 10 mg of oral morphine. Subcutaneous infusion may be necessary if swallowing is an issue. The equivalent dose of morphine is about half the daily oral requirement, and for diamorphine, one third. A ceiling of morphine immediate-release 30 mg every four hours (or modified-release 100 mg every 12 hours) is usually sufficient for most patients, although higher doses may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 29
Correct
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You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 160/92 mmHg. What antihypertensive medication is most likely to be prescribed for her?
Your Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is brought to the clinic by his spouse for exhibiting strange behavior and acute confusion during questioning. He was recently initiated on insulin therapy for his diabetes. Upon assessment, the following vital signs were obtained:
- Blood pressure: 145/87 mmHg
- Heart rate: 110 beats per minute
- Temperature: 37.2ÂșC
- Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air
- Respiratory rate: 18 breaths per minute
- Capillary blood sugar level: 2.1 mmol/L
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Intramuscular glucagon
Correct Answer: Oral glucose gel
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for hypoglycaemia in a conscious patient who is able to swallow is a fast-acting carbohydrate in the form of glucose liquids, tablets, or gels. In this case, the patient is conscious and able to swallow, so an oral glucose gel is the best option to quickly increase their blood glucose level.
Administering intramuscular glucagon is not necessary in this situation as the patient is conscious and able to take oral glucose. However, if the patient becomes combative and unable to take any oral glucose, intramuscular glucagon may be considered.
Intravenous administration is not a recommended route for glucagon and is therefore not a suitable option.
Intravenous glucose is not necessary for this patient as they are conscious and able to take glucose orally. It may be considered in a hospital setting for patients who are unable to take glucose orally.
Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management
Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.
Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.
Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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