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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following extra-intestinal symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease is more prevalent in ulcerative colitis than in Crohn's disease, with a slight variation in age and maintaining paragraph breaks?
Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Primary sclerosing cholangitis is often associated with ulcerative colitis.
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Occipital lobe
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.
Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.
Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is prescribed simvastatin for hyperlipidaemia. What is the most probable interaction with his medication?
Your Answer: Grapefruit juice
Explanation:The enzyme CYP3A4, which belongs to the cytochrome P450 family, is strongly inhibited by grapefruit juice.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 4
Correct
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What advice should you give a young adult (who is NOT pregnant) if they ask what is the recommended amount of alcohol they can consume?
Your Answer: No more than 14 units of alcohol per week. If you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more
Explanation:Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old non-smoker with no significant medical history presents to their GP with a cough producing green sputum, fatigue, and shortness of breath that has lasted for several days. During chest examination, coarse crackles are heard in the lower right zone. The patient's observations are as follows: respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 97% on air, heart rate of 80 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/75 mmHg, temperature of 38.1ºC, and an abbreviated mental test score of 10/10. The patient is not on any regular medication and has no allergies. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Discharge with oral doxycycline
Correct Answer: Discharge with oral amoxicillin
Explanation:The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with low severity community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is oral amoxicillin. Therefore, it is appropriate to discharge this patient with oral amoxicillin as they present with symptoms of CAP, including a new cough, temperature, purulent sputum, and focal chest signs. While a chest x-ray could confirm the diagnosis, it is not usually necessary for suspected CAP managed in primary care. The patient’s CRB-65 score is 0, indicating that they can be managed in the community. Hospitalization may be required for patients with higher scores or clinical factors that increase the risk of complications, but this is not the case for this patient. Discharge with oral clarithromycin or doxycycline is not appropriate as there is no indication that amoxicillin is unsuitable as the first-line antibiotic.
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain and swelling in his right testicle that has been gradually developing over the past two days. He rates the pain as 5/10 on the pain scale. Although he recently returned from a trip to Spain four weeks ago, he denies experiencing any dysuria or urethral discharge. Upon examination, the right testicle is tender and swollen. The patient's heart rate is 84/min and his temperature is 36.8ºC. Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epididymo-orchitis
Explanation:The symptoms and pain caused by testicular torsion are usually more severe and acute, while a patient with mumps would experience prodromal symptoms and parotitis.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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A young patient presents with a painful red eye.
Which of the following findings is more suggestive of acute conjunctivitis than anterior uveitis?Your Answer: Profuse discharge
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Acutely Painful Red Eye
A red eye can be a sign of various eye conditions, including conjunctivitis, anterior uveitis, scleritis, and more. One of the most common symptoms of conjunctivitis is profuse discharge, which can cause the eyelids to stick together on waking. On the other hand, anterior uveitis can cause blurred vision, small pupil, and photophobia. Scleritis, an inflammatory disease that affects the sclera, can cause severe pain that worsens with eye movement and may radiate to the forehead or jaw. It’s essential to seek medical attention promptly if you experience any of these symptoms, as they can indicate a serious underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a severely painful, reddened right-eye that has been bothering him for the past 6 hours. He reports experiencing reduced visual acuity and seeing halos around light. The patient has a history of hypermetropia. Upon examination, the right-eye appears red with a fixed and dilated pupil and conjunctival injection. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Correct Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma
Explanation:The correct diagnosis is acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is characterized by an increase in intra-ocular pressure due to impaired aqueous outflow. Symptoms include a painful red eye, reduced visual acuity, and haloes around light. Risk factors include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and age-related lens growth. Examination findings typically include a fixed dilated pupil with conjunctival injection. Treatment options include reducing aqueous secretions with acetazolamide and increasing pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine.
Anterior uveitis is an incorrect diagnosis, as it refers to inflammation of the anterior portion of the uvea and is associated with systemic inflammatory conditions. A key ophthalmoscopy finding is an irregular pupil.
Central retinal vein occlusion is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it causes acute blindness due to thromboembolism or vasculitis in the central retinal vein. Severe retinal haemorrhages are seen on ophthalmoscopy.
Infective conjunctivitis is another incorrect diagnosis, as it is characterized by sore, red eyes with discharge. Bacterial causes typically result in purulent discharge, while viral cases often have serous discharge.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with a bilateral high-stepping gait. He is typically healthy, works as a personal trainer, and enjoys rock climbing in his free time. During the examination, there is bilateral weakness of dorsiflexion (3/5) and slightly decreased sensation over the dorsal aspect of his feet. The compression of which nerve do you suspect is responsible for his symptoms, possibly caused by his high rock climbing boots?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Correct Answer: Common fibular nerve
Explanation:Damage to the common peroneal nerve can result in weakened dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. The nerve runs laterally through the popliteal fossa and over the neck of the fibula before entering the medial compartment of the leg. This area is susceptible to compression or injury, leading to sensory and motor impairments. In this case, the individual’s tight abseiling boots have been compressing their common peroneal nerve.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve, which divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The most notable symptom of this type of nerve damage is foot drop, which is characterized by weakness or paralysis of the muscles that lift the foot.
In addition to foot drop, other symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion may include weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, as well as the extensor hallucis longus muscle. Sensory loss may also occur over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and there may be wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
Overall, understanding the symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for this type of nerve injury. With proper care and management, it may be possible to improve symptoms and prevent further damage to the affected nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 39-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been going on for three months. Upon examination, there is swelling on one side of the scrotum that illuminates when light is shone on it. The swelling is soft and painless, and the testis cannot be fully felt due to the presence of fluid. What is the best next step to take?
Your Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Although the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient at a later time would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound has ruled out cancer. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. While a unilateral hydrocele may be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the initial investigation in this case. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.
A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles occur when the processus vaginalis remains open, allowing peritoneal fluid to drain into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within a few months. Non-communicating hydroceles occur when there is excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles can develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.
The main feature of a hydrocele is a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually located anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum and can be transilluminated with a pen torch. If the hydrocele is large, the testis may be difficult to palpate. Diagnosis can be made clinically, but ultrasound is necessary if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.
Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation, such as an ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause, such as a tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for bladder cancer presents to the Emergency Department because she has noticed that the urine in her catheter is blood-stained.
On examination, the urine is pink in colour. Her observations are normal.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Select the SINGLE most likely option.
Your Answer: Arrange a full blood count
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Suspected Bladder Tumour and Bleeding
When managing a patient with suspected bladder tumour and bleeding, it is important to consider the appropriate steps to take. Here are some options and their potential outcomes:
1. Arrange a full blood count: This test can help assess the degree of blood loss and guide the urgency of treatment.
2. Transfuse two units of O-negative blood: While patients with bladder tumours can bleed extensively, it is important to first assess the need for transfusion through a full blood count.
3. Flush the urinary catheter using normal saline: This step is appropriate for a blocked catheter, but not for a patient with active bleeding.
4. Remove the urinary catheter: This step can cause blood clots and urinary retention, and is not indicated for this patient.
5. Transfer to theatre for resection of tumour: While this may be necessary in cases of catastrophic bleeding, it is important to first assess the patient’s stability and obtain blood tests before planning definitive management.
In summary, careful consideration of the appropriate steps is crucial in managing a patient with suspected bladder tumour and bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female presents with an acutely painful hand. She has a history of hypertension, Raynaud's phenomenon, and has smoked twenty cigarettes a day since she was twenty-two years old. She describes the pain as 'different from her usual Raynaud's,' there has been no relief of symptoms despite wearing gloves and making sure her hands are warm.
Upon examination, her blood pressure is 158/80 mmHg, her right hand is blanched white and feels cold, and the colour of her forearm is normal. The radial pulse is not palpable at the wrist. What is the most likely explanation for her symptoms?Your Answer: Radial artery dissection
Correct Answer: Buerger's disease
Explanation:If a patient with extremity ischaemia is diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon, Buerger’s disease should be considered as a possible underlying condition. Buerger’s disease is a condition where the small and medium arteries in the hands and feet become inflamed and thrombosed, leading to acute or chronic progressive ischaemic changes and potentially gangrene. It is strongly associated with smoking. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, presents with joint pain and swelling, typically in the wrist, knee, hip, or thumb base, and is more common with age. Radial artery dissection is unlikely in the given scenario as there is no history of traumatic injury. Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterised by transient vasospasm of the digits triggered by cold, is usually treated conservatively with warmth and sometimes calcium channel blockers in severe cases. It is mostly idiopathic but can be associated with underlying connective tissue disease.
Understanding Buerger’s Disease
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.
Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.
Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of vertigo. He had a cough and sore throat last week and has been experiencing a spinning sensation since then. The vertigo can last for hours and causes significant nausea, making it difficult for him to leave the house and go to work as a teacher. During an ENT examination, the GP observes horizontal nystagmus and intact tympanic membranes with no hearing loss. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre
Correct Answer: Short course of oral prochlorperazine
Explanation:In cases of vestibular neuronitis, prochlorperazine can be effective during the acute phase, but it should not be continued for an extended period as it can hinder the central compensatory mechanisms that aid in recovery. This patient’s symptoms, including recurrent vertigo attacks, nausea, and horizontal nystagmus, are consistent with vestibular neuronitis, likely triggered by a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. A brief course of oral prochlorperazine is recommended, with the option of using buccal or intramuscular administration for more severe cases. However, it is important to discontinue prochlorperazine after a few days to avoid impeding the recovery process. Long-term use of prochlorperazine would not be appropriate in this situation.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus, or involuntary eye movements, is a common symptom, but there is usually no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to distinguish vestibular neuronitis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as viral labyrinthitis or posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to differentiate between vestibular neuronitis and stroke.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis may involve medications such as prochlorperazine or antihistamines to alleviate symptoms. However, vestibular rehabilitation exercises are often the preferred treatment for patients with chronic symptoms. These exercises can help to retrain the brain and improve balance and coordination. With proper management, most people with vestibular neuronitis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20 weeks’ gestation. The ultrasound reveals significant fetal structural abnormalities, such as holoprosencephaly, cleft palate, short limbs, polydactyly, bilateral club feet, enlarged kidneys, and polyhydramnios.
What is the probable underlying condition of the unborn child?Your Answer: Down syndrome
Correct Answer: Patau syndrome
Explanation:Common Genetic Disorders and Their Prenatal Ultrasound Findings
Prenatal ultrasound is a valuable tool for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. Here are some common genetic disorders and their associated ultrasound findings:
1. Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13): This disorder has a prevalence of 1 per 6500 births. Fetuses with Trisomy 13 may show brain anomalies, midfacial hypoplasia, ventriculomegaly, microcephaly, cleft lip and palate, and cardiac defects.
2. Cystic Fibrosis (CF): Hyperechogenic fetal bowel is often associated with severe diseases, notably CF.
3. Down Syndrome: 20% of all second-trimester Down syndrome fetuses have major structural anomalies, including polyhydramnios, double bubble, and large cardiac septal defects.
4. Klinefelter Syndrome: This disorder results from two or more X chromosomes in boys and may cause infertility and small testicles.
5. Potter Syndrome: This disorder is suspected whenever the combination of intrauterine growth retardation and severe oligohydramnios is seen. It consists of pulmonary hypoplasia, growth restriction, abnormal facies, and limb abnormalities.
In conclusion, prenatal ultrasound can help detect genetic disorders in fetuses, allowing for early intervention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.
Hb 125 g/l
Platelets 390 * 109/l
WBC 9.5 * 109/l
ESR 78 mm/h
Rheumatoid Factor Negative
Antinuclear Antibody Negative
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinucleur antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinucleur antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is undergoing chemotherapy treatment. During the physical examination, a third heart sound is heard and the apex beat is displaced to the anterior axillary line in the 6th intercostal space. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxorubicin
Explanation:Cardiomyopathy can be caused by anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the Haematology Clinic with symptoms of bone pain and anaemia. The medical team suspects multiple myeloma (MM) and orders a set of blood tests, including a full blood count, urea, serum creatinine and electrolytes, serum calcium, albumin, serum protein electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and serum beta-2 microglobulin. The team also plans to perform an imaging investigation to look for osteolytic lesions. What initial scan should be ordered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT)
Explanation:When investigating suspected multiple myeloma (MM), it is crucial to use whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT) imaging. This method is more effective than traditional radiology in detecting lytic lesions and should be the first option if available. Lesions with a diameter of 5mm or more are considered positive. If WBLD-CT and MRI fail to show lesions with a strong clinical indication, an FDG-PET or FDG-PET-CT can be used to detect bone lesions. During treatment follow-up, an FDG-PET-CT can detect active lesions and provide prognostic information. While a skeletal survey (X-ray) is less sensitive than WBLD-CT, it can still be useful. If suspicion remains high for MM despite negative WBLD-CT or skeletal survey results, a whole-body MRI should be performed. This method can detect focal lesions and bone marrow infiltration and may also be of prognostic value in asymptomatic patients. The presence of focal lesions is a strong predictor of progression to symptomatic MM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her right hand and tingling and paraesthesia in the lateral three digits. You notice that the sensory symptoms are replicated when you flex her wrist passively and hold it in that position. Can you identify the name of this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phalen's sign
Explanation:The patient has symptoms of median nerve palsy, which can be caused by carpal tunnel syndrome, a known risk factor during pregnancy. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign can reproduce the symptoms, and Froment’s sign is associated with ulnar nerve palsies.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. He states that he has not experienced any changes in his vision.
During the eyelid examination, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid margins, which are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If necessary, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis have watery/discharging eyes, a gritty sensation, and conjunctival erythema. Most cases resolve on their own, but some may require topical antibiotics.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painless area on the eyelid that settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can help with drainage.
Entropion: The margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, and plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and experiencing early menopause. Her husband has also noticed a swelling in her neck over the past few weeks. During the examination, her pulse is recorded at 90/minute, and a small, painless goitre is observed. The doctor orders blood tests, which reveal the following results: TSH < 0.05 mu/l, Free T4 24 pmol/l, Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies 102 IU/mL (< 35 IU/mL), and ESR 23 mm/hr. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Based on the presence of thyrotoxic symptoms, goitre, and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, the likely diagnosis is
Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also exhibits specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Autoantibodies are also present in Graves’ disease, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy can also aid in the diagnosis of Graves’ disease, as it shows diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine.
Overall, Graves’ disease presents with both typical and unique features that distinguish it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain to the left knee which is worse after running. The knee is stiff in the morning and sometimes locks. There is a knee effusion present on examination and an X-ray shows a loose body in the knee joint.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults
Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several possible causes of knee pain, including osteochondritis dissecans, chondromalacia patellae, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteoarthritis, and patellar dislocation.
Osteochondritis dissecans occurs when the articular cartilage separates from the joint surface, typically in the knee joint. This condition is common in teenagers and young adults and can cause vague, achy joint pain that worsens with activity. Other symptoms may include swelling, locking, catching, and giving way. Diagnosis is confirmed with an X-ray and magnetic resonance imaging can help with management and prognosis.
Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. This condition is a common cause of chronic knee pain in teenagers and young adults. Symptoms include anterior knee pain that worsens after sitting for a prolonged period or walking down stairs. Diagnosis is made through examination and a positive shrug test.
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys. It is caused by overuse of the quadriceps, which strains the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia. Symptoms include pain inferior to the patella that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Diagnosis is usually clinical and treatment involves simple analgesics and ice packs.
Osteoarthritis is a disease of older age caused by degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in weight-bearing areas such as the knee and hip, but is unlikely in young adults.
Patellar dislocation is most common in teenage girls and often occurs during sports. Symptoms include sudden pain and an inability to weight bear on the affected side. Examination reveals a dislocated patella, often laterally, and an associated osteochondral fracture may be seen on an X-ray.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her general practice surgery to discuss her plans to become pregnant. She is taking medication for hypertension but is otherwise fit and well. She has not had any previous pregnancies.
On examination, her blood pressure (BP) is 120/78 mmHg.
Which of the following drugs can this patient continue to take during pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Nifedipine is a medication that blocks calcium channels and is recommended as a second-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy or pre-eclampsia if labetalol is not effective or well-tolerated. If a woman is already taking nifedipine and has good blood pressure control, it is advisable to continue this treatment throughout pregnancy, with regular monitoring of blood pressure. Women with chronic hypertension are at risk of developing pre-eclampsia and should take 75-150 mg aspirin daily from 12 weeks gestation.
Bendroflumethiazide and other thiazide diuretics should not be taken during pregnancy as they are associated with various adverse effects on the fetus. Beta-blockers, except for labetalol, increase the risk of intrauterine growth restriction, neonatal hypoglycemia, and bradycardia. Therefore, the use of any beta-blockers during pregnancy, except for labetalol, should be avoided. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy as they can cause serious harm to the fetus. Women who become pregnant while taking ARBs or ACE inhibitors should stop taking them immediately and be prescribed a safer alternative antihypertensive medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female is hospitalized due to a pulmonary embolism. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, and schizophrenia. The patient is taking ramipril, olanzapine, metformin, gliclazide, and sodium valproate. The junior doctors are hesitant to start her on warfarin due to a potential interaction that could affect the dosage. Which medication is causing this interaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread all over his body. He has multiple erythematous lesions less than 1 cm in diameter on his torso and limbs, some of which are covered by a fine scale. Two weeks ago, he had exudative tonsillitis when he was seen with a sore throat. Apart from asthma, he has no other medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:Tear-drop scaly papules suddenly appearing on the trunk and limbs may indicate guttate psoriasis.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old woman presents to her GP with painful lumps in her neck that appeared two days ago. She also reports a sore throat and fever. Upon examination, she has tender, enlarged, smooth masses on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Differentiating Neck Lumps: Causes and Characteristics
When a patient presents with a neck lump, it is important to consider the possible causes and characteristics to determine the appropriate course of action. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever suggest a throat infection, which has resulted in reactive lymphadenopathy. This is a common cause of neck lump presentations in primary care.
Other possible causes of neck lumps include goitre, which is a painless mass in the midline of the throat that is not associated with fever and may be functional if accompanied by hyperthyroidism. An abscess could also present as a painful neck lump, but the history of a sore throat and bilateral swelling make this less likely.
Branchial cysts are smooth, soft masses in the lateral neck that are usually benign and congenital in origin. Lipomas, on the other hand, are lumps caused by the accumulation of soft, fatty deposits under the skin and do not typically present with systemic features.
In summary, understanding the characteristics and possible causes of neck lumps can aid in the diagnosis and management of patients presenting with this symptom.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The hand radiograph of a 43-year-old woman demonstrates periarticular osteoporosis, loss of joint space and bone erosions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Explanation:Radiographic Features of Common Rheumatologic Conditions
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is characterized by periarticular osteoporosis, narrowing of joint space, juxta-articular bony erosions, subluxation, gross deformity, and periarticular soft tissue swelling. In the hands, swan neck deformity of fingers, ulnar deviation of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, boutonnière deformity of the thumb, and Bouchard’s nodes are common. However, the presence of Bouchard’s nodes without Heberden’s nodes is more indicative of RA than osteoarthritis.
Gout may present with gouty tophi, which are soft tissue masses created by the deposition of urate crystals. Punched-out erosions caused by bone absorption may also be present. These changes tend to be sporadic and asymmetrical.
Osteoarthritis is characterized by subchondral bone cysts, osteophytes, narrowing of joint space, and subchondral sclerosis. Clinically, both Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may be present.
Psoriatic arthritis most commonly affects the hands and feet. Radiographic features include erosions along the shaft of the phalanges, leading to ‘pencil-in-cup’ deformity and tufting of the bones. Unlike RA, osteoporosis is not a feature, and typically the more distal joints are affected.
Hypercalcaemia does not have specific radiographic features. The changes seen would be those associated with the underlying cause of the hypercalcaemia, such as hyperparathyroidism or cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after her smartwatch ECG recorder detected atrial fibrillation for the past three days. She has experienced mild shortness of breath during physical activity in the last 24 hours. Upon examination, her heart rate is irregular, with a rate of 98 bpm, and her blood pressure is stable at 130/72 mmHg. She has no history of atrial fibrillation and only takes amlodipine for her grade I hypertension. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discharge on bisoprolol and apixaban and arrange cardioversion in four weeks
Explanation:In cases of sudden atrial fibrillation, if the duration is 48 hours or more, the first step is to control the heart rate. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, it is important to wait at least 3 weeks after starting therapeutic anticoagulation before attempting cardioversion.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.
The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess an 80-year-old man who was admitted to the hospital five days ago due to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and spinal stenosis.
Despite receiving optimal treatment on the ward, including IV co-amoxiclav, the patient's condition has continued to deteriorate. He currently scores 11 on the Glasgow Coma Scale, and his pupils are reactive to light and measure 3 mm bilaterally. He has been unable to take his morning medications, which include morphine sulphate modified release (Zomorph) 30mg twice daily, oramorph 10mg as required, and metoclopramide 10 mg three times a day. In the past 24 hours, he has used 4 doses of PRN oramorph.
During the consultant ward round, it is decided that the patient should receive end-of-life care. He is currently comfortable, with no signs of hallucinations, pruritus, or myoclonus. The nurse requests that you convert his medications to a syringe driver.
What medications will you prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide 30mg s/c + morphine 50mg s/c
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner as he has been suffering from recurrent infections for the last few months. He has also been losing weight. He has taken four courses of antibiotics in the last six months for various respiratory tract infections. He also experienced an episode of shingles that took a few years to clear after becoming secondarily infected.
On examination, he is pale and underweight, with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5 kg/m2. He has fine, downy hair on his back, abdomen and forearms. His temperature is 35.9 °C. His blood pressure is 90/45 mmHg while his pulse is 52 bpm.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s immunodeficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malnutrition
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of immunodeficiency in an adolescent with weight loss and recurrent infection
Malnutrition, primary immunodeficiency, cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, and diabetes mellitus are among the possible causes of immunodeficiency in an adolescent with weight loss and recurrent infection. Malnutrition can suppress the immune system and is often associated with anorexia nervosa, which can be characterized by a very low body mass index (BMI), lanugo hair growth, hypothermia, bradycardia, and hypotension. Primary immunodeficiency syndromes, which are usually inherited as single-gene disorders, tend to present in infancy or early childhood with poor growth and weight gain and recurrent, prolonged, severe, or atypical infections. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpes virus that can cause serious complications in immunocompromised individuals or congenital cases, but is usually asymptomatic in immunocompetent individuals. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection can result in immunodeficiency by infecting and destroying CD4 cells, and should be suspected in individuals with prolonged, severe, or recurrent infections, particularly if they are a member of a high-risk group. Diabetes mellitus, especially type I, can also cause dysfunction of the immune system and increase the risk of infection. However, in an adolescent with a low BMI, type II diabetes would be very unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue. During the physical examination, a soft diastolic murmur is detected, which is most audible in the second intercostal space on the right. His blood pressure is measured at 162/65 mmHg. What is the probable reason for the murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:The patient exhibits a diastolic murmur that is most pronounced over the aortic valve, along with a wide pulse pressure, indicating a diagnosis of aortic regurgitation. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, would manifest as a systolic murmur with a narrow pulse pressure. Meanwhile, mitral regurgitation would present as a systolic murmur that is most audible over the mitral valve, while mitral stenosis would produce a diastolic murmur that is loudest over the mitral valve and would not result in a wide pulse pressure.
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. In the developing world, rheumatic fever is the most common cause of AR, while in developed countries, calcific valve disease and connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are more common causes. Symptoms of AR include an early diastolic murmur, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. Echocardiography is used to investigate suspected AR. Management includes medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery for symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with Addison's disease is seen for a follow-up appointment. She reports a productive cough and feeling feverish for the past three days. Upon examination, her chest is clear, pulse is 84 beats per minute, and temperature is 37.7ºC. Due to her medical history, an antibiotic is prescribed.
What advice should be given regarding her adrenal replacement therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Double the hydrocortisone dose, keep the same fludrocortisone dose
Explanation:In the case of a patient with Addison’s disease who develops an additional illness, it is recommended to increase the dose of glucocorticoids while maintaining the same dose of fludrocortisone.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male visits his primary care clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on exertion and a dry cough. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. He denies chest pain, weight loss, or hemoptysis. In the past, he was prescribed bronchodilators for COPD, but they did not alleviate his symptoms.
During the examination, the physician detects fine crackles at the lung bases bilaterally, and the patient has significant finger clubbing. The physician orders a chest X-ray, pulmonary function tests, and refers him urgently to a respiratory clinic.
What pulmonary function test pattern would you expect to see based on the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEV1:FVC normal or increased, TLCO reduced
Explanation:In cases of IPF, the TLCO (gas transfer test) is reduced, indicating a restrictive lung disease that results in a reduced FEV1 and reduced FVC. This leads to a normal or increased FEV1:FVC ratio, which is a distinguishing factor from obstructive lung diseases like COPD or asthma. Therefore, the correct statement is that in IPF, the FEV1:FVC ratio is normal or increased, while the TLCO is reduced.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the neurology clinic reporting olfactory hallucinations that have been occurring for the past 6 months. She works in an office and experiences sudden episodes of smelling burnt rubber, even though there is none present. These episodes last for approximately 2 minutes before subsiding, and she denies any accompanying headaches, visual disturbances, or loss of consciousness. The patient has a history of cannabis use disorder spanning 4 years and is currently receiving assistance to quit. She also has depression that is being managed with sertraline. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Focal aware seizure
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a woman who suddenly experiences the sensation of smelling roses while at work, while remaining conscious throughout, is a focal aware seizure. This type of seizure affects a small part of one of the brain’s lobes, and in this case, it is likely originating from the temporal lobe. Focal aware seizures can lead to hallucinations, such as olfactory, auditory, or gustatory, as well as epigastric rising and automatisms.
Other options, such as absence seizure, focal impaired awareness seizure, and olfactory hallucination due to cannabis use, are not applicable in this case. Absence seizures typically occur in children and involve impaired consciousness, while focal impaired awareness seizures involve impaired consciousness as well. Olfactory hallucination due to cannabis use is unlikely, as the patient is receiving help for their cannabis-use disorder and there are no other signs of psychosis.
Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending Christmas with her family. Her sister has just informed her that she too is experiencing the same symptoms. The doctor suspects norovirus. What is the best way to prevent the spread of this virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wash hands with soap and water
Explanation:Handwashing is more effective than alcohol gels in preventing the spread of norovirus.
Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.
Norovirus is a genus of non-encapsulated RNA virus species that can cause gastroenteritis. The CDC estimates that 1 in 5 cases of infectious gastroenteritis are caused by norovirus, with 685 million cases per year worldwide. Symptoms typically develop within 15-50 hours of infection and can include vomiting, diarrhea, headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct physical contact, contact with contaminated food, or through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a dry cough that has persisted for three weeks. She is a non-smoker and consumes 10 units of alcohol per week. The patient has a target rash on both of her lower limbs, and her chest x-ray reveals reticulonodular shadowing on the left lung. The medical team diagnoses her with bacterial pneumonia. What is the probable causative agent responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Based on the dry cough, symmetrical target-shaped rash with a central blister (erythema multiforme), and radiological findings, it is likely that the woman has Mycoplasma. While pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in the community, it would typically present with lobar consolidation on an x-ray and a productive cough, rather than a dry one. Klebsiella pneumonia is more common in alcoholics, but the woman’s drinking habits, while exceeding the recommended limit for women (14 units per week), are not severe enough to increase her risk of Klebsiella. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumonia typically causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.
Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.
In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 23 year old woman has been admitted to the obstetrics ward for 2 days due to preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). She is now experiencing abdominal pain, uterine contractions, and symptoms similar to the flu. Prior to this admission, she had no complications and is currently 24 weeks pregnant. During examination, she appears ill with a fever of 39 degrees. A gynecological exam reveals a malodorous discharge originating from the cervix, which is collected and sent for analysis. What is the most probable diagnosis at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chorioamnionitis
Explanation:Understanding Chorioamnionitis
Chorioamnionitis is a serious medical condition that can affect both the mother and the foetus during pregnancy. It is caused by a bacterial infection that affects the amniotic fluid, membranes, and placenta. This condition is considered a medical emergency and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It is more likely to occur when the membranes rupture prematurely, but it can also happen when the membranes are still intact.
Prompt delivery of the foetus is crucial in treating chorioamnionitis, and a cesarean section may be necessary. Intravenous antibiotics are also administered to help fight the infection. This condition affects up to 5% of all pregnancies, and it is important for pregnant women to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may have chorioamnionitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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What is the most effective antibiotic for treating Chlamydia pneumonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Chlamydia Pneumoniae Infections
Chlamydia pneumoniae infections are commonly treated with macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin. These antibiotics are effective against atypical pneumonias and should be taken for a long period of time (usually 10-14 days) with strict compliance to avoid suboptimal doses. However, the most common side effects of these antibiotics are nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Clindamycin is not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. Piperacillin and ampicillin are also not indicated due to in vitro resistance shown by the bacteria. Imipenem is also not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has been a rise in the number of children contracting hand, foot, and mouth disease and a plan is being developed to address this issue. What is the most efficient measure to decrease the occurrence of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hand hygiene
Explanation:Hand hygiene is the most crucial step in addressing MRSA, although a comprehensive approach is necessary.
Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 40
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with consolidation, there seems to be a moderate-sized pleural effusion on the same side. A pleural fluid aspiration is performed under ultrasound guidance, and the fluid's appearance is clear, sent off for culture. While waiting for the culture results, what is the most crucial factor in deciding whether to place a chest tube?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid
Explanation:According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), chest tube placement in pleural infection is mainly indicated for patients with purulent or cloudy pleural fluid, positive Gram stain and/or culture results from non-purulent pleural fluid, and pleural fluid pH below 7.2. Among these indications, pleural fluid pH is considered the most valuable test.
Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.
Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.
Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.
In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.
For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents. They are concerned that he has been experiencing excessive thirst and needing to go to the bathroom to urinate frequently. There is suspicion that this may be a case of diabetes insipidus. Upon investigation, it is found that his symptoms are unresponsive to a desmopressin (ADH analogue).
What is the most suitable medication for managing this child's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorothiazide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH, resulting in excessive urination and thirst. Thiazide diuretics are paradoxically used to treat this condition by blocking the NaCl transporter in the distal tubule, leading to increased uptake of sodium and water in the proximal collecting duct. This results in less water loss through urination and improved symptoms. Desmopressin is not effective in treating nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as it works by increasing ADH levels. Loop diuretics like bumetanide are not used to treat this condition. Insulin has no use in diabetes insipidus. Terlipressin is only effective in cranial diabetes insipidus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old male patient presents with a chief complaint of hearing difficulty. During the examination, you perform Weber's test and find that he hears the sound most loudly in his right ear. On conducting Rinne test, the sound is loudest when the tuning fork is placed in front of the ear canal on the left and loudest when placed on the mastoid process on the right. What type of hearing loss is evident in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conductive hearing loss on the right
Explanation:The presence of conductive hearing loss can be identified by conducting Rinne and Weber tests. During the Rinne test, bone conduction will be more audible than air conduction, while the Weber test will indicate the affected ear.
If the hearing loss is conductive and affects the right ear, bone conduction will be louder than air conduction. This is because the ear canal, middle ear, or tympanic membrane is unable to conduct sound waves effectively. The Weber test will also indicate that the affected ear is where the sound is loudest.
The other options provided are incorrect as they do not align with the results of the examination. In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is louder than bone conduction.
Conductive hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including impacted earwax, inner ear effusion, debris or foreign objects in the ear canal, a perforated eardrum, or otosclerosis.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.
On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 16 weeks' pregnant complains of frequent urination. Urinalysis confirms the presence of nitrites and leukocytes.
What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Management of Urinary Tract Infections in Pregnancy: Antibiotic Options and Guidelines
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common during pregnancy and require prompt treatment to prevent complications. The current UK antimicrobial guidelines recommend nitrofurantoin as the first-line treatment for UTIs in pregnancy, with amoxicillin as an alternative if the microorganism is susceptible to it. Trimethoprim should be avoided due to its teratogenicity risk, while ciprofloxacin is only used for specific cases. Vancomycin is reserved for severe cases of Clostridium difficile infection. Symptomatic relief with paracetamol can also be offered. Urine cultures should be sent before starting empirical antibiotic treatment and as a test of cure after treatment completion. Follow-up is necessary to check treatment response and culture results. This article provides a comprehensive overview of the antibiotic options and guidelines for managing UTIs in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors and no other relevant medical history. Her QRisk is calculated as 12.2%. She has already been prescribed a GTN spray which she can use for immediate relief of her symptoms.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta blocker and statin
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends using a β blocker or calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment for angina, along with a statin. If a patient is intolerant to β blockers or not responding to a CCB alone, a long-acting nitrate can be added. An ACE inhibitor is not indicated for angina treatment. Beta blockers and CCBs can be used together if one alone does not control symptoms, but caution is needed to avoid conduction problems. Long-acting nitrates should only be used in isolation if CCB or β blocker use is contraindicated. Aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention, and short-acting nitrates can be used for symptom relief. The 4S study showed that statins significantly reduce the risk of MI in patients with angina and high cholesterol levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a cough with green sputum and palpitations. She reports feeling very sick, feverish, and tired. Upon examination, she exhibits bronchial breathing at her right base, with a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. Her heart sounds are normal, but her heartbeat is irregularly irregular, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular rate. The patient has no prior history of atrial fibrillation. What is the initial treatment that should be administered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids
Explanation:Patient is septic from pneumonia and has developed atrial fibrillation. Treatment should focus on resolving the sepsis with IV fluids and antibiotics, which may also resolve the AF. If AF persists, other treatment options may be considered.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.
To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.
To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a physiological third stage of labor. She subsequently loses 700ml of blood and medical assistance is requested. An ABCDE assessment is conducted, and the patient is given warmed IV crystalloid fluids after obtaining IV access. The uterus is compressed to stimulate contractions, and a catheter is inserted, but the bleeding persists. The patient has a history of asthma but no known coagulopathy. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV oxytocin
Explanation:The appropriate medical treatments for postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony are oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. In this scenario, the patient has experienced a blood loss of over 500 ml after delivery, indicating PPH as the likely cause, with uterine atony being the most probable reason. The first steps in managing PPH involve an ABCDE approach, including IV access, warm crystalloid administration, uterine fundus palpation, and catheterisation to prevent bladder distention. If these measures fail, medical therapy is initiated, starting with IV oxytocin. IM carboprost is not the correct choice as it requires senior approval and can worsen bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma. IV carboprost is also not recommended as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, and fever, and requires senior approval. IV tocolytics are not appropriate as they suppress uterine contractions, which would exacerbate the problem in this case. Therefore, agents that stimulate uterine contraction are given to manage PPH caused by uterine atony.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of pain in her right knee. She is an avid runner and reports that the pain is most noticeable after exercise. She denies any swelling or redness in the joint and has not experienced any locking of the knee. Upon examination, the knee has a full range of motion, but there is sharp pain when palpating the lateral epicondyle of the femur, especially when the knee is flexed at 30 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome
Explanation:Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent reason for knee pain, especially among runners. A typical history and examination for this condition involves assessing lateral knee pain in avid runners. In contrast, Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, would result in pain and swelling around the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans would cause joint locking, swelling, and tenderness. Patellar tendonitis would also cause post-exercise pain, but it would typically be located at the lower part of the patella.
Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome
Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.
To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.
In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the groin and genital region, as well as in the axilla. The patient has previously mentioned a distaste for creams that are messy or difficult to use. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical steroid
Explanation:Topical steroids are effective in treating flexural psoriasis in this patient.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her pulmonary function tests show a peak expiratory flow rate that is 60% below the normal range for her age and height.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Understanding PEFR and Its Role in Diagnosing Asthma
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is a valuable tool in both the diagnosis and management of asthma. It is measured by a maximal forced expiration through a peak-flow meter and correlates well with forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), providing an estimate of airway calibre. Patients with asthma can monitor their PEFR at home to track disease control. A PEFR <80% of predicted is a strong indicator of obstructive airway disease, such as asthma. However, it’s important to note that PEFR is not affected by restrictive defects, such as those caused by kyphoscoliosis. Bronchial carcinoma itself does not cause airflow limitation, but a co-morbid obstructive lung disease, such as asthma or COPD, could produce abnormal PEFR readings. Bronchiectasis can cause an obstructive pattern on spirometry, but it would not typically cause a reduction in PEFR. Whooping cough, despite causing inflammation of the airways, would not typically result in the markedly reduced PEFR readings seen in asthma. In conclusion, understanding PEFR and its role in diagnosing asthma is crucial for both patients and healthcare providers. By monitoring PEFR at home and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals with asthma can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of muscle weakness and pins and needles in both her feet which has now started to spread up into her legs. She reports having a stomach bug 3 weeks ago.
During examination, Sophie is apyrexial. There is reduced tone in both lower limbs with reduced knee jerk reflexes and altered sensation. However, upper limb neurological examination is unremarkable.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome
Explanation:Stephen’s symptoms of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy and hyporeflexia strongly suggest Guillain-Barre syndrome, likely triggered by a recent gastrointestinal infection. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, presents with muscle fatigue and ocular manifestations, but normal tone, sensation, and reflexes. Polymyositis causes proximal muscle weakness, while acute transverse myelitis presents with paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. However, Stephen’s lack of bladder/bowel dysfunction and back pain, as well as the history of gastrointestinal infection, make Guillain-Barre syndrome the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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