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Question 1
Correct
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A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed fracture of the tibia following a playground accident and is expected to wear a cast for 8 weeks.
The child's father says that he will need help with bathing and transport to school and wonders about financial assistance because domestic finances are tight.
Regarding the Disability Living Allowance (DLA) for under 16s, what advice would you give him?Your Answer: The child must have needed care for the preceding month to be eligible
Explanation:Disability Living Allowance (DLA) and Personal Independence Payment (PIP)
Disability Living Allowance (DLA) is a tax-free benefit that assists with the additional expenses of caring for a child who requires assistance due to a disability or health condition. The benefit is paid to the child’s parent or caregiver, such as a step-parent, guardian, grandparent, foster parent, or older sibling over the age of 18. To qualify for DLA, the child must require more day-to-day assistance than other children of the same age without a disability, and the assistance must have been necessary for at least three months and expected to continue for at least six months. DLA is made up of a care component and a mobility component, with varying rates for each.
Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is gradually replacing DLA for individuals aged 16 or older who have not yet reached State Pension age. PIP is designed to assist with the additional expenses of living with a disability or health condition and is based on an individual’s ability to carry out daily living activities and mobility. PIP is also tax-free and is made up of two components: daily living and mobility. The daily living component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate, while the mobility component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate.
Overall, both DLA and PIP are essential benefits that provide financial assistance to those who require additional support due to a disability or health condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.
The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.
Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.
Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.
Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful throat. She has been experiencing a sore throat and painful swallowing for the past few days, but her symptoms have worsened over the last 24 hours. She now has neck pain and difficulty opening her mouth fully.
Upon examination, her temperature is 38.9 °C and her throat shows a displaced uvula, an enlarged right tonsil, and swelling around the right tonsil.
What is the best initial management strategy for this patient?Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Peritonsillar Abscess: A Serious Complication of Sore Throat
When evaluating a patient with a sore throat, it is crucial for clinicians to be aware of any potential serious causes or complications. One such condition is a peritonsillar abscess, which requires hospital admission and immediate treatment.
A peritonsillar abscess can lead to airway obstruction, deeper spread of infection, and abscess rupture. Therefore, it is important to check for clinical features such as difficulty swallowing, fever, and severe throat pain.
The initial management for a peritonsillar abscess is to arrange hospital admission. Once admitted, the patient can receive inpatient treatment in a safe environment with immediate care and monitoring. Treatment typically involves aspiration or drainage of the abscess, along with antibiotic use and pain relief.
In summary, a peritonsillar abscess is a serious complication of sore throat that requires prompt recognition and management. Hospital admission is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is having trouble retaining fluids and a urine dipstick reveals ketones ++. Which of the following is not linked to an elevated risk of this condition?
Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:A lower occurrence of hyperemesis gravidarum is linked to smoking.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who has sex with men comes to you with complaints of general malaise, right upper quadrant pain and yellowing of the eyes. He has had multiple casual sexual partners in the past few months and has not always used protection. He has not traveled abroad recently. During the physical examination, you notice that he is jaundiced, tender in the right upper quadrant, and has a palpable liver edge. What is the most probable infection in this case?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hepatitis in a Middle-Aged Man
Although hepatitis can be caused by various viruses, the likelihood of acute infection decreases with age. In the case of cytomegalovirus (CMV) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), these viruses are typically encountered before the age of 55, making acute infection less probable. While hepatitis A is a possibility, it is unlikely without a history of travel. Although hepatitis C can be transmitted sexually, its prevalence among men who have sex with men is lower than that of hepatitis B. Additionally, hepatitis B is more easily transmitted through sexual contact, making it a more probable diagnosis. It is important to note that there is a 5-10% chance of becoming a chronic carrier of hepatitis B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of looser stools than usual. She reports having three bowel movements per day for the past three months, whereas previously she had only one per day. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and there are no palpable masses or tenderness. A digital rectal examination is unremarkable. The patient reports that she recently underwent bowel screening tests, which came back negative. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Arrange a further three stool samples for faecal occult blood testing
Correct Answer: Refer routinely to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Explanation:Importance of Urgent Referral for Persistent Change in Bowel Habit
Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in an at-risk population. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to rely on negative screening results and dismiss their symptoms. In the case of a 72-year-old man with a persistent change in bowel habit towards looser stools, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary.
It is important to note that relying solely on recent negative bowel screening results can be inadequate and should not falsely reassure patients. Therefore, healthcare providers should prioritize investigating any persistent changes in bowel habits to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A study found that of 100 people over the age of 60 treated with a certain medication, 80 had improvement in their symptoms, whereas of 100 people over the age of 60 not treated, only 50 had improvement. What is the number needed to treat (NNT)?
Your Answer: 4
Explanation:Calculating the Number Needed to Treat (NNT) for Vertigo Treatment
To determine the effectiveness of a vertigo treatment, we can calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT). This is done by first calculating the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the Control Event Rate (CER) and the Experimental Event Rate (EER). For example, if 55 out of 100 control patients failed to have a resolution of vertigo, and 30 out of 100 treatment patients failed to improve, the ARR would be 0.55 – 0.30 = 0.25. To find the NNT, we simply take the reciprocal of the ARR, which in this case would be 1/0.25 = 4. This means that for every 4 patients treated with the vertigo treatment, one patient will have a resolution of their vertigo.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who has been undergoing BP monitoring with the health-care assistant. The health care assistant has arranged the appointment as her readings have been consistently around 150/90 mmHg. Upon reviewing her records, you see that she was prescribed amlodipine due to her Irish ethnicity, and she is taking 10 mg once a day. Her only other medication is atorvastatin 20 mg. The health care assistant has noted in the record that the patient confirms she takes her medications as directed.
As per NICE guidelines, what is the next step in managing hypertension in Mrs. O'Brien, taking into account her ethnic background?Your Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II receptor blocker
Explanation:For patients of black African or African–Caribbean origin who are taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension and require a second medication, it is recommended to consider an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACE inhibitor. An alpha-blocker is typically not a first-line option, while spironolactone may be considered as a fourth-line option. However, the 2019 update to the NICE guidelines on hypertension recommends an ARB as the preferred choice for this patient population.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Who is recommended to receive the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) immunisation according to the January 2020 UK immunisation update?
Your Answer: Boys and girls aged 10 to 12
Correct Answer: Boys aged 10 to 12
Explanation:Changes to UK Immunisation Schedule in 2020
In January 2020, the UK immunisation schedule was updated with a few minor changes. It is important to stay up-to-date with these changes as they may be tested in exams. One change to note is that both boys and girls should receive the HPV immunisation at the age of 12 to 13. This is an important step in protecting against certain types of cancer caused by the human papillomavirus. It is recommended that parents and healthcare providers ensure that children receive this immunisation at the appropriate age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is moderately disabled by multiple sclerosis. She can use a wheelchair to move around the house. She has been troubled by urinary incontinence and has a palpable enlarged bladder. Testing indicates sensory loss in the 2nd-4th sacral dermatome areas.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Indwelling Foley catheter
Correct Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation
Explanation:Intermittent Self-Catheterisation: A Safe and Effective Way to Manage Urinary Retention and Incontinence
Intermittent self-catheterisation is a safe and effective method for managing urinary retention or incontinence caused by a neuropathic or hypotonic bladder. This technique provides patients with freedom from urinary collection systems. Although it may not be feasible for some patients, severe disability is not a contra-indication. Patients in wheelchairs have successfully mastered the technique despite various physical and mental challenges.
Single-use catheters are sterile and come with either a hydrophilic or gel coating. The former requires immersion in water for 30 seconds to activate, while the latter doesn’t require any preparation before use. Reusable catheters are made of polyvinyl chloride and can be washed and reused for up to a week.
While other types of catheterisation are available, intermittent self-catheterisation is typically the first choice. Oxybutynin, an anticholinergic medication, is used to relieve urinary difficulties, including frequent urination and urge incontinence, by decreasing muscle spasms of the bladder. However, in patients with overflow incontinence due to diabetes or neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis or spinal cord trauma, oxybutynin can worsen overflow incontinence because the fundamental problem is the bladder not contracting. The same is true for imipramine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A randomized controlled trial compared the effectiveness of generic counselling with normal GP care for patients with diverse psychological problems (excluding phobias and psychoses). A total of 172 patients aged 18 years and over were randomized. Counsellors were either British Association of Counselling (BAC) accredited or trained to diploma level. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale and the COOP/WONCA functional health assessment charts were used to assess the results of both interventions. The study took place in 9 GP practices in South Wales.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measures were taken to reduce the risk of observer bias in the results
Explanation:Reducing Observer Bias in a Study on Counselling in Primary Care
The study on counselling in primary care is susceptible to various sources of bias, including the use of different counsellors with varying qualifications and methods, lack of definition for normal GP care, and recruitment of patients with diverse psychological disorders. However, the study employed two objective outcome measures to minimize observer bias. The sample size calculation and generalizability of the results are not specified, but the study found no significant difference in outcome between the two groups. Overall, this pragmatic study aimed to conduct a randomized controlled trial and economic evaluation of counselling in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients with dermatologic problems and need to refer some of them to hospital. Unfortunately this is a long way away and many elderly patients find it difficult to travel.
You think about setting up an audiovisual telemedicine clinic. Which one of the following statements is correct about audiovisual telemedicine clinics?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There will need to be important organisational changes to the way in which you and your colleagues in secondary care work to make telemedicine work
Explanation:Considerations for Implementing Telemedicine in Secondary Care
There are several important organizational changes that need to be made in order for telemedicine to work effectively in secondary care. However, it is important to note that telemedicine clinics may not necessarily have economic benefits, as the costs of implementing the necessary technology can be expensive. Additionally, while patients may appreciate the convenience of not having to travel to see a specialist, they may still prefer face-to-face consultations. It is also unclear whether clinical outcomes will improve with the use of telemedicine. Finally, it is important to obtain explicit consent from patients before using any video consultations for teaching purposes. These considerations should be taken into account when considering the implementation of telemedicine in secondary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment course of permethrin 5% cream 1 week ago but is still itching. She has not noticed new burrows. On further questioning, she appears to have followed the full two-week course as prescribed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ivermectin 20 mg
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies
The itch of scabies can persist for up to 4 weeks after treatment. If no new burrows appear, monitoring the symptoms is reasonable. Malathion aqueous 0.5% is an alternative treatment for patients who cannot use permethrin or if the permethrin treatment fails. Oral ivermectin is a potential option for crusted scabies that doesn’t respond to topical treatment alone. It is important to note that there is no need to repeat permethrin treatment in this case, and there is no 10% formulation available. Remember to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
ALP 890 u/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.
Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.
To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.
Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Liam is a 22-year-old man who has tested positive for gonorrhoea from a urethral swab taken last week. Despite being advised to attend a sexual health clinic, he is unwilling to do so and has requested that you prescribe him treatment.
He has a fear of needles and refuses intramuscular ceftriaxone.
What is the most suitable alternative oral regimen available?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cefixime and azithromycin
Explanation:When treating patients with gonorrhoea, a combination of oral cefixime and oral azithromycin is typically used if the patient refuses an intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone. However, NICE recommends that gonorrhoea should only be treated in primary care if specialist services are not available within a reasonable timeframe or if the patient chooses not to attend despite receiving appropriate information and advice.
If uncomplicated anogenital gonorrhoea needs to be treated in primary care, a single dose of ceftriaxone 1g intramuscular injection is the preferred option. However, alternative regimens may be necessary if the patient has an allergy, needle phobia, or other contraindications. In such cases, cefixime orally as a single dose plus azithromycin orally is recommended.
It’s important to note that azithromycin resistance is high, and the clinical efficacy of azithromycin doesn’t always correlate with in vitro susceptibility testing. Therefore, a single oral dose of azithromycin would not be the most appropriate option.
While doxycycline, erythromycin, and ofloxacin are all possible choices for treating chlamydia, they are not effective in treating gonorrhoea.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You diagnose a middle-aged man with a left-sided sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss that started 12 hours ago during your joint clinic with a medical student and refer directly to ENT who diagnose an idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss and begin treatment. Your medical student asks what will happen next for the patient.
What is the most suitable medication for treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 7 days
Explanation:Patients with sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss who are referred to ENT are typically prescribed high-dose oral corticosteroids as treatment. The recommended dosage, according to ENT UK’s guideline, is oral prednisolone at a maximum of 60mg/day or 1 mg/kg/day for 7 days, followed by a tapering off period over the next week. Dexamethasone, another type of corticosteroid, doesn’t require intravenous or intramuscular administration. Intravenous immunoglobulin is not a recommended treatment for idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss. While oral acyclovir has been considered for treating Bell’s palsy, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is weak.
When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is admitted with ST elevation myocardial infarction and treated with thrombolysis but no angioplasty. What guidance should he receive regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 4 weeks
Explanation:DVLA guidance following a heart attack – refrain from driving for a period of 4 weeks.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus and has started self-monitoring of blood glucose.
Select from the list the single correct statement about self-monitoring of blood glucose.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitoring should be more frequent during a febrile illness
Explanation:Guidelines for Monitoring Blood Glucose Levels in Diabetes
Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for individuals with diabetes to manage their condition effectively. Here are some guidelines to follow:
Frequency of Monitoring: Monitoring should be more frequent during a febrile illness, and the frequency should be increased if HBA1c targets are not achieved, hypoglycaemic episodes increase, or if it is a Driver and Vehicle Driving Agency (DVLA) requirement. Monitoring should also be increased before, during, and after sport, during pregnancy and while breastfeeding, and if the patient needs to know the glucose level more than 4 times a day.
Morning and Evening Testing: Blood glucose should be measured in the morning and evening. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is recommended for all adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, with testing at least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bedtime.
Excessive Physical Activity: Monitoring should be more frequent during excessive physical activity as it can cause precipitous drops in blood sugar that should be swiftly remedied.
Hypoglycaemic Attacks: Self-monitoring is not only effective, but should also be increased if hypoglycaemic episodes become more common.
Blood Glucose Targets: The target plasma glucose on waking is 7-9 mmol/l. Blood glucose targets are as follows: Fasting plasma glucose level of 5–7 mmol/l on waking, plasma glucose level of 4–7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day, and plasma glucose level of 5–9 mmol/l at least 90 minutes after eating (timing may be different in pregnancy). Bedtime targets may be different and take into account the time of the last meal and the waking target.
By following these guidelines, individuals with diabetes can effectively manage their condition and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding retirement planning is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy and varenicline may be combined if patients have failed monotherapy
Explanation:Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding contraception options while experiencing perimenopausal symptoms. She and her partner are currently using condoms, which is satisfactory for them. Her last menstrual cycle occurred approximately 10 months ago. What advice should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After 12 further months of amenorrhoea she may stop using condoms
Explanation:Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which one of the following conditions is NOT a condition inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Albinism
Explanation:Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.
Autosomal Dominant Conditions: A List of Inherited Disorders
Autosomal dominant conditions are genetic disorders that are passed down from one generation to the next through a dominant gene. Unlike autosomal recessive conditions, which require two copies of a mutated gene to cause the disorder, autosomal dominant conditions only require one copy of the mutated gene. While some autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural, such as Marfan’s syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta, others are considered metabolic, such as hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
The following is a list of autosomal dominant conditions:
– Achondroplasia
– Acute intermittent porphyria
– Adult polycystic disease
– Antithrombin III deficiency
– Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
– Familial adenomatous polyposis
– Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
– Hereditary spherocytosis
– Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
– Huntington’s disease
– Hyperlipidaemia type II
– Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis
– Malignant hyperthermia
– Marfan syndromes
– Myotonic dystrophy
– Neurofibromatosis
– Noonan syndrome
– Osteogenesis imperfecta
– Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
– Retinoblastoma
– Romano-Ward syndrome
– Tuberous sclerosis
– Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
– Von Willebrand’s disease*It’s important to note that while most types of von Willebrand’s disease are inherited as autosomal dominant, type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman with motor neuron disease seeks guidance. She has come across the Mental Capacity Act and, after consulting with her spouse, has made the decision to decline ventilation if she experiences respiratory failure. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise that his wishes should be written, signed and witnessed
Explanation:Formal advance directives are the preferred option for patients. It should be noted that lasting power of attorney arrangements do not cover decisions related to life-sustaining treatments unless they are explicitly stated.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of sudden-onset limb paralysis at night, which have occurred over the last four months. She describes waking shortly after falling asleep and being unable to move her limbs or to speak. This is associated with a feeling of suffocation that lasts for about one minute. She has no other symptoms other than daytime sleepiness which she has attributed to her busy work schedule. Her father recently died from an intracranial haemorrhage during his sleep.
On examination, no abnormalities are observed.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcolepsy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Transient Limb Paralysis with Sleep Paralysis
Transient limb paralysis with sleep paralysis can be a frightening experience for patients. However, it can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. One possible cause is narcolepsy, which presents with a tetrad of classic symptoms including excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Brainstem transient ischaemic attack (TIA) can also cause vertigo, dizziness, and imbalance, but not episodic limb paralysis. Cervical disc prolapse (CDP) typically produces neck and arm pain or symptoms of spinal cord compression, which are not transient. Depression and anxiety may cause feelings of suffocation during a panic attack, but no other symptoms are described in this patient. Nocturnal seizures, which occur during sleep, may cause unusual conditions upon awakening, but transient limb paralysis is not typically a feature. Considering these potential causes can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of irregular vaginal bleeding. She started the combined hormonal contraceptive pill 3 months ago. She has no other medication and is not taking any over the counter medication. She reports no missed pills. She has recently been to the sexual-health clinic and reports all tests were normal including a negative pregnancy test. She reports no abdominal pain, no dyspareunia, no abnormal vaginal discharge, no heavy bleeding and no postcoital bleeding.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue the same pill and review at 3 months, reassuring the patient that most bleeding may settle after 3 months
Explanation:Patients who experience problematic bleeding within the first 3 months of starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, without any concerning symptoms, can be reassured and monitored. It is common for bleeding to improve after this initial period. A physical examination is typically not necessary for these patients, as long as they are participating in cervical screening and have not experienced more than 3 months of problematic bleeding.
A transvaginal ultrasound scan is not recommended at this stage.
However, if bleeding persists beyond 3 months or if there are other symptoms that suggest an underlying cause, such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal and speculum examination should be considered.
If problematic bleeding continues, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol in a combined hormonal contraceptive pill can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. While there is no evidence that changing the dose of progestogen improves cycle control, it may be beneficial on an individual basis.
There is no need for gynaecology referral at this stage.
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.
Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A medical researcher wants to investigate the quality of life of patients with lung cancer, many years after their initial diagnosis. The researcher plans to identify patients who were diagnosed at least 10 years ago and administer a questionnaire to gather information about their quality of life since the diagnosis.
What potential bias could affect the results of this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Late-look bias
Explanation:The gathering of information at an inappropriate time is known as late-look bias. In the given scenario, the researcher is interviewing individuals who have had lung cancer for at least 15 years, which means that many of them may have already passed away. This could result in a skewed outcome as those who are still alive may have had milder forms of cancer, leading to a better quality of life.
Lead-time bias is not applicable in this case as it pertains to the illusion of people living longer when a new test is used for diagnosis. Procedure bias is also not relevant as it pertains to different groups receiving different treatments in a study. Publication bias is not mentioned in the scenario.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms of bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Campylobacter jejuni after a stool sample test. He believes that he contracted the infection from consuming undercooked chicken at a barbecue 3 days before the onset of his symptoms.
Although he feels much better now, with the cessation of bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, and fever, he still experiences loose stools 3-4 times a day, along with abdominal pain and bloating after eating food. He maintains a regular diet.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the given options?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secondary lactose intolerance
Explanation:If a patient who previously had gastroenteritis and maintains a normal diet continues to experience changes in their bowel habits, the most probable diagnosis is acquired lactose intolerance.
The most likely explanation for this scenario is secondary lactose intolerance, which occurs when the lining of the gut is damaged and temporarily unable to produce sufficient lactase. This damage can be caused by any condition that irritates and harms the gut, such as gastroenteritis. This type of lactose intolerance is usually temporary, and avoiding dairy products for a few weeks or months allows the gut to heal. Over time, the gut’s ability to produce lactase will recover, and the patient will be able to consume dairy products again.
While other possibilities exist, inflammatory bowel disease and coeliac disease are less likely than lactose intolerance and are not typically associated with confirmed gastroenteritis.
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is a rare complication of gastroenteritis, particularly with certain strains of E.coli, but it typically presents with haematuria and decreased urine output.
The final option is unlikely since it appears that the infection has improved.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.
Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.
Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ezetimibe
Explanation:Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy
NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which one of the following medications should be prescribed using the brand name instead of the generic name?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Prescribing Guidance for Healthcare Professionals
Prescribing medication is a crucial aspect of healthcare practice, and it is essential to follow good practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidance on prescribing medication, including the recommendation to prescribe drugs by their generic name, except for specific preparations where the clinical effect may differ. It is also important to avoid unnecessary decimal points when writing numbers, such as prescribing 250 ml instead of 0.25 l. Additionally, it is a legal requirement to specify the age of children under 12 on their prescription.
However, there are certain drugs that should be prescribed by their brand name, including modified release calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics, ciclosporin and tacrolimus, mesalazine, lithium, aminophylline and theophylline, methylphenidate, CFC-free formulations of beclomethasone, and dry powder inhaler devices. By following these prescribing guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective medication management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a six day history of paraesthesia in his hands and feet. He reports that this has been getting steadily worse and he is now finding it difficult to walk. He denies any other symptoms but tells you that a couple of weeks ago he had a two day episode of diarrhoea, since completely resolved. He denies any ongoing bladder or bowel symptoms. He also tells you that he has had a difficult time at home recently as his wife has moved out and asked for a divorce. He denies any excessive alcohol use.
On examination, he has a slow, unsteady gait, needing to hold onto the furniture as he walks. Examination shows he has 4/5 power in his finger abductors as well as 3/5 in both ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. He reports loss of soft-touch sensation in both feet up to the ankles. Reflexes are normal in the upper limbs but you are unable to elicit either the knee jerk or ankle jerks; plantars are downgoing. Tone is normal throughout.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome
Explanation:The presence of rapidly progressive peripheral neuropathy with hyporeflexia in this man strongly suggests Guillain-Barre syndrome. This condition should be suspected in patients who exhibit symmetrical neurological signs following a diarrhoeal illness, with campylobacter being a common cause.
While symmetrical paraesthesia may be attributed to anxiety or panic attacks, this man’s objective neurological signs require further investigation.
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is unlikely to present with symmetrical peripheral symptoms affecting all four limbs, and upper motor neurone signs would be more prominent.
Cauda equina syndrome typically presents with lower limb symptoms accompanied by back pain, saddle anaesthesia, and sphincter disturbance.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of a right red eye, difficulty looking at lights and a sensation of something being stuck in his eye. He has worn contact lenses since he was 18 and occasionally sleeps with them in if he forgets, after a night out. He is urgently referred for same-day ophthalmological casualty.
On examination, a mucopurulent discharge is present and examination with a penlight reveals a round white spot of infiltrate, enhanced with the application of fluorescein, approximately 0.7mm in size. Examination of the left eye is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial keratitis
Explanation:If a person who wears contact lenses experiences a painful, red eye, they should be referred to an eye casualty to rule out microbial keratitis. Bacterial keratitis is characterized by a foreign body sensation, difficulty keeping the eye open, redness, photophobia, and a round white spot visible on penlight examination that will also stain with fluorescein. Viral keratitis presents with redness, photophobia, foreign body sensation, and watery discharge, and may show a faint branching opacity on penlight examination with fluorescein. Iritis causes a red eye and photophobia, but no foreign body sensation, and examination of the unaffected eye with a penlight will result in photophobia. There is typically no discharge or tearing, and fluorescein staining will reveal nothing. Scleritis causes severe pain that worsens overnight and radiates to the face and periorbital region, and may be accompanied by a headache, watering of the eyes, ocular redness, and photophobia. Fluorescein staining will reveal nothing. A subconjunctival hemorrhage is usually asymptomatic, with the only symptom being eye redness, and can be diagnosed by normal acuity and the absence of discharge, photophobia, or foreign body sensation.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).
Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.
Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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