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Question 1
Correct
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What is the likelihood of developing dementia for an individual with two APOE4 alleles at an advanced age?
Your Answer: 15
Explanation:Having two APOE4 alleles increases the risk of developing dementia by 15 times, while having one APOE4 allele increases the risk by three times compared to those without any APOE4 alleles. APOE4 is responsible for 50% of the genetic variation in dementia and is present in 20% of the population. APOE3 is the most prevalent allele, and APOE2 may have a protective effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Processes
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the concept of Conventional Ethics according to Lawrence Kohlberg?
Your Answer: To stand for ethical principles
Correct Answer: To gain approval from others
Explanation:Attachment theory is a framework that emphasizes the importance of secure emotional bonds and resources in shaping an individual’s development and behavior. It highlights the significance of early relationships and experiences in shaping one’s sense of security and ability to form healthy relationships later in life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 3
Correct
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You are requested to conduct a home visit for a 35-year-old male patient who is experiencing depression. He also complains of poor coordination and you observe that he has an unsteady gait. During the consultation, you learn that his father passed away at the age of 55 due to a degenerative disease and had exhibited abnormal jerky movements for a few years. Based on this information, which of the following trinucleotide repeat disorders would you suspect the most?
Your Answer: CAG
Explanation:The historical evidence indicates that the individual may be affected by Huntington’s disease, which is a genetic disorder caused by the expansion of a trinucleotide repeat in the huntingtin gene.
Trinucleotide Repeat Disorders: Understanding the Genetic Basis
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that arise due to the abnormal presence of an expanded sequence of trinucleotide repeats. These disorders are characterized by the phenomenon of anticipation, which refers to the amplification of the number of repeats over successive generations. This leads to an earlier onset and often a more severe form of the disease.
The table below lists the trinucleotide repeat disorders and the specific repeat sequences involved in each condition:
Condition Repeat Sequence Involved
Fragile X Syndrome CGG
Myotonic Dystrophy CTG
Huntington’s Disease CAG
Friedreich’s Ataxia GAA
Spinocerebellar Ataxia CAGThe mutations responsible for trinucleotide repeat disorders are referred to as ‘dynamic’ mutations. This is because the number of repeats can change over time, leading to a range of clinical presentations. Understanding the genetic basis of these disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis, genetic counseling, and the development of effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 4
Correct
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What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?
Your Answer: Splitting
Explanation:Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.
On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 5
Correct
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What is an example of a second generation H1 antihistamine?
Your Answer: Cetirizine
Explanation:The second generation of H1 antihistamines exhibit limited ability to cross the blood-brain barrier, leading to their non-sedating properties. Furthermore, they possess greater receptor specificity and do not produce significant anticholinergic effects. These characteristics make them a more desirable option for managing allergic conditions, as they minimize the risk of adverse effects.
Antihistamines: Types and Uses
Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.
There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following is an example of a compound question?
Your Answer: Do you limit what you eat and exercise to keep thin?
Explanation:Understanding Compound Questions in Interview Techniques
When conducting interviews, it is important to be aware of compound questions. These are questions that combine multiple inquiries into what appears to be a single question. Compound questions can be confusing for the interviewee and may lead to inaccurate of incomplete responses.
To avoid compound questions, it is important to break down inquiries into separate, clear questions. This allows the interviewee to fully understand what is being asked and provide a thoughtful response. Additionally, it is important to avoid using conjunctions such as and of of when asking questions, as this can create compound questions.
By using clear and concise language and avoiding compound questions, interviewers can ensure that they are receiving accurate and complete responses from their interviewees. This can lead to a more successful and informative interview process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient presents with gait instability, urinary incontinence, and memory impairment. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation:Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.
The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is not associated with an abnormality in the tau protein?
Your Answer: Hepatolenticular degeneration
Explanation:Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is identified by the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain.
Tau and Tauopathies
Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.
When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.
The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 9
Correct
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In a healthy right-handed man, which structure is typically larger in the left hemisphere compared to the right hemisphere?
Your Answer: Planum temporale
Explanation:Cerebral Asymmetry in Planum Temporale and its Implications in Language and Auditory Processing
The planum temporale, a triangular region in the posterior superior temporal gyrus, is a highly lateralized brain structure involved in language and music processing. Studies have shown that the planum temporale is up to ten times larger in the left cerebral hemisphere than the right, with this asymmetry being more prominent in men. This asymmetry can be observed in gestation and is present in up to 70% of right-handed individuals.
Recent research suggests that the planum temporale also plays an important role in auditory processing, specifically in representing the location of sounds in space. However, reduced planum temporale asymmetry has been observed in individuals with dyslexia, stuttering, and schizophrenia. These findings highlight the importance of cerebral asymmetry in the planum temporale and its implications in language and auditory processing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 10
Correct
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What term describes the increase in standardised intelligence test scores that has been observed over time?
Your Answer: Flynn effect
Explanation:The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to a phenomenon where individuals with lower levels of skill of knowledge tend to overestimate their abilities, leading them to believe they are more competent than they actually are.
The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25 year old woman is started on semi-sodium valproate for bipolar disorder. After 3 months, she is found to have a slight increase in alanine aminotransferase levels. She is in good health otherwise. What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Obtain a prothrombin time and continue valproate if normal
Explanation:When transaminase levels are elevated, it is important to conduct further investigations into liver function. While albumin levels may eventually decrease in cases of liver failure, it is a slow process. Therefore, the prothrombin time / INR is a better investigation to consider. Although ultrasound can be useful in investigating abnormal liver function, it is not urgent in this case. Instead, a prothrombin time test would be the preferred investigation.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A young adult man is admitted to a psychiatric ward due to a new onset of psychosis. He is agitated and delusional and requires treatment. His GP records are obtained and reveal that he has CKD stage 3a with an eGFR of 50 ml/min/1.73 m2. Which of the following should be avoided?
Your Answer: Amisulpride
Explanation:If a person has mild to moderate kidney impairment, they are in stage 3a of chronic kidney disease. It is recommended to avoid using amisulpride and sulpiride if the person already has kidney failure.
Renal Impairment and Psychotropic Drugs
The following table provides recommendations for drug treatment in patients with renal impairment, based on the Maudsley 14th guidelines. When a new drug treatment is required, the suggestions below should be followed.
Drug Group Recommendation
Antipsychotics: It is recommended to avoid sulpiride and amisulpride. Otherwise, no agent is clearly preferable to another. For first-generation antipsychotics, haloperidol (2-6 mg/day) is the best choice. For second-generation antipsychotics, olanzapine (5mg/day) is the best choice.
Antidepressants: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Reasonable choices include sertraline (although there is poor efficacy data in renal disease), citalopram (with care over QTc prolongation), and fluoxetine (with care over long half-life).
Mood stabilizers: Lithium is nephrotoxic and contraindicated in severe renal impairment. Otherwise, no agent is clearly preferable to another. Valproate of lamotrigine are suggested.
Anxiolytics: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Lorazepam and zopiclone are suggested.
Anti-dementia drugs: No agent is clearly preferable to another. Rivastigmine is suggested.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which diuretic can be used safely in combination with lithium?
Your Answer: Amiloride
Explanation:Loop diuretics and potassium sparing diuretics have been found to have no significant impact on lithium levels, unlike other diuretics. While acetazolamide can decrease lithium levels by increasing excretion, loop diuretics may initially increase excretion followed by a rebound phase of enhanced reabsorption, resulting in no significant effect on lithium levels over a 24-hour period.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is another term for a set of alleles on a chromosome that typically passes down together as a unit in a family tree?
Your Answer: Epistotype
Correct Answer: Haplotype
Explanation:Recombination Fraction: A Measure of Distance Between Loci
When two loci are located on different chromosomes, they segregate independently during meiosis. However, if they are on the same chromosome, they tend to segregate together, unless crossing over occurs. Crossing over is a process in meiosis where two homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material, resulting in the shuffling of alleles. The likelihood of crossing over between two loci on a chromosome decreases as their distance from each other increases.
Hence, blocks of alleles on a chromosome tend to be transmitted together through generations, forming a haplotype. The recombination fraction is a measure of the distance between two loci on a chromosome. The closer the loci are, the lower the recombination fraction, and the more likely they are to be transmitted together. Conversely, the further apart the loci are, the higher the recombination fraction, and the more likely they are to be separated by crossing over. The recombination fraction can range from 0% if the loci are very close to 50% if they are on different chromosomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What was the name of the influential book authored by Michael Balint?
Your Answer: Countertransference in the Consultation
Correct Answer: The Doctor, His Patient and The Illness
Explanation:Michael Balint’s book ‘The Doctor, His Patient and the Illness’ was published in 1957 and focused on psychodynamic factors in medical consultations. Balint also played a key role in establishing ‘Balint groups’ for discussing these factors. Aldous Huxley’s ‘Brave New World’ is a well-known novel. While countertransference is a significant topic in Balint’s work, it is not the title of a book. Psychiatrist Peter D Kramer wrote ‘Listening to Prozac’, and Sigmund Freud authored ‘Totem and Taboo’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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At what age and developmental stage does Freud's psychosexual stage theory align with Erikson's 'Initiative versus Guilt' stage?
Your Answer: Anal
Correct Answer: Phallic
Explanation:Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development includes eight stages of crises, while Freud’s psychosexual theory of development consists of five stages. However, there is some overlap between the two theories. For example, Freud’s phallic stage, which focuses on the development of sexual identity, broadly coincides with Erikson’s ‘initiative versus guilt’ stage, which focuses on the development of a sense of purpose and direction.
Erikson’s stages are as follows: trust vs. mistrust (0-18 months), autonomy vs. doubt (18-36 months), initiative vs. guilt (3-6 years), competence vs. inferiority (6-12 years), identity vs. confusion (12 years to adulthood), intimacy vs. isolation (adulthood), generativity vs. stagnation (middle-age), and integrity vs. despair (maturity).
Freud’s stages are: oral (0-18 months), anal (18-36 months), phallic (3-6 years), latency (6-12 years), and genital (12 years to adulthood).
While there are similarities between the two theories, it is important to note that they approach development from different perspectives and emphasize different aspects of human growth and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 17
Correct
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What is one assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Your Answer: Mating between individuals is random
Explanation:Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency
Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the term used to describe a type of hallucination that occurs during the process of waking up?
Your Answer: Hypnopompic
Explanation:Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of zopiclone?
Your Answer: Memory impairment
Explanation:Hypnotic Drugs and Their Side Effects
Hypnotic drugs are medications that act on GABA receptors, specifically the BZ1, BZ2, and BZ3 receptors. The BZ1 receptor is responsible for sedative effects, while the BZ2 receptor is responsible for myorelaxant and anticonvulsant effects. The BZ3 receptor is responsible for anxiolytic effects.
Older benzodiazepines bind to all three types of receptors, while newer drugs like Z-drugs primarily bind to the BZ1 receptor. Zopiclone is a cyclopyrrolone drug that was marketed as a non-benzodiazepine sleep aid, but it can produce hangover effects and dependence. It is contraindicated in patients with marked neuromuscular respiratory weakness, respiratory failure, and severe sleep apnea syndrome. Zopiclone can cause alterations in EEG readings and sleep architecture similar to benzodiazepines. It should not be used by breastfeeding women as it passes through to the milk in high quantities. Side effects of zopiclone include metallic taste, heartburn, and lightening of sleep on withdrawal.
Zolpidem is another hypnotic drug that acts on the BZ1 receptor. Side effects of zolpidem include drowsiness, fatigue, depression, falls, and amnesia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of hypnotic drugs and to use them only as directed by a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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In which sensory modality does formication occur?
Your Answer: Tactile
Explanation:The feeling of insects crawling on the skin, also known as tactile hallucination, is referred to as formication. This symptom has been extensively studied and can be caused by various factors.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the lifetime prevalence rate of specific phobia in females across their lifespan?
Your Answer: 4%
Correct Answer: 13%
Explanation:The percentage of women who experience specific phobia at some point in their lives is 13%. The percentage of people who experience obsessive compulsive disorder within a year is 2.1%. The percentage of women who experience agoraphobia without panic disorder within a year is 3.8%. The percentage of men who experience specific phobia at some point in their lives is 4%. The percentage of people in the US National Comorbidity study who experience social phobia within a year is 7.4%. All of these statistics are based on the diagnostic criteria outlined in DSM-III R.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 22
Correct
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A patient in their 60s taking an antipsychotic is found to have a QTc of 490ms. What would be the most appropriate alternative to their current antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A young adult develops nephrolithiasis after initiating a mood stabiliser. What has been demonstrated to cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:The use of topiramate can result in metabolic acidosis due to its ability to block carbonic anhydrase. This can increase the risk of developing calcium phosphate nephrolithiasis, commonly known as kidney stones.
Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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Which statement about Fragile X is not true?
Your Answer: It only affects males
Explanation:Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms
Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.
The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.
The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following literally translates as 'overthinking' and is a culture-bound syndrome observed in individuals who think that excessive thinking leads to different psychiatric problems and physical symptoms?
Your Answer: Kufungisisa
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Correct
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What is a frequently observed negative outcome of taking rivastigmine?
Your Answer: Dizziness
Explanation:Rivastigmine often causes dizziness, while the other listed side effects are less frequently reported.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Correct
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A teenager who is not compliant with their medicine says they just forget to take it. The therapist points out that when they stop the medication they end up missing school and social activities. Which technique is the therapist using?
Your Answer: Confrontation
Explanation:Interview Techniques: Confrontation
Confrontation is a technique that can be employed during patient interviews to draw their attention to a particular issue. However, it is crucial to use this technique with care as it can potentially lead to the patient becoming defensive of hostile. Therefore, it is essential to approach confrontation tactfully and with sensitivity. By doing so, the interviewer can effectively communicate their concerns to the patient without causing any unnecessary tension of conflict. Proper use of confrontation can help patients recognize and address problematic behaviors of attitudes, leading to positive outcomes in their treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What molecule binds to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor through allosteric regulation?
Your Answer: Tacrine
Correct Answer: Galantamine
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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What is a specific negative outcome that is commonly linked to the use of lamotrigine?
Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that can be caused by medication use of infection. Anticonvulsants, particularly lamotrigine, are often the cause. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, fatigue, and the appearance of ulcers and lesions in the mucous membranes. A rash of round lesions also appears on the face, trunk, arms, legs, and soles of the feet. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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At what point does Piaget's formal operational stage commence?
Your Answer: Object permanence
Correct Answer: Logical thinking and hypothesis testing
Explanation:Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts
Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.
The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.
The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.
The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.
Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.
Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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