-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe mouth pain. On examination, you see white plaques over his tongue.
Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?Your Answer: Nystatin mouthwash for 10 days
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole for 7–14 days
Explanation:Treatment Options for Oral Candida Infection During Chemotherapy
During chemotherapy, patients may experience immunosuppression, which can lead to oral candida infection. There are several treatment options available for this condition, including oral fluconazole, nystatin mouthwash, and oral mycafungin. However, the most appropriate choice for mild to moderate oral candida infection is oral fluconazole, as it is more likely to prevent or delay recurrence than nystatin. Intravenous amphotericin B and oral voriconazole are not recommended for this condition, as they are used for systemic fungal infections and other types of fungal infections, respectively. It is important for healthcare providers to consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting a treatment option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a vaginal examination and membrane sweeping at her antenatal visit. Despite these efforts, she has not gone into labor after 6 hours. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, 1 cm dilated, 1.5 cm in length, and in the middle position. The fetal head station is -3, but there have been no complications during the pregnancy. What should be the next appropriate step?
Your Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin gel
Explanation:If the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, the recommended method for inducing labor is through vaginal PGE2 or oral misoprostol. In this case, since the Bishop score was less than 5, labor is unlikely without induction. One option could be to repeat a membrane sweep, but the most appropriate course of action would be to use a vaginal prostaglandin gel.
Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.
The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old tripped and fell while running, injuring his left calf. He experienced a dull ache, tightness, and mild swelling in the calf. Despite the discomfort, he continued running for another 20 minutes before stopping. However, the pain gradually increased, and he felt extreme discomfort when stretching and pulling his toes up. His partner convinced him to seek medical attention at the emergency department.
During the examination, the doctor noticed that the left calf was 6cm larger in circumference than the right calf. The anterior compartment musculature was tender, and passive dorsiflexion caused a significant amount of pain. However, all peripheral pulses were present, and there were no changes in sensation or color.
What initial investigation could be performed to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: AP and lateral x-rays of lower leg
Correct Answer: Compartment pressure monitoring
Explanation:Compartment syndrome is characterized by pain when the affected area is passively stretched.
When a patient presents with pain and swelling after recent trauma, compartment syndrome is a likely diagnosis. Pain that worsens over time and is exacerbated by passive stretching are key indicators of this condition. While other symptoms such as pulselessness, pallor, paraesthesia, and paralysis may also be present, they are not necessary for a suspicion of compartment syndrome.
Although compartment syndrome can be diagnosed clinically, measuring compartment pressure is the preferred method for confirming the diagnosis. X-rays are not useful in detecting compartment syndrome and may not show any abnormalities. The ankle-brachial pressure index is used to diagnose critical limb ischemia, not compartment syndrome. Doppler ultrasound can be used to examine the vasculature of the lower leg, but it is not a diagnostic tool for compartment syndrome.
Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A sixty-eight-year-old male arrived at the emergency department after tripping while getting out of his car and falling on his left side. He is experiencing pain in his groin and is unable to put weight on his left side. During the examination, it was observed that his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. What classification system should be utilized to categorize this patient's injury, given the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Weber
Correct Answer: Garden
Explanation:The Garden classification system is utilized for the classification of neck of femur fractures. In this case, the patient has experienced a fall on her left side resulting in a painful, shortened, and externally rotated leg, which is highly suggestive of a neck of femur fracture. The Garden classification system categorizes these fractures into four types based on their severity and displacement. On the other hand, Gartland classification is used for supracondylar fractures in children, Salter-Harris classification is used for fractures around the growth plate in children, and the Ottawa Rules are used to identify potential ankle fractures in patients.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man is referred following a collapse at home. He is currently taking diclofenac for persistent low back pain. Upon examination, he appears pale and has a pulse of 110 beats per minute. His blood pressure is 110/74 mmHg while sitting and drops to 85/40 mmHg when standing. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: 24 ambulatory ECG
Correct Answer: Digital rectal examination
Explanation:Syncopal Collapse and Possible Upper GI Bleed
This patient experienced a syncopal collapse, which is likely due to hypovolemia, as evidenced by her postural drop in blood pressure. It is possible that she had an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed caused by gastric irritation from her non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. A rectal examination that shows melaena would confirm this suspicion.
To determine the cause of her condition, a full blood count is necessary. Afterward, appropriate fluid resuscitation, correction of anemia, and an upper GI endoscopy should be performed instead of further cardiological or neurological evaluation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 36 year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a grape-sized lump in her breast that she discovered during a bath a week ago. The lump is firm, painless, and has no skin changes around it. The patient is generally healthy, without fever, and no prior history of breast disease. She recently stopped breastfeeding a month ago. An ultrasound scan reveals a well-defined lesion, and aspiration of the lump produces white fluid. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Breast abscess
Correct Answer: Galactocele
Explanation:Fibrocystic change, breast cancer, and fat necrosis are unlikely based on the ultrasound results and aspiration findings.
Understanding Galactocele
Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and does not cause any local or systemic signs of infection.
In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and does not require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 20-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic without an appointment. She had sex with her partner on Sunday and they typically use condoms for contraception, but they didn't have any at the time. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma that is managed with oral steroids, but is in good health otherwise. Today is Thursday. What is the best emergency contraception option for her?
Your Answer: Intrauterine device
Explanation:The most effective method of emergency contraception is a copper IUD, and it should be the first option offered to all women who have had unprotected sexual intercourse. This IUD can be used up to 5 days after the UPSI or the earliest estimated date of ovulation. The combined oral contraceptive pill, intrauterine system, and levonorgestrel are not as effective as the copper IUD and should not be the first option offered. Levonorgestrel can only be used within 72 hours of UPSI, and even then, the copper IUD is still more effective.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 72-year-old man with ovarian cancer is currently taking morphine sulphate modified release (MST) tablets orally 30 mg twice a day. He is admitted under palliative care and his pain is not controlling well. Your consultant asked you to prescribe oral morphine for breakthrough pain.
What dose of Oramorph and frequency should you prescribed?Your Answer: 10 mg 2–4 hourly
Explanation:Calculating Breakthrough Doses for Morphine
When administering morphine for pain management, it is important to calculate the correct dosage for breakthrough pain. The breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of the total morphine dose in 24 hours. For example, if a patient is taking 30 mg of MST in 24 hours, the breakthrough dose would be 10 mg.
The standard dose for breakthrough pain should be repeated every 2-4 hours as required, but this should be constantly reviewed. If the pain is severe, the breakthrough dose can be given up to hourly.
It is important to calculate the correct dosage to avoid an overdose. For example, a dose of 15 mg or 30 mg taken every 2-4 hours would be an overdose when calculated using the one-sixth rule. Always consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate dosage for each individual patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated on the surgical ward due to complaints of abdominal pain and vomiting. She underwent a gallstone removal procedure earlier in the day. Her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 102 beats/min, blood pressure of 132/92 mmHg, temperature of 38.6ºC, oxygen saturation of 99% in room air, and respiratory rate of 20/min. Blood tests are ordered and a CT scan of the abdomen is requested. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duodenal perforation
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:The most frequent complication of ERCP is acute pancreatitis, which is indicated by the patient’s symptoms. These may include abdominal pain that spreads to the back, nausea and vomiting, tachycardia caused by pain, and fever. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count, lipase, and CT abdomen should be ordered.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
You are called to confirm the death of a 86-year-old man who is registered with your practice. The person used to live alone. You complete the necessary checks to verify this man’s death.
In which one of the following scenarios would it be most acceptable to issue a death certificate immediately?Your Answer: History of chronic alcohol-related liver disease
Explanation:When to Report a Death to the Coroner: Guidelines for Different Scenarios
Reporting a death to the Coroner is not always necessary, but there are certain situations where it is required. Here are some guidelines for when to report a death to the Coroner:
1. History of chronic alcohol-related liver disease: Deaths due to chronic conditions like alcoholic liver disease do not need to be reported unless other criteria for reporting are met.
2. Lack of adequate nourishment: If neglect is suspected, such as an elderly person not having adequate shelter or nourishment, then the death should be reported to the Coroner.
3. History of asbestos-related disease: Any deaths due to injury or disease that could be due to a person’s employment must be reported to the Coroner, such as jobs in coal mining or construction work where patients could be susceptible to diseases like pneumoconiosis, asbestosis, or mesothelioma.
4. Suspicion of suicide: Deaths that are thought to be due to self-harm and/or suicide as a result of poisoning, trauma, or injuries to self must always be reported to the Coroner.
5. Suspicion of violence: If there is suspicion or evidence of violence, trauma, or injury, then the death should be reported to the Coroner.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)