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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male patient complains of shortness of breath, weight loss, and night sweats for the past six weeks. Despite being generally healthy, he is experiencing these symptoms. During the examination, the patient's fingers show clubbing, and his temperature is 37.8°C. His pulse is 88 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg. Upon listening to his heart, a pansystolic murmur is audible. What signs are likely to be found in this patient?
Your Answer: Cervical lymphadenopathy
Correct Answer: Splinter haemorrhages
Explanation:Symptoms and Diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis
This individual has a lengthy medical history of experiencing night sweats and has developed clubbing of the fingers, along with a murmur. These symptoms are indicative of infective endocarditis. In addition to splinter hemorrhages in the nails, other symptoms that may be present include Roth spots in the eyes, Osler’s nodes and Janeway lesions in the palms and fingers of the hands, and splenomegaly instead of cervical lymphadenopathy. Cyanosis is not typically associated with clubbing and may suggest idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis or cystic fibrosis in younger individuals. However, this individual has no prior history of cystic fibrosis and has only been experiencing symptoms for six weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. Upon examination, his temperature is 37.1 °C; the blood pressure in his left arm is 174/96 mmHg, heart rate 78 bpm, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. He has 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally, and his lower extremities are cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. Renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Cardiovascular Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics
Coarctation of the Aorta, Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Renal Artery Stenosis, Atrial Septal Defect, and Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis are all cardiovascular conditions that have distinct symptoms and characteristics.
Coarctation of the Aorta is characterized by hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Patients may also experience lower extremity claudication due to low oxygen delivery. Chest X-rays may reveal notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen.
Patent Ductus Arteriosus refers to a persistent open lumen in the ductus arteriosus, causing a left-to-right shunt. A constant, machine-like murmur is detected on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome and reverse to become a cyanotic right-to-left shunt.
Renal Artery Stenosis causes decreased blood flow to the kidneys, leading to fluid retention and hypertension. A bruit is typically heard on auscultation of the abdomen, and creatinine levels may be elevated due to decreased renal perfusion.
Atrial Septal Defect is a congenital abnormality that causes a left-to-right shunt. It can be detected by a fixed, widely split S2 on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.
Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis refers to blood clots in the deep veins of the legs, causing lower extremity swelling, warmth, and erythema. It does not cause hypertension, claudication, or cool lower extremities. Lower extremity arterial insufficiency may cause claudication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for routine health screening. He has a background history of obesity (BMI 31 kg/m2), impaired glucose tolerance and he used to smoke. His blood pressure is 162/100 mmHg. It is the same in both arms. There is no renal bruit and he does not appear cushingoid. He does not take regular exercise. At his previous appointment his blood pressure was 168/98 mm/Hg and he has been testing his BP at home. Average readings are 155/95 mmHg. He does not drink alcohol. His father had a heart attack at age 58. Blood results are listed below:
Investigation Result Normal value
HbA1C 46 mmol/l < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5 mmol/l
Urea 7 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 84 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 1.1 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
Low density-lipoprotein (LDL) 3 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
Triglycerides 1.1 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 2 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
Free T4 16 pmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Commence ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Treatment for Stage 2 Hypertension: Commencing ACE Inhibitor
Stage 2 hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to reduce the risk of a cardiac event. According to NICE guidelines, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension. This man, who has multiple risk factors for hypertension, including age, obesity, and physical inactivity, should commence pharmacological treatment. Lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient in this case.
It is important to note that beta blockers are not considered first-line treatment due to their side-effect profile. Spironolactone is used as fourth-line treatment in resistant hypertension or in the setting of hyperaldosteronism. If cholesterol-lowering treatment were commenced, a statin would be first line. However, in this case, the patient’s cholesterol is normal, so a fibrate is not indicated.
In summary, commencing an ACE inhibitor is the appropriate course of action for this patient with stage 2 hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A fourth year medical student on a ward round with your team is inquiring about pacemakers.
Which of the following WOULD BE an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?Your Answer: Third degree AV block (complete heart block)
Explanation:Understanding Indications for Permanent Pacemaker Insertion
A third degree AV block, also known as complete heart block, occurs when the atria and ventricles contract independently of each other. This can lead to syncope, chest pain, or signs of heart failure. Definitive treatment is the insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Other arrhythmias that may require permanent pacing include type 2 second-degree heart block (Mobitz II), sick sinus syndrome, and symptomatic slow atrial fibrillation. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation are not indications for pacing. Type 1 second degree (Mobitz I) AV block is a benign condition that does not require specific treatment. It is important to understand these indications for permanent pacemaker insertion for both exam and clinical purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with central chest pain which is worse unless sitting forward. He says that the pain gets worse when he takes a deep breath in. There is no previous cardiac history and he is a non-smoker. Over the past few days, he has had a fever with cold and flu type symptoms.
On examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, and he has an audible pericardial rub.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 40 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
White cell count (WCC) 8.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Creatine kinase (CK) 190 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
Total cholesterol 4.9 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Electrocardiogram – saddle-shaped ST elevation across all leads.
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Acute pericarditis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Chest Pain: Acute Pericarditis, Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, Acute Myocardial Infarction, and Unstable Angina
Chest pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the clinical history suggests acute pericarditis, which can be caused by viral infections or other factors. Management involves rest and analgesia, with non-steroidals being particularly effective. If there is no improvement, a tapering course of oral prednisolone may be helpful.
Cardiac tamponade is another possible cause of chest pain, which is caused by fluid accumulation in the pericardial space. Patients may present with shortness of breath, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. Beck’s triad includes a falling blood pressure, a rising JVP, and a small, quiet heart.
Myocarditis can present with signs of heart failure but does not typically cause pain unless there is concurrent pericarditis. Acute myocardial infarction, on the other hand, typically presents with central chest pain that is not affected by inspiration. Unstable angina also causes central chest pain or discomfort at rest, which worsens over time if untreated. However, in this case, the patient has no risk factors for ischaemic heart disease, making it unlikely to be the cause of their symptoms.
In summary, chest pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the patient’s clinical history and risk factors to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, captopril and furosemide. The general practitioner (GP) performs an examination and notes an irregular pulse with a rate of 100 bpm. The GP makes a referral to the Cardiology Department with a view to establishing whether this woman’s atrial fibrillation (AF) is permanent or paroxysmal and to obtaining the appropriate treatment for her.
Which of the following is the most recognised risk factor for the development of AF?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Atrial Fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue. It is most commonly associated with alcohol consumption, chest disease, and hyperthyroidism. Other risk factors include hypertension, pericardial disease, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, valvular heart disease, and coronary heart disease. AF can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent, and may be diagnosed incidentally through an electrocardiogram (ECG) finding.
Once diagnosed, management includes investigating with a 12-lead ECG, echocardiogram, and thyroid function tests. The main objectives are rate control, rhythm control, and reducing the risk of thromboembolic disease. Rhythm control can be achieved through electrical cardioversion or drug therapy, while rate control is managed using medications such as digoxin, β-blockers, or rate-limiting calcium antagonists. Warfarin is indicated for patients with risk factors for stroke, and the risk of ischaemic stroke is calculated using the CHADS2vasc scoring system. Novel oral anticoagulants are also available as an alternative to warfarin in certain patients.
While hyperthyroidism is a recognized risk factor for AF, obesity and smoking are also associated with an increased risk of developing the condition. Pneumothorax, however, is not a recognized risk factor for AF. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing AF and manage the condition if diagnosed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He presents with central crushing chest pain and has ST-segment elevation present on an electrocardiogram (ECG). You are at a District General Hospital without access to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), and you will not be able to transfer the patient across for PCI in time.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?Your Answer: Brain neoplasm
Explanation:Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis
Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, it is important to consider both relative and absolute contraindications before administering thrombolysis.
Cerebral neoplasm is the only absolute contraindication, while advanced liver disease, severe hypertension (not meeting absolute contraindication values), active peptic ulceration, and pregnancy or recent delivery are all relative contraindications.
Primary PCI is the preferred treatment option if available, but thrombolysis can be used as an alternative if necessary. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of less than 30 minutes from admission is recommended. Thrombolysis should not be given if the onset of pain is more than 24 hours after presentation.
It is important to carefully consider contraindications before administering thrombolysis to ensure patient safety and optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man undergoes a workplace medical and has an ECG performed. What is the electrophysiological basis of the T wave on a typical ECG?
Your Answer: Ventricular depolarisation
Correct Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Explanation:The T wave on an ECG indicates ventricular repolarisation and is typically positive in all leads except AvR and V1. Abnormal T wave findings may suggest strain, bundle branch block, ischaemia/infarction, hyperkalaemia, Prinzmetal angina, or early STEMI. The P wave represents atrial depolarisation, while atrial repolarisation is hidden by the QRS complex. The PR interval is determined by the duration of conduction delay through the atrioventricular node. Finally, the QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with severe breathlessness which started this morning and has become gradually worse. The patient denies coughing up any phlegm. He has a history of essential hypertension. On examination, the patient has a blood pressure of 114/75 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. His temperature is 37.1°C. His jugular venous pressure (JVP) is 8 cm above the sternal angle. On auscultation there are fine bibasal crackles and a third heart sound is audible. The patient is an ex-smoker and used to smoke 5–10 cigarettes a day for about 10 years.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:Differentiating Pulmonary Oedema from Other Cardiac and Respiratory Conditions
Pulmonary oedema is a condition characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the lungs due to left ventricular failure. It presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, raised jugular venous pressure, and a third heart sound. Bi-basal crackles are also a hallmark of pulmonary oedema. However, it is important to differentiate pulmonary oedema from other cardiac and respiratory conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
Tricuspid regurgitation is another cardiac condition that may present with a raised JVP and a third heart sound. However, it is characterized by additional symptoms such as ascites, a pulsatile liver, peripheral oedema, and a pansystolic murmur. Pneumonia, on the other hand, is a respiratory infection that presents with a productive cough of yellow or green sputum and shortness of breath. Bronchial breath sounds may also be heard upon auscultation.
Pulmonary embolus is a condition that presents with chest pain, shortness of breath, and signs of an underlying deep vein thrombosis. Pericardial effusion, on the other hand, is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac surrounding the heart. It may eventually lead to cardiac tamponade, which presents with hypotension, shortness of breath, and distant heart sounds. However, bi-basal crackles are not a feature of pericardial effusion.
In summary, it is important to consider the specific symptoms and characteristics of each condition in order to accurately diagnose and differentiate pulmonary oedema from other cardiac and respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of dyspnoea on exertion. She denies a history of cough, wheeze and weight loss but admits to a brief episode of syncope two weeks ago. Her past medical history includes, chronic kidney disease stage IV and stage 2 hypertension. She is currently taking lisinopril, amlodipine and atorvastatin. She is an ex-smoker with a 15-pack year history.
On examination it is noted that she has a low-volume pulse and an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge. The murmur is noted to radiate to both carotids. Moreover, she has good bilateral air entry, vesicular breath sounds and no added breath sounds on auscultation of the respiratory fields. The patient’s temperature is recorded as 37.2°C, blood pressure is 110/90 mmHg, and a pulse of 68 beats per minute. A chest X-ray is taken which is reported as the following:
Investigation Result
Chest radiograph Technically adequate film. Normal cardiothoracic ratio. Prominent right ascending aorta, normal descending aorta. No pleural disease. No bony abnormality.
Which of the following most likely explains her dyspnoea?Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve does not open completely, resulting in dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. It produces a narrow pulse pressure, a low volume pulse, and an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. An enlarged right ascending aorta is a common finding in aortic stenosis. Calcification of the valve is diagnostic and can be observed using CT or fluoroscopy. Aortic stenosis is commonly caused by calcification of the aortic valve due to a congenitally bicuspid valve, connective tissue disease, or rheumatic heart disease. Echocardiography confirms the diagnosis, and valve replacement or intervention is indicated with critical stenosis <0.5 cm or when symptomatic. Aortic regurgitation is characterized by a widened pulse pressure, collapsing pulse, and an early diastolic murmur heard loudest in the left lower sternal edge with the patient upright. Patients can be asymptomatic until heart failure manifests. Causes include calcification and previous rheumatic fever. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a congenital or acquired condition characterized by a pansystolic murmur heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Acquired VSD is mainly a result of previous myocardial infarction. VSD can be asymptomatic or cause heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension. Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a pansystolic murmur heard best at the apex that radiates towards the axilla. A third heart sound may also be heard. Patients can remain asymptomatic until dilated cardiac failure occurs, upon which dyspnea and peripheral edema are among the most common symptoms. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic rumble heard best at the apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. Auscultation of the precordium may also reveal an opening snap. Patients are at increased risk of atrial fibrillation due to left atrial enlargement. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is a previous history of rheumatic fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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