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  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma. She has been using inhaled treatment for the past 12 months and is currently taking salbutamol as needed and a very low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) daily. She has been using the very low dose ICS at the current dose for the past six months. Her parents report that she still needs to use her salbutamol on most days of the week, but never more than once a day. On clinical examination, her chest is clear and there are no focal cardiorespiratory findings. Her inhaler technique is good and there are no issues with compliance. Based on BTS/SIGN guidelines, what is the most appropriate plan for her current management?

      Your Answer: Increase the inhaled corticosteroids to a low daily dose

      Explanation:

      Treatment Ladder for Asthma in Children

      Here we have a 7-year-old child who is currently on a regular inhaled very low dose corticosteroid and salbutamol PRN for asthma. However, despite the regular inhaled steroid, the child still requires salbutamol most days, indicating suboptimal control and the need for treatment escalation.

      To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the most well-recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step should be to add in an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist or an LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist) if over 5 years old. If the child was under 5 years old, then an LTRA alone would be added.

      It is important to note that higher inhaled corticosteroid doses are treatment options further up the ladder, and theophylline would not normally feature in the primary care setting. Continuing the same treatment with review in 12 months is not appropriate as the child’s current disease control is suboptimal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Impaired short term memory

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic jerks

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Alzheimer’s Disease from Other Dementias

      Alzheimer’s disease is typically identified by the early onset of short term memory loss. However, other dementias may present with different symptoms that can help differentiate them from Alzheimer’s. For example, gait ataxia and urinary incontinence may suggest normal pressure hydrocephalus, while myoclonic jerks may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Visual hallucinations may be a sign of delirium or Lewy body dementia. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when evaluating patients with dementia symptoms. By identifying the specific type of dementia, appropriate treatment and management strategies can be implemented to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a...

    Correct

    • You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a fever, rash, and strawberry tongue, and you diagnose them with scarlet fever. According to Public Health England, what is the timeframe within which you must submit a Notifiable Diseases form?

      Your Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      In England and Wales, clinicians are required by law to report cases of scarlet fever as it is a notifiable disease. They do not need to wait for laboratory confirmation before notifying their local health protection team. Public Health England advises that the necessary forms should be filled out immediately upon suspicion of a notifiable disease and submitted within 72 hours. In case of an emergency, verbal notification should be made within 24 hours.

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      85.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements regarding inguinal hernias is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding inguinal hernias is incorrect?

      Your Answer: 95% of patients are male

      Correct Answer: Patients should be referred promptly due to the risk of strangulation

      Explanation:

      Strangulation of inguinal hernias is a rare occurrence.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      59.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is true about jugular venous pulsation (JVP)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about jugular venous pulsation (JVP)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is paradoxical in constrictive pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Impedance of Ventricular Contraction in Constrictive Pericarditis and Cardiac Tamponade

      Both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can cause impedance of ventricular contraction, which becomes more severe as the diaphragm descends. This results in an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, known as Kussmaul’s sign.

      To assess the jugular venous pressure (JVP), the patient should be lying at a 45-degree angle. Normally, the JVP is not palpable except in severe tricuspid regurgitation, and the pressure is assessed relative to the manubrium sterni. In early left ventricular failure, the JVP may be normal, but as fluid retention increases, the veins become congested, leading to congestive cardiac failure (CCF).

      In summary, both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can lead to impedance of ventricular contraction and an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, which can be assessed through the JVP. Congestion of the veins can also occur in CCF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman will visit her general practice surgery next week for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman will visit her general practice surgery next week for her annual learning disability health check. She has a diagnosis of mild learning disability and lives in supported accommodation. She has a carer who can support her with communication. The patient works part-time in a library and is in good physical health, with no regularly prescribed medications.
      What is the most appropriate adaptation to the standard consultation that needs to be made to carry out this check?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Providing the patient with a health check action plan following the consultation

      Explanation:

      Modifications for Conducting a Learning Disability Health Check

      How to Modify Health Check for Patients with Learning Disabilities

      Providing a health check for patients with learning disabilities requires modifications to ensure that the patient’s needs are met. The following are some modifications that can be made to conduct a successful learning disability health check.

      Sending an Invite to the Patient and Carer

      The patient and carer should be invited to the health check in the most acceptable way. The carer should be involved in the health check where required. Extra time should be allowed for consultation. A pre-health check questionnaire should be sent to the patient/carer for completion before the appointment.

      Ensuring the Carer Attends with the Patient

      Patients with learning disabilities may have varying degrees of capacity. Some patients may have full capacity and wish to attend the appointment unaccompanied. However, carers should be invited and welcomed to appointments, if required, and with the patient’s consent whenever possible.

      Sending the Invite to the Carer

      Patients should be involved in their own healthcare needs, and so should be sent an invite. If appropriate, an invite may also need to be sent to the carer. It should not be assumed that lacking capacity in one area means that patients should be excluded from any decisions or discussion.

      Sending the Pre-Health Check Questionnaire to the Carer for Completion

      The questionnaire should be completed by the patient with input/support from the carer if required. Depending on the severity of the learning disability, the carer may need to complete the whole questionnaire.

      Allocating Thirty Minutes for the Appointment

      Consultations will need to be longer for a learning disability health check as time may need to be taken to explain things in a way that the patient can understand. The time for the appointment will need to be decided on an individual basis, depending on the severity of the learning disability.

      In conclusion, modifications are necessary to conduct a successful learning disability health check. By following the above modifications, healthcare providers can ensure that patients with learning disabilities receive the care they need.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He recently went camping in the New Forest and recalls having multiple tick bites.

      Upon examination, there are no visible rashes or swollen lymph nodes. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no signs of liver or spleen enlargement. The thyroid appears normal.

      Lyme disease is suspected, but the ELISA test comes back negative. Based on the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ELISA test in 4-6 weeks after the start of symptoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and presents within 4 weeks of symptom onset, it is recommended to repeat the ELISA test after 4-6 weeks if the initial test is negative. This is because the initial test may not detect the disease in its early stages. It is important to avoid diagnosing Lyme disease at this stage without an erythema migrans rash, as it may lead to inappropriate treatment and the possibility of missing alternative diagnoses. An immunoblot test may be necessary if symptoms persist for 12 weeks or more, or if the ELISA test is positive or equivocal. Referring the patient for same-day review by the infectious diseases team is unnecessary as the patient is not acutely unwell. It is also incorrect to inform the patient that Lyme disease is excluded, especially if the ELISA test was done within 4 weeks of symptom onset, as it may result in a false-negative result. It is important to investigate other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 8 - You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, you notice around 5 small and shallow aphthous ulcers on the inner lining of his mouth.

      What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking is a risk factor for aphthous mouth ulcers

      Explanation:

      There are various factors that can contribute to the development of oral ulcers. These include smoking, deficiencies in iron, folic acid, or vitamin B12, and local trauma to the oral mucosa. Additionally, anxiety and exposure to certain foods such as chocolate, coffee, peanuts, and gluten products may also play a role. However, hormonal factors are not typically associated with the development of oral ulcers.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and mild tenderness in the right upper abdomen. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and feeling ill. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders During Pregnancy: Causes and Consequences

      During pregnancy, the liver can be affected by various disorders that can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy:

      1. Viral Hepatitis: Hepatitis B is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy, especially in developing countries. While most viral hepatitis infections are not affected by pregnancy, hepatitis E can be fatal for pregnant women.

      2. Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy: This rare disorder can progress to liver failure and usually occurs late in pregnancy. Early delivery can lead to complete recovery.

      3. Gallstones: This is the second most common abdominal emergency in pregnant women and can cause severe pain in the right upper quadrant.

      4. Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: This disorder is characterized by itching and elevated serum bile acids and can lead to serious complications for the fetus, including stillbirth.

      5. Pre-eclamptic Liver Disease and HELLP Syndrome: Jaundice may occur in 3-10% of pre-eclamptic pregnancies, and prompt delivery is the most effective treatment for HELLP syndrome.

      It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these liver disorders and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications for both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 10 - During his 3-month check-up, a 50-year-old patient with a BMI of 33 reports...

    Incorrect

    • During his 3-month check-up, a 50-year-old patient with a BMI of 33 reports that he has been unable to adhere to his orlistat prescription due to the side effects he has experienced. The patient has a medical history of psoriasis, hyperlipidaemia, and hypertension. According to NICE, what alternative treatment may be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The first three options listed above are not recommended for treating obesity at present. However, exenatide may have the unintended effect of promoting weight loss when prescribed for type 2 diabetes. Silbutramine is no longer available for prescription in the UK (see notes below). Additionally, the patient doesn’t currently meet the eligibility criteria for bariatric surgery, which were somewhat expanded in the 2014 guidelines.

      If the patient experienced gastrointestinal side effects such as abdominal distention and loose stool while taking orlistat, it may be possible to reduce these side effects by providing further education on a low-fat diet.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old gentleman, with mild dementia and known alcohol excess, has been seeing...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old gentleman, with mild dementia and known alcohol excess, has been seeing his GP regularly for low mood after his wife passed away recently.

      On a routine review, he is noted to be more confused than usual.

      On examination, he is noted to be underweight, ataxic, and has a nystagmus. Cranial nerve examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call medical team

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention. Patients with new onset confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma should be considered for this diagnosis. It is important to note that increased confusion may be mistaken for worsening dementia, highlighting the significance of a thorough examination.

      If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome, making prompt treatment essential. Oral thiamine can be administered following initial intravenous treatment.

      It is important to note that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, have no role in the acute deterioration of cognition. Additionally, a posterior circulation stroke must also be considered, which is why the medical team would be the most appropriate referral initially.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking to switch from her current Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking to switch from her current Microgynon 30 COC to another option due to experiencing mood swings. The decision is made to start her on Marvelon. What guidance should be provided regarding transitioning to a new COC?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finish the current pill packet and the start the new COC without a pill free interval

      Explanation:

      There is conflicting advice from the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) regarding the omission of the pill free interval. The FSRH’s Clinical Effectiveness Unit has stated that the pill free interval doesn’t need to be skipped, while the BNF recommends skipping it if there are changes in progesterone. As there is no clear consensus, it is advisable to follow the BNF’s recommendation.

      Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Concurrent Antibiotic Use:
      In the UK, doctors have previously advised that taking antibiotics concurrently with the combined oral contraceptive pill may interfere with the enterohepatic circulation of oestrogen, making the pill ineffective. As a result, extra precautions were advised during antibiotic treatment and for seven days afterwards. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines, abandoning the previous approach. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated in line with this guidance. Precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Switching Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills:
      The BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice on switching combined oral contraceptive pills. The Clinical Effectiveness Unit of the FSRH has stated in the Combined Oral Contraception guidelines that the pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted. However, the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given the uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 13 - You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number...

    Incorrect

    • You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.

      Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.

      What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.

      It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.

      In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing...

    Incorrect

    • You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing latex products. She has developed asthma and you have referred her to the respiratory unit for further investigation into the possibility of occupational asthma. She wants to know what tests she may need.

      Which test is of proven value in diagnosing occupational asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Occupational Asthma

      Investigations that have been proven valuable in diagnosing occupational asthma include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. To accurately measure peak flow, it should be measured more than four times a day at and away from work for three weeks. Results should be plotted as daily minimum, mean, and maximum values, and intraday variability should be calculated as a percentage of either the mean or highest value (normal upper value is 20%).

      Occupational asthma can be confirmed if there is a consistent fall in peak flow values with increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work. Computer-based analysis may be necessary. It is important to note that these investigations are only useful when the patient is still in the job with exposure to the suspected agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 15 - For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be beneficial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort for Depression: Clinical Evidence and Considerations

      There is clinical evidence to support the use of St John’s wort in treating mild to moderate depression and dysthymia. However, the active ingredient and mechanism of action are still unclear from the latest psychiatry evidence. Hyperforin is responsible for St John’s wort’s enzyme induction effect, but it is not yet shown to be directly active in lifting mood.

      A Cochrane review of 29 clinical trials found that St John’s wort was superior to placebo for treating mild to moderate depression but not severe depression. However, most of the studies were from German-speaking countries, and some were small. There is also evidence for efficacy in Gram-negative infection and improving symptoms in Parkinson’s disease. However, there is no reference for its use in multiple sclerosis (MS).

      It is important to note that the latest NICE guidance on depression advises against prescribing or advising St John’s wort due to the differing potencies of different formulations and potentially serious interactions with other medicines, such as anticonvulsants and the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is crucial to ask patients if they are taking any herbal or natural remedies and dispel the myth that natural and safe are synonymous.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old male presents with polyuria and polydipsia. He is a non-smoker and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with polyuria and polydipsia. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 12 units per week. He is employed as a taxi driver.

      On examination he has a BMI of 33.4 kg/m2, and a blood pressure of 132/82 mmHg, with all other aspects of the cardiovascular examination normal.

      Investigations confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, and the following:

      Fasting blood glucose 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      HbA1c 75 mmol/mol (20-42)

      Total cholesterol 5.8 mmol/L (<5.2)

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient presents with typical type 2 diabetes, which should be initially treated with a combination of diet and lifestyle advice along with metformin. The EASD/ADA guidelines were revised in 2007-2008 due to the evidence base supporting the earlier use of metformin. As a result, diet and lifestyle advice alone is no longer considered sufficient.

      It is important to note that metformin is not a cure for type 2 diabetes, but rather a medication that helps manage blood sugar levels. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to continue making lifestyle changes, such as maintaining a healthy diet and engaging in regular physical activity, in order to effectively manage their diabetes. Additionally, regular monitoring and follow-up with healthcare providers is essential to ensure proper management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 9-year-old child is waiting in the GP's office when he suddenly experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child is waiting in the GP's office when he suddenly experiences facial swelling and difficulty breathing. An elderly patient is snacking on a bag of cashew nuts in the waiting room. The patient is in good health and had come with his mother for her appointment. As the attending GP, you diagnose the child with anaphylaxis. What would be the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 300 mcg IM STAT

      Explanation:

      If a child between the ages of 6 and 11 is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, they should be given a dose of 300 micrograms (0.3ml) of adrenaline. This dose can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. Based on the patient’s age of 8 years old, it is recommended to administer the adrenaline at a dose of 300 micrograms IM immediately, as stated in the BNF. It is likely that the child is having an anaphylactic reaction to the nuts they were exposed to in the GP waiting room.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a recent exacerbation that required oral corticosteroids for remission. He reports feeling well with no abdominal symptoms, but has had four exacerbations in the past year that required treatment with oral corticosteroids. His current medications include paracetamol and mesalazine. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdominal exam is unremarkable. His recent blood test results show no significant abnormalities. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended next step in managing his ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral thiopurines (azathioprine or mercaptopurine)

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. He has no other significant medical history and is not taking any other medications.

      How should his bone density be managed in light of this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formally assess his fracture risk to determine the need for further investigation and treatment for osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Men with Prostate Cancer

      Osteoporosis is a potential risk for men undergoing hormonal androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer. While bisphosphonates are not routinely recommended, assessing fracture risk can guide the need for investigation and treatment. Bisphosphonates may be offered to men with confirmed osteoporosis, while denosumab can be used if bisphosphonates are not an option. However, a confirmed diagnosis of osteoporosis is necessary before treatment can be prescribed. Lifestyle advice is important, but it is not a substitute for fracture risk assessment and further investigation, such as a DEXA scan, may be necessary. By managing osteoporosis risk, men with prostate cancer can reduce the likelihood of fractures and maintain their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.

    Which of the following statements regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.

      Which of the following statements regarding Norwegian scabies is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. Scabies spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. The infestation can be easily spread to sexual partners and household members, and may also occur by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.

      The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, breast, and shoulder blades. Treatment options for scabies include permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.

      It is important to note that whilst common scabies is not associated with eosinophilia, Norwegian scabies is associated with massive infestation, and as such, eosinophilia is a common finding. Norwegian scabies also carries a very high level of infectivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements about the medical management of ophthalmic disease is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the medical management of ophthalmic disease is not correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with corneal abrasion should be given topical anaesthesia to use until the abrasion heals

      Explanation:

      Using topical corticosteroids for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma is not recommended as it can cause a rise in intraocular pressure through an open-angle mechanism. This can lead to optic nerve damage and other complications, especially in patients with pre-existing primary open-angle glaucoma, a family history of glaucoma, high myopia, diabetes mellitus, and a history of connective tissue disease. The risk is higher with topically applied drops and creams to the eyelids, as well as intravitreal injections. The intraocular pressure rise usually occurs within weeks of starting the treatment and can return to normal upon stopping. Therefore, patients should be monitored closely to avoid any potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic neck pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic neck pain that has recently become more severe, making it difficult for her to find a comfortable sleeping position at night. Upon examination, there is no tenderness in the area, but her range of motion is limited in all directions. She has been taking regular paracetamol, but it has not been effective in relieving her pain. When codeine was added to her regimen, she experienced constipation. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short course of an oral NSAID

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cervical Spondylosis Pain

      Cervical spondylosis is a chronic degenerative condition affecting the cervical spine. The pain can be caused by poor posture, muscle strain, and other factors. Here are some treatment options:

      Short Course of Oral NSAID: A standard non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as ibuprofen, can be prescribed for a short period. This should be co-prescribed with a proton pump inhibitor and the patient must have no contraindications to using NSAIDs.

      Capsaicin: Some local guidelines support the use of capsaicin, particularly for hand or knee osteoarthritis, but a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) would be tried first.

      Long-term Regular Treatment with Oral NSAIDs: An oral NSAID is the best next step, but at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible period of time, due to the extra risks associated with taking them regularly.

      Oral Glucosamine: Oral glucosamine is not recommended in guidelines and has no consistent evidence supporting its use as an analgesic.

      Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation: A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation machine may be effective but often is not readily available, and affordability may be an issue for patients.

      Treatment Options for Cervical Spondylosis Pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements about coeliac disease is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about coeliac disease is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All coeliacs are intolerant to oats

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease: Diagnosis and Risks

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, causing damage to the small intestine. Failure to adhere to a gluten-free diet can increase the risk of gastrointestinal cancers and gut lymphoma. However, after three to five years on a gluten-free diet, the risk of cancer decreases to that of a person without coeliac disease. The prevalence of coeliac disease varies in different countries, with rates as low as 1:300 in Italy and Spain to 1:18 in the Sahara. Two types of antibodies are tested for in the patient’s serology: Endomysial antibodies (EMA) and Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGA). A small bowel biopsy is still considered the gold standard for diagnosis, and a referral to a gastroenterologist is necessary for patients with positive antibodies or those with negative antibodies but suspected CD. The suitability of oats for coeliacs is uncertain due to contamination by wheat.

      To summarize, coeliac disease diagnosis involves testing for antibodies and a small bowel biopsy. Adherence to a gluten-free diet is crucial to reduce the risk of cancer. The prevalence of coeliac disease varies globally, and the suitability of oats for coeliacs is uncertain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that produces clear sputum and feeling generally unwell for the past three days. The physician provides him with a prescription for antibiotics to be filled at a later time. What is the estimated percentage of patients who will ultimately take antibiotics using this approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 33%

      Explanation:

      The Debate on Delayed Prescribing for Antibiotics

      Delayed prescribing has been a topic of debate for many years, particularly in relation to reducing antibiotic prescriptions for respiratory tract infections. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) currently advocates for this strategy, but its effectiveness and acceptability among patients remain in question.

      In 2013, Cochrane conducted a review of 10 studies on the delayed prescription of antibiotics for acute respiratory tract infections. The review found that delayed prescribing reduced antibiotic use from 93% to 32%, regardless of the method used (e.g. post-dated script, same-day script with advice to use after 48 hours). However, patient satisfaction levels were not significantly affected by delayed prescribing.

      Critics of delayed prescribing argue that patient satisfaction levels were just as high for patients who were refused antibiotics. Despite the ongoing debate, delayed prescribing remains a potential strategy for reducing unnecessary antibiotic use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 25 - A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did...

    Incorrect

    • A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did not show any serious side-effects of the drug. Select from the list the most appropriate method for identifying any unanticipated adverse drug reactions.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case report

      Explanation:

      The Yellow Card Scheme: Reporting Adverse Drug Reactions

      Before a drug is released to the general public, it undergoes trials to assess its effectiveness and safety. However, these trials may only involve a limited number of patients, which means that rare side effects may not be identified. To address this issue, the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) in the UK operate the Yellow Card Scheme.

      The Yellow Card Scheme is a system that collects information from both health professionals and the general public on suspected side effects of a medicine. Its success depends on people’s willingness to report adverse drug reactions. This scheme is particularly useful for identifying rare or long-term side effects of a drug, as the number of people taking the drug is much greater than in the trials.

      To report a suspected adverse drug reaction, individuals can fill out a Yellow Card online at http://yellowcard.mhra.gov.uk/. By reporting these reactions, individuals can help ensure the safety of drugs on the market and protect the health of the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 26 - You encounter a 27-year-old woman who wishes to discuss her contraceptive options. She...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 27-year-old woman who wishes to discuss her contraceptive options. She has had difficulty finding a suitable pill and is considering a coil. She has no immediate plans for pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. She experiences heavy and painful periods and is concerned about the possibility of a coil exacerbating her symptoms. She has heard about the Mirena® intrauterine system from a friend but is curious about the new Kyleena® coil and how it compares to the Mirena®.

      What advice should you provide to this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rate of amenorrhoea is likely to be less with the Kyleena® than the Mirena®

      Explanation:

      Compared to the Mirena IUS, the Kyleena IUS has a lower rate of amenorrhoea. The Kyleena IUS is a newly licensed contraceptive that contains 19.5mg of levonorgestrel and can be used for up to 5 years. However, it is not licensed for managing heavy menstrual bleeding or providing endometrial protection as part of hormonal replacement therapy, unlike the Mirena IUS. The Kyleena IUS is smaller in size than the Mirena coil, and the Jaydess IUS contains the least amount of LNG at 13.5mg but is only licensed for 3 years. While the lower LNG in the Kyleena IUS may result in a higher number of bleeding/spotting days, overall, the number of such days is likely to be lower than other doses of LNG-IUS. Women may prefer the Kyleena IUS over the Mirena IUS due to its lower systemic levonorgestrel levels.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 27 - A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate cancer. The test is designed to show positive in the presence of the disease. The sensitivity was reported as 70%.

      Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70% of people with the disease will have a negative test result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity

      Sensitivity and specificity are two important measures used to evaluate the accuracy of medical tests. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify a condition when it is present, while specificity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify the absence of a condition when it is not present.

      In the given scenario, the data suggests that there is a 70% probability of the test being positive when tested in a group of patients with the disease. This means that if 100 patients with the disease were tested, 70 of them would test positive and 30 would test negative. It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not fixed values and can vary depending on the test and the population being tested. Understanding these measures can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the use and interpretation of medical tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man presents to you with concerns that he may be losing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to you with concerns that he may be losing his mind. He reports experiencing peculiar odors (such as burnt rubber) and frequently feeling jamais vu. No one else detects any unusual smells during these episodes. He remains fully conscious and has excellent recall of the events. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophreniform attack

      Explanation:

      Understanding Simple Partial Seizures

      A simple partial seizure is a type of seizure where consciousness is usually not lost during the attack. However, other symptoms such as muscle twitching, numbness, or tingling sensations may occur. This type of seizure is considered simple because it only affects a small part of the brain.

      It is important to note that if consciousness is impaired during the seizure, it is then classified as a complex partial seizure. It is crucial to understand the difference between the two types of seizures as they may require different treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 40-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for 2 years and they have undergone clinical evaluation. While his partner's assessment is normal, he has been diagnosed with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

      What are the possible causes of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often nonspecific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.

      Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
      What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet

      Explanation:

      Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
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