-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 64-year-old woman is noted to have poor self-care with symptoms of early morning waking and decreased appetite. She has poor concentration and is easily agitated. There is a history of a recent death in the family. She also recently lost her job as a volunteer. She has difficulty answering short-term recall questions. Her family think that her symptoms have been deteriorating over the past 6 months.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Depressive pseudodementia
Explanation:Physical Signs and Symptoms of Depression in Elderly Patients
Depression in elderly patients can manifest in various physical signs and symptoms. Early morning waking and decreased appetite are common symptoms, often accompanied by short-term memory loss. While memory loss is also seen in dementia, it improves with treatment of depression. Other physical signs include weight loss, constipation, loss of libido, impotence in men, fatigue, and body aches and pains. Retardation or agitation of behavior may also occur. These symptoms may be precipitated by life events and should be addressed promptly to improve the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A mother brings her baby to the GP for a check-up and seeks guidance on her child's developmental milestones. She mentions that her baby was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation. Considering the premature birth, at what age can the baby be expected to display a responsive social smile?
Your Answer: 11 to 13 weeks
Correct Answer: 14 to 16 weeks
Explanation:When assessing a premature baby’s developmental milestones, their corrected age is used instead of their actual age. The corrected age is calculated by subtracting the number of weeks the baby was born early from 40 weeks. A responsive smile is typically expected to appear between 6 to 8 weeks of age. However, for a premature baby born at 32 weeks gestation, their corrected age would be 14 to 16 weeks when assessing their ability to show a responsive smile. The corrected age is used as a reference until the child reaches the age of 2.
Developmental Milestones in Social Behaviour, Feeding, Dressing, and Play
Developmental milestones are important markers in a child’s growth and development. In terms of social behaviour and play, there are several milestones that parents and caregivers can look out for. At six weeks, a baby may start to smile, which develops into laughter by three months. At six months, they become less shy, but by nine months, they may exhibit shyness. Additionally, babies at this age tend to put everything in their mouths.
In terms of feeding, a six-month-old may start to put their hand on the bottle while being fed. By 12-15 months, they can drink from a cup and use a spoon, which develops over a three-month period. At two years, they become competent with a spoon and don’t spill with a cup, and by three years, they can use a spoon and fork. Finally, at five years, they can use a knife and fork.
When it comes to dressing, a child may start to help with getting dressed and undressed at 12-15 months. By 18 months, they can take off shoes and hats but may not be able to replace them. At two years, they can put on hats and shoes, and by four years, they can dress and undress independently, except for laces and buttons.
Lastly, in terms of play, a nine-month-old may start to play peek-a-boo and wave bye-bye. By 12 months, they may play pat-a-cake, and at 18 months, they can play contentedly alone. At two years, they may play near others but not necessarily with them, and by four years, they can play with other children. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s development and ensure they are meeting age-appropriate goals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and confusion that have been present for one day. Upon further examination, she is found to have an elevated heart rate and body temperature.
The patient has a history of depression and has been taking sertraline for several years without any changes in dosage or indications of overdose. However, her partner reports that she recently began taking a new medication prescribed by her general practitioner. It is suspected that this medication may have interacted with her regular medication.
Which medication is the most likely culprit for this interaction?Your Answer: Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Zolmitriptan
Explanation:Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour, his wife has also noticed a few aggressive outbursts over the past months. His mini-mental test score is 20.
Which patterns of cognitive deficit would favour a dementia of subcortical origin?Your Answer: Severe memory disturbance
Correct Answer: Reduced verbal output
Explanation:Understanding the Differences between Cortical and Subcortical Dementia
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many different types of dementia, two of the most common are cortical and subcortical dementia. Understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in diagnosing and treating the condition.
Cortical dementia is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex, which is the outer layer of the brain. This area is responsible for memory and language, so patients with cortical dementia often experience severe memory loss and difficulty with language. Alzheimer’s, frontotemporal dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are all common causes of cortical dementia.
Subcortical dementia, on the other hand, is caused by damage to areas beneath the cortex and disruption in the frontostriatal connections. This can result in early frontal lobe problems such as planning difficulties, poor verbal fluency, personality change, and task switching. While complex motor functions are typically preserved in subcortical dementia, patients may experience psychomotor slowing, reduced verbal output, and reduced alertness. Parkinson’s disease, vascular dementia, and multiple sclerosis are all common causes of subcortical dementia.
It’s important to note that the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is not always clear-cut, and as the condition progresses, patients may experience symptoms of both types of dementia. However, understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in identifying the underlying cause of the condition and developing an appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman is being evaluated one week after being diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis in her left leg. She has started taking warfarin after receiving low-molecular weight heparin for five days. Her medical history includes depression, osteoporosis, breast cancer, and type 2 diabetes. Which medication she is currently taking is most likely to have contributed to her increased risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis?
Your Answer: Denosumab
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Prior to initiating tamoxifen treatment, women should be informed about the elevated risk of VTE, which is one of the most significant side effects of the medication. Additionally, tamoxifen has been linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer.
Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination, red linear lesions are observed on the wrists and elbows, while red papules are present on the penis. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Referral to GUM clinic
Correct Answer: Topical permethrin
Explanation:Although lichen planus can have similar symptoms, scabies is more likely to cause intense itching. Additionally, lichen planus is less frequently seen in older individuals, as it typically affects those between the ages of 30 and 60.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding developmental dysplasia of the hip is true?
Your Answer: Polyhydramnios is a risk factor
Correct Answer: 20% of cases are bilateral
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be screened for using ultrasound in infants with certain risk factors or through clinical examination using the Barlow and Ortolani tests. Other factors to consider include leg length symmetry, knee level when hips and knees are flexed, and restricted hip abduction in flexion. Ultrasound is typically used to confirm the diagnosis, but x-rays may be necessary for infants over 4.5 months old. Management options include the Pavlik harness for younger children and surgery for older ones. Most unstable hips will stabilize on their own within 3-6 weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy is seen with his father. The father reports that for the last few weeks, the child has been persistently scratching his bottom, particularly at night. The father has noticed some scratch marks around his anus, but nothing else. He is otherwise well and takes no regular medications.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hookworm infestation
Correct Answer: Threadworm infestation
Explanation:Understanding Threadworm Infestation: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Threadworm infestation is a common parasitic infection in the United Kingdom, particularly among children. The threadworm, a small white worm that tapers at both ends, can cause itching around the anus and vulva due to the mucous accompanying the eggs it lays at night. Scratching can lead to skin infection and re-infection with the worms. While pre-pubertal girls with certain symptoms should also be investigated for threadworm, other conditions such as hookworm infestation, eczema, psychological pruritus, and tapeworm infestation should be ruled out through differential diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of threadworm infestation can help healthcare providers provide appropriate treatment and care for affected individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man who works as a teacher and is generally healthy asks about getting the flu shot. Can you confirm if he is eligible for it on the NHS?
Your Answer: A 35-year-old woman with irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: A 35-year-old woman on metformin for type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Familiarizing oneself with vaccine eligibility is crucial.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.
A diagnosis of measles is suspected.
Which one of the following statements is true concerning measles infection?Your Answer: The erythematous maculopapular rash usually starts on the hands
Explanation:Measles: Key Points to Remember
– Prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles.
– Koplik spots are a unique symptom of measles.
– Erythromycin doesn’t reduce the duration of measles.
– The MMR vaccine is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age.
– The rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, particularly in young children. It is important to remember that prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles, and erythromycin doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. One unique symptom of measles is the presence of Koplik spots, which are small white spots that appear on the inside of the mouth. The MMR vaccine is the most effective way to prevent measles and is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age. Finally, it is important to note that the rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
With which of the following is the Caldicott Report, published in 1997, related?
Your Answer: Patient confidentiality
Explanation:The Caldicott Report: Protecting Patient Confidentiality
The Caldicott Report, published in 1997, focuses on safeguarding the confidentiality of patients and their medical records. It addresses the need for healthcare providers to ensure that patient information is kept secure and only accessed by authorized personnel. The report emphasizes the importance of balancing the need for patient confidentiality with the need for healthcare professionals to have access to relevant information to provide effective care. The Caldicott Report has had a significant impact on healthcare policy and practice in the UK, with its principles now embedded in legislation and guidelines. It serves as a reminder to healthcare providers of their responsibility to protect patient confidentiality and maintain trust in the healthcare system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old accountant has approached you seeking assistance in quitting smoking. They have inquired about the effectiveness of various treatments. What is the correct statement regarding smoking cessation?
Your Answer: antidepressants do not help
Correct Answer: Counselling alone is of little value
Explanation:Aids for Smoking Cessation
Smoking is linked to depression, and antidepressants are believed to help with smoking cessation. Bupropion is an antidepressant that doubles the odds of quitting, but its mode of action is unknown. Varenicline increases the odds of quitting by a factor of 3, while nicotine replacement therapy nearly doubles the odds. Cytisine, a low-cost aid used in Eastern Europe, may be effective but requires further evaluation. Genetic differences may affect response to NRT. Counselling is widely accepted as an aid, but its effectiveness varies. Overall, there are several aids available for those looking to quit smoking, and it may be helpful to try a combination of methods for the best chance of success.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 28-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.
What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?Your Answer: Wear patch continually for 1 month then have 1 week break
Correct Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches
Explanation:The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for extra contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption means that it is not affected by vomiting or diarrhea, eliminating the need for additional precautions. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraception followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.
How to Use the Combined Contraceptive Patch
The Evra patch is the only combined contraceptive patch approved for use in the UK. It is worn for 3 weeks straight and then removed for a week, during which a withdrawal bleed occurs. If the patch is not changed on time, different rules apply depending on the week of the patch cycle.
If the patch change is delayed at the end of week 1 or week 2, it should be changed immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are needed. However, if the delay is greater than 48 hours, a barrier method of contraception should be used for the next 7 days. If unprotected sexual intercourse has occurred during this extended patch-free interval or in the last 5 days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week 3, it should be removed as soon as possible and a new patch applied on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed. If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for 7 days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle.
For more information on combined hormonal methods of contraception, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman attends with her mother. She has always lived at home and never worked. Over the past few weeks she has become increasingly anxious and begs her mother not to leave her on her own at home. Her mother reveals that her daughter has always needed a lot of reassurance and has never liked being left alone.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:Common Personality and Mental Health Disorders
Dependent Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by a person’s inability to make decisions on their own and a constant need for reassurance and support from others.
Borderline Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder experience intense mood swings, unstable relationships, and may engage in self-harm or have suicidal tendencies.
Conversion Disorder: This disorder involves physical symptoms that mimic a medical condition, but have no underlying medical cause.
Depression: A mental health disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities.
Histrionic Personality Disorder: People with this disorder have a strong desire for attention and may engage in dramatic or seductive behavior to gain approval from others.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
The standardised mortality ratio for a group of elderly patients with antisocial personality disorder is 120 (95% CI 90-130). How should this result be interpreted?
Your Answer: None of the above apply
Correct Answer: The result is not statistically significant
Explanation:The statistical significance of the result is questionable since the confidence interval encompasses values below 100. This implies that there is a possibility that the actual value could be lower than 100, contradicting the observed value of 120 that indicates a rise in mortality within this group.
Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio
The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.
An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man is evaluated after being bedridden due to severe heart failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been immobile in bed and his wife is struggling to care for him. During the examination, his blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg, heart rate is 85 bpm and regular. Bilateral crackles and wheezing are heard on chest auscultation, and he has pitting edema on both knees and over the sacrum. Which scoring system is utilized to assess his risk of developing pressure ulcers?
Your Answer: Barthel scale
Correct Answer: Waterlow scale
Explanation:Different Clinical Scales and Their Uses
There are various clinical scales used in healthcare to assess different aspects of a patient’s condition. Here are some examples:
Waterlow Scale: This scale is used to estimate the risk of pressure sores in patients. It helps determine the level of nursing care required and the type of mattress that may be needed.
Barthel Scale: This scale measures a patient’s ability to perform activities of daily living and provides an overall estimate of disability.
Glasgow-Imrie Scale: This scale is used to evaluate the severity of acute pancreatitis.
Modified Rankin Score: This scale assesses disability associated with neurological impairment.
Ranson’s Criteria: This scale is used to evaluate the risk of mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis.
Each of these scales serves a specific purpose in healthcare and helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially at night, and has recently gained 8 kg in weight. He has noticed that his periods have become heavier over the last four months and now lasts for 8-11 days each month. There is a history of type 2 diabetes in his family. During examination, his BMI is 31.
What is the most suitable test to perform?Your Answer: 21 day progesterone
Correct Answer: LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:Hypothyroidism as a Possible Cause of Weight Gain, Menorrhagia, and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The combination of weight gain, menorrhagia, and carpal tunnel syndrome in a patient is highly suggestive of hypothyroidism. While the patient may also be at risk of type 2 diabetes due to her obesity, it is not the primary cause of her symptoms. The most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK population is autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis. Treatment for this condition typically involves thyroid hormone replacement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy. Routine blood testing reveals hypochromic microcytic anaemia with a low ferritin. Her haemoglobin level is 100 g/l. She has had no symptoms of abnormal bleeding, indigestion or change in bowel habit and there is no medication use of note. She is still menstruating and regards her menstrual loss as normal. She has a normal diet and there have been no recent foreign trips. Faecal occult blood tests are negative. There is no family history of colorectal cancer. Abdominal examination is normal.
What is most appropriate for this stage in her management?Your Answer: Defer treatment until investigations are complete
Correct Answer: Measure tissue transglutaminase antibody
Explanation:Recommended Actions for Patients with Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Here are some recommended actions for patients with this condition:
Screen for Coeliac Disease: All patients with iron deficiency anaemia should be screened for coeliac disease using coeliac serology, which involves measuring the presence of anti-endomysial antibody or tissue transglutaminase antibody.
Refer for Gastrointestinal Investigations: Men of any age with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l or below, as well as women who are not menstruating with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l or below, should be urgently referred for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations. For other patients, referral for gastrointestinal investigation will depend on the haemoglobin level and clinical findings.
Prescribe Iron Supplements: Treatment for iron deficiency anaemia should begin with oral ferrous sulphate 200 mg tablets two or three times a day. Doctors should not wait for investigations to be carried out before prescribing iron supplements.
Check Vitamin B12 and Folate Levels: Vitamin B12 and folate levels should be checked if the anaemia is normocytic with a low or normal ferritin level, there is an inadequate response to iron supplements, vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is suspected, or the patient is in an older age bracket.
Avoid Inappropriate Tests: Pelvic ultrasound examination is not necessary for patients with iron deficiency anaemia unless they have gynaecological symptoms.
By following these recommended actions, patients with iron deficiency anaemia can receive timely and appropriate care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner at the suggestion of his solicitor. He has recently been charged with assault and criminal damage and is facing a custodial sentence. His solicitor thinks he may have mental health problems and hopes that this may result in a lenient sentence. He admits he has always been impulsive, irritable and had a short temper, which frequently results in fights. He has no close friends and admits to being lonely. Reviewing his notes there are several episodes of deliberate self-harm usually provoked by arguments. There is no evidence of thought disorder.
What the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Common Mental Health Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Borderline Personality Disorder, Schizophrenia, Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, Bipolar Disorder, and Depression are some of the most common mental health disorders that affect individuals worldwide. Each disorder has its own set of characteristics and symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s daily life.
Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by extreme fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, an inability to maintain friendships, an unstable sense of self, powerful emotions that change quickly and often, feelings of emptiness, frequent dangerous behavior, and self-harm. Men with this disorder may also exhibit aggressive behavior, seek to control others by criticism, demonstrate extreme jealousy, and be reluctant to share emotional experiences.
Schizophrenia is a psychotic illness that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder, and lack of insight.
Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is a developmental condition of inattention and distractibility, with or without accompanying hyperactivity. The hyperactivity decreases in adulthood, but impulsivity, poor concentration, and risk-taking can get worse. These can interfere with work, learning, and relationships with other people. Depressions, anxiety, feelings of low self-esteem, and drug misuse are more common in adults with the condition.
Bipolar Affective Disorder is characterized by periods of deep, prolonged, and profound depression that alternate with periods of an excessively elevated or irritable mood known as mania.
Depression involves both low mood and/or absence loss of interest and pleasure in most activities, accompanied by an assortment of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these common mental health disorders is crucial in identifying and seeking appropriate treatment for individuals who may be struggling with them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags in both axillae.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Hyperpigmented Skin: Acanthosis Nigricans, Erythrasma, Melasma, Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum, and Post-Inflammatory Hyperpigmentation
Hyperpigmented skin can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is acanthosis nigricans, which presents with thick, velvety skin in the neck and flexures, often accompanied by skin tags. This condition is commonly associated with obesity and hereditary factors. However, it can also be a sign of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Another possible cause of hyperpigmented skin is erythrasma, a bacterial infection that causes pink-red macules that turn brown, typically in the groin and axilla. However, the bilateral distribution of the pigmentation in this case makes erythrasma less likely.
Melasma is another condition that can cause hyperpigmentation, but it typically presents with symmetrical blotchy brown pigmentation on the face. The distribution described in the scenario makes melasma less likely.
Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare condition that affects the shins of people with diabetes. However, the distribution of the pigmentation in this case rules out this condition as a cause.
Finally, post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after trauma such as burns, causing flat macules. However, it doesn’t cause skin thickening, as described in this case.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for hyperpigmented skin includes acanthosis nigricans, erythrasma, melasma, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old girl presents with a 2-day history of right sided limp and reluctance to weight bear. She has been distressed, excessively sweaty and febrile overnight. She looks unwell and has a temperature of 38.9ºC. She refuses to walk but will lie on the couch to be examined; she is warm to the touch and there is erythema over her right hip. She is distressed when you check the range of movement in the right hip, the left hip examination is unremarkable. Her mother thinks her symptoms started following a fall in the garden 2 days ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trauma
Correct Answer: Septic arthritis
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, as indicated by the child’s reluctance to bear weight, distress, and fever with sweats. Although the child had a history of injury, this is not a significant factor as falls and accidents are common in toddlers. There is no indication of non-accidental injury, and the mother brought the child in for review due to his sudden illness. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is an unlikely cause of a new onset limp in a previously mobile child, while transient synovitis is uncommon in this age group and typically only causes mild illness.
Causes of Limping in Children Vary by Age
When a child is limping, the cause can vary depending on their age. For younger children, transient synovitis is a common cause. This condition has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections, but the child is usually well or has a mild fever. It is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis is a more serious condition that causes a high fever and an unwell child.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis can also cause a limp, which may be painless. Trauma is usually the cause of a limp in children, and the history of the injury can often diagnose the issue. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease is more common in children aged 4-8 years and is caused by avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that occurs in children aged 10-15 years and is caused by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. Understanding the potential causes of a limp in children can help parents and healthcare providers identify and treat the issue promptly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
An evidence hierarchy reflects the relative authority of various types of biomedical research.
Five types of study are listed below:
Case-control study
Case report
Cohort study
Randomised controlled trial
Systematic review and meta-analysis.
Placing the strongest evidence first and the weakest evidence last, which of the following is the correct order for the weighting carried by these different types of primary study when making decisions about interventions for elderly patients?
Your Answer: 23451
Correct Answer: 54312
Explanation:The Hierarchy of Research Studies in Evidence-Based Medicine
In evidence-based medicine, there is a general consensus on the hierarchy of research studies. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are considered the strongest type of study, followed by observational studies such as cross-sectional surveys, cohort studies, and case-control studies. Case reports are ranked lower on the hierarchy, while expert opinion and anecdotal experience are at the bottom.
Systematic reviews and meta-analyses are often placed above RCTs in the hierarchy because they combine data from multiple RCTs and other study types. Evidence hierarchies are essential in evidence-based medicine as they help clinicians and researchers determine the strength and quality of evidence to inform clinical decision-making.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents for a cervical smear. Her previous three smears have all been negative. However, her latest smear reveals mild dyskaryosis. The local cervical screening programme includes human papillomavirus (HPV) testing as part of the screening process, and her sample has tested 'positive' for high-risk HPV. What is the next best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: 5 year recall for next smear
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:HPV Testing in Cervical Screening
The use of HPV testing in cervical screening has been studied to determine if it can improve the accuracy of identifying women who need further investigation and treatment. Currently, only a small percentage of women referred for colposcopy actually require treatment as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own. By incorporating HPV testing, women with borderline or mild dyskaryosis who test negative for high-risk HPV can simply return to routine screening recall, while those who test positive are referred for colposcopy.
HPV testing is also used as a test of cure for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. Those with normal, borderline, or mild dyskaryosis smear results who are HPV negative can return to three-yearly recall. This approach ensures that women receive appropriate follow-up care while minimizing unnecessary referrals and treatments. Overall, the use of HPV testing in cervical screening has the potential to improve the accuracy and efficiency of the screening process.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Resolving hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.
Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.
Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily, left-sided frontotemporal/orbital headache that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. The headache seems to occur at the same time every day and lasts for about an hour. The pain makes him feel nauseous, although he has not vomited. Interestingly, he also reports that his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation.
What is the best immediate treatment to administer?Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Oxygen (100%) + subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man falls and sprains his thumb while skiing. His thumb was outstretched at the time of the fall. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress.
What is the most probable injury observed in this case?Your Answer: De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear
Explanation:The ulnar collateral ligament tear, also known as Gamekeeper’s thumb or skier’s thumb, is a common injury among skiers who fall against the ski-pole, strap, or ground while the thumb is abducted. This ligament connects the middle of the metacarpal head to the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx and supports the thumb when pinching or gripping. The tear can be partial or complete, and there may be an associated avulsion fracture of the volar base of the proximal phalanx. Symptoms include hyperextension and lateral deviation of the thumb, swelling, bruising over the joint, and pain felt over the ulnar side of the metacarpo-phalangeal joint. Treatment involves immobilization in a thumb spica splint for 4-6 weeks if the joint is stable, otherwise referral for possible surgical repair is indicated. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, osteoarthritis of the metacarpo-phalyngeal joint, radial collateral ligament tear, and scaphoid fracture are different conditions and not related to ulnar collateral ligament tear.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man visits his doctor with worries that his spouse is cheating on him. Despite lacking any concrete evidence, he seems extremely agitated and convinced of his suspicions. What could this symptom indicate?
Your Answer: Grandiose delusion
Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome
Explanation:Erotomania, also known as De Clérambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusion where the patient firmly believes that another person is deeply in love with them.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including blood tests, electrocardiogram, and urine dip, all come back normal. His QRisk2 score is 18%. His blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/100. He has no significant medical history, but there is a family history of high blood pressure. Despite making lifestyle changes, his blood pressure remains elevated, and you both agree on treatment.
What is your plan for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker
Explanation:First Step in Managing Hypertension
Having diagnosed hypertension, the first step in management involves considering several key factors in the patient’s history. One important factor is whether the patient has diabetes, as this influences the choice of antihypertensive medication. In diabetic patients, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are preferred over calcium antagonists due to their secondary benefits in managing diabetes.
Another important factor is the patient’s age, with a threshold of 55 years indicating the preference for a calcium antagonist over an ACE inhibitor or ARB in step 1. This is because these medications are less effective in older individuals. Other age thresholds, such as 40 and 80 years, are also important in diagnosis and monitoring.
While not relevant to this question, it is important to note that in patients under 80 years of age, the target blood pressure should be below 140/90 in clinic or below 135/85 in home or ambulatory monitoring. Additionally, a statin may be considered for patients with a QRisk2 score above 10.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old patient presents to you for pre-pregnancy counseling and inquires about folic acid supplementation. The patient has a medical history of sickle cell disease and reports taking folic acid once a week. What recommendations would you make regarding the dose and duration of folic acid supplementation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mg daily, to be taken before conception and continued throughout pregnancy
Explanation:Folic Acid Requirements for Women During Pregnancy
Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.
Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5 mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man with learning disabilities is brought to his General Practitioner by his carer who has noticed a change in his behaviour. This has been ongoing for a number of weeks, possibly longer, but was initially attributed to having moved residential home. On examination, the patient has lost 7 kg in weight since his last review (six months ago) and seems distressed on examination of his abdomen.
Which of the following is most likely to be true for this patient, compared to an age-matched population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diagnosis of physical illness is more challenging
Explanation:Challenges in Healthcare for People with Learning Disabilities
Diagnosing physical illness in people with learning disabilities can be difficult, as symptoms are often attributed to mental health or behavioural issues. This can lead to delays in treatment and even premature death. Antipsychotic medication is often prescribed despite a lack of evidence of its effectiveness. Healthcare providers must make reasonable adjustments to accommodate communication difficulties. People with learning disabilities are more likely to be exposed to social determinants of poor health, but are less likely to be underweight.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)