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  • Question 1 - What is a not a cause of hypertension in adolescents? ...

    Correct

    • What is a not a cause of hypertension in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Bartter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bartter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that typically follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It results in severe hypokalaemia due to a defect in the absorption of chloride at the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle. Unlike other endocrine causes of hypokalaemia such as Conn’s, Cushing’s and Liddle’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome is associated with normotension. The condition usually presents in childhood and is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, polyuria, polydipsia, hypokalaemia, and weakness.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also affect children. To measure blood pressure in children, it is important to use a cuff size that is approximately 2/3 the length of their upper arm. The 4th Korotkoff sound is used to measure diastolic blood pressure until adolescence, when the 5th Korotkoff sound can be used. Results should be compared with a graph of normal values for their age.

      In younger children, secondary hypertension is the most common cause, with renal parenchymal disease accounting for up to 80% of cases. Other causes of hypertension in children include renal vascular disease, coarctation of the aorta, phaeochromocytoma, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and essential or primary hypertension, which becomes more common as children get older. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension in children in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who is worried about a non-blanching petechial rash on her arms and legs. The child had a cold recently but currently has normal observations and seems to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)

      Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      ITP is a possible diagnosis for a child who presents with petechiae and no fever, while HUS and meningitis are unlikely. HSP may also be considered, but the child in the question has not experienced other symptoms of HSP. Non-accidental injury should also be considered as a differential for any petechial rash. However, ITP is more likely as it is often preceded by a viral illness and presents with isolated thrombocytopenia, causing the classic petechial rash. Blood results are needed to confirm the diagnosis.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while helping her mother with gardening. The wound appears superficial and is closed with skin glue. During examination, her vital signs are recorded as a temperature of 36.9ºC, heart rate of 86 bpm, blood pressure of 115/87 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient's mother is concerned about the need for a tetanus booster as she cannot recall if her daughter received the full course of vaccinations during childhood. How should the patient be managed?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Tetanus booster vaccine and immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain and the wound is not minor and less than 6 hours old, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin. In this case, the patient is 13 years old and should have received 4 or 5 vaccinations against tetanus under the standard UK vaccination schedule. Antibiotics are not necessary if the wound is clean and not deep. It is more efficient to administer the booster while the patient is in the department rather than asking the GP to follow up, which could result in the patient being lost to follow up. The term tetanus level is incorrect as there is no such test.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - What is the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism in children in the United...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism in children in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Iodine deficiency

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypothyroidism in Children

      Hypothyroidism in children, also known as juvenile hypothyroidism, is most commonly caused by autoimmune thyroiditis. This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to decreased production of thyroid hormones. However, there are other causes of hypothyroidism in children as well. For example, children who have undergone total-body irradiation as part of treatment for acute lymphoblastic leukemia may develop hypothyroidism as a side effect. Additionally, iodine deficiency is a common cause of hypothyroidism in children in developing countries. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of these potential causes in order to properly diagnose and treat hypothyroidism in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 4-month-old girl presents with vomiting, yellowing of the skin and dehydration. Tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old girl presents with vomiting, yellowing of the skin and dehydration. Tests show low potassium levels and metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Upper GI endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Correction of metabolic derangements

      Explanation:

      Management of Infantile Pyloric Stenosis: Correction of Metabolic Derangements

      Infantile pyloric stenosis is a common condition in newborns, characterized by a hypertrophied pylorus that causes projectile vomiting and hungry feeding. The electrolyte abnormality associated with this condition is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis. Before undergoing surgery, it is crucial to correct these metabolic abnormalities in consultation with a pediatrician and anesthetist. Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy is the definitive surgical treatment for infantile pyloric stenosis. Upper GI endoscopy is not necessary for diagnosis if the clinical presentation is clear. Feeding jejunostomy and total parenteral nutrition are not appropriate initial management options. During surgery, the umbilicus should be excluded from the operative field to prevent staphylococcus aureus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 6-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department by their mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department by their mother due to a cough and low-grade fever that has been present for a week. The mother describes the cough as barking and confirms that the child has received all vaccinations up to this point. During the examination, suprasternal wall retraction is observed at rest, but the child appears alert and responsive. Strident breath sounds are heard while the child is at rest. What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Non-urgent referral to ENT

      Correct Answer: Admit to the paediatric ward

      Explanation:

      Admission to the paediatric ward is necessary when a child presents with audible stridor at rest, which is a clear indication of croup. This condition is characterized by a barking cough, mild fever, and coryzal symptoms, and in moderate cases, suprasternal wall retraction may be observed. Discharging the patient with dexamethasone or antibiotics is not appropriate, as stridor at rest requires further observation. A single dose of oral dexamethasone should be administered to all children with croup, regardless of severity. Referral to ENT is not urgent and not necessary in this case.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP clinic upon moving to a different city. The clinic checks his immunization records and sends him an invite to get vaccinated. What vaccination should he get if he hasn't received it before?

      Your Answer: Men B

      Correct Answer: Men ACWY

      Explanation:

      The Meningitis ACWY vaccine is being gradually introduced and is recommended for all children during their 9th or 10th year of school. Instead of the Men C booster, they should receive this vaccination. The catch-up program is currently targeting individuals under the age of 25 who are starting university for the first time. It is recommended that they receive the vaccine a few weeks before beginning their studies.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 pre-school booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby crying after feeds and drawing his legs to his chest for several weeks. His growth is good and examination unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Infacol

      Correct Answer: Supportive advice and reassurance

      Explanation:

      Managing Infantile Colic: Supportive Advice and Reassurance

      Infantile colic can be a challenging condition for both parents and babies. While there is little evidence for treating colic, there are some strategies that can help manage the symptoms. Nursing the baby upright after feeds, bathing the infant in warm water, using white noise, gentle movement of baby, eg rocking the crib, holding baby during an episode, winding well and offering reassurance when needed can all be helpful.

      However, it’s important to note that medications such as Infacol, Colief, Gaviscon, and Ranitidine are not recommended as first-line treatments due to lack of evidence. Maternal diet modification, probiotic supplements, herbal supplements, and manipulative strategies are also not recommended.

      If your baby is experiencing colic, know that you are not alone and that supportive advice and reassurance can go a long way in managing the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to complaints of itching around her vulva and anus for the past 3 days. Upon examination, the area appears red and the skin on her vulva is broken from excessive scratching. Her mother has been applying sudocrem but it has not provided relief. There are no other individuals at home with similar symptoms. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe 7 days of mebendazole for the household and give hygiene advice

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a single dose of mebendazole for the household and give hygiene advice

      Explanation:

      The recommended first line treatment for threadworm is mebendazole. In this case, as the patient is showing symptoms of threadworm, it is important to treat all members of the household with a single dose of mebendazole and provide hygiene advice. While a ‘Scotch tape test’ can be used to confirm the presence of eggs or worms, treatment is often based on symptoms. It is not appropriate to only treat the daughter and provide hygiene advice, as other members of the household may also be infected. Additionally, prescribing 7 days of mebendazole for the daughter alone is incorrect, as a single dose is recommended and a second dose should be taken 14 days later. Piperazine is only recommended for children under 2 years old, so it is not appropriate to prescribe 14 days of piperazine for the daughter in this case.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five months ago. The father has noticed that his son seems to be 'bow-legged' when he walks.

      Examination of the knees and hips is unremarkable with a full range of movement. Leg length is equal. On standing the intercondylar distance is around 7cm.

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Refer to orthotics for shoe inserts

      Correct Answer: Reassure that it is a normal variant and likely to resolve by the age of 4 years

      Explanation:

      It is common for children under the age of 3 to have bow legs, which is considered a normal variation. Typically, this condition resolves on its own by the time the child reaches 4 years old.

      Common Lower Limb Variants in Children

      Parents often become concerned when they notice apparent abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This can lead to a visit to their primary care physician and a referral to secondary care. However, many of these presentations are actually normal variants that will resolve on their own.

      One common variant is flat feet, where the child’s medial arch is absent when standing. This typically resolves between the ages of 4-8 years and does not require orthotics. In-toeing is another common presentation, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. Most cases resolve spontaneously, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, is another normal variant that presents in the first or second year of life. This is characterized by an increased intercondylar distance and typically resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, presents in the third or fourth year of life and is characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This also typically resolves spontaneously.

      Overall, it is important for parents to be aware of these common lower limb variants in children and to seek medical advice if they have concerns. However, in many cases, parental reassurance and monitoring is all that is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A newborn who was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation is now under...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn who was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation is now under the care of the Practice. The baby did not experience any significant complications, such as respiratory issues, after birth. How should routine childhood vaccinations be administered?

      Your Answer: Delay until weight reaches 3.5kg

      Correct Answer: Give according to chronological age

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that premature babies receive their routine vaccinations based on their chronological age, without any adjustment for their gestational age. However, if a baby was born before 28 weeks of gestation, it is advisable to administer their initial immunizations while they are still in the hospital to minimize the risk of apnea.

      Immunisation is the process of administering vaccines to protect individuals from infectious diseases. The Department of Health has provided guidance on the safe administration of vaccines in its publication ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’ in 2006. The guidance outlines general contraindications to immunisation, such as confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or another component contained in the relevant vaccine. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection. Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression.

      Specific vaccines may have their own contraindications, such as deferring DTP vaccination in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition. However, there are no contraindications to immunisation for individuals with asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), or a family history of autism. Additionally, previous natural infections with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella do not preclude immunisation. Other factors such as neurological conditions like Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids (e.g. CAH) also do not contraindicate immunisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Incorrect

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: At birth

      Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A mother brings her 6-week-old newborn baby to see you. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 6-week-old newborn baby to see you. She reports that she has noticed that his belly button is always wet and leaks out yellow fluid. On examination, you note a small, red growth of tissue in the centre of the umbilicus, covered with clear mucus. The child is otherwise well, apyrexial and developing normally.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant's condition?

      Your Answer: Umbilical hernia

      Correct Answer: Umbilical granuloma

      Explanation:

      An umbilical granuloma is a growth of tissue that can occur during the healing process of the umbilicus, typically within the first few weeks of life. It appears as a small, red growth in the center of the umbilicus that may leak clear or yellow fluid. Treatment involves applying salt to the wound or cauterizing the granuloma with silver nitrate if necessary.

      Omphalitis, also known as umbilical cellulitis, is a bacterial infection that affects the umbilical stump. It typically presents as a superficial cellulitis a few days after birth.

      Umbilical hernias are common in newborns, occurring in approximately 1 in 5 children. They usually resolve on their own by the age of 2.

      The umbilicus has two arteries and one vein during development, which later dessicates and separates after birth. Umbilical hernias are common in neonates and may resolve spontaneously. Paraumbilical hernias have more defined edges and are less likely to resolve on their own. Omphalitis is a potentially serious infection of the umbilicus that requires antibiotics. Umbilical granulomas can be treated with silver nitrate. Persistent urachus and vitello-intestinal ducts are rare conditions that require imaging and surgical closure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - What is the cause of scarlet fever? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of scarlet fever?

      Your Answer: Coxsackie A16

      Correct Answer: Group A haemolytic streptococci

      Explanation:

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - Sophie, a 9-month-old with a confirmed non-IgE mediated allergy to cow's milk protein,...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 9-month-old with a confirmed non-IgE mediated allergy to cow's milk protein, is seen in your allergy clinic. Her parents are worried about her long-term milk avoidance. At present, she is not consuming any milk-based products. What recommendations would you provide for treatment?

      Your Answer: Initiate the milk ladder starting with digestive biscuits

      Correct Answer: Initiate the milk ladder starting with malted milk biscuits

      Explanation:

      Non IgE mediated cows milk protein allergy tends to resolve at a younger age compared to IgE mediated allergies in children.

      The milk ladder is a common approach for introducing milk into the diet of children with cows milk protein allergy, with gradual steps starting from malted milk biscuits and progressing to chocolate and yoghurt.

      It is not advisable to use Chlorpheniramine (piriton) as it can cause drowsiness in this age group. Additionally, an epipen is not necessary for non IgE mediated allergy.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 9-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. Her father explains...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. Her father explains that she is still experiencing bed-wetting almost every night. She has undergone thorough investigations in the past year for this issue and has no physical abnormalities to explain her enuresis. She is otherwise healthy and active.

      Her father has attempted to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, encourage regular and timely toileting, and wake her up during the night, but none of these methods have been successful.

      What is the most appropriate course of action to manage her enuresis?

      Your Answer: Urine dip for UTI

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      Withholding fluids for 2 hours before bedtime is not recommended as part of enuresis management. While limiting fluid intake throughout the day and before bedtime, especially caffeinated drinks, is advised, completely withholding fluids is not recommended. Referring the patient for sleep studies is not the most appropriate management at this stage, although other conditions that can worsen enuresis, such as sleep-disordered breathing, should be considered. Desmopressin, an analogue of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), is not indicated at this stage and is only used when general advice and enuresis alarm have failed. The primary goal of management is to achieve dry nights at follow-up.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - You assess a neonate who is 2 hours old and was delivered via...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a neonate who is 2 hours old and was delivered via caesarean section. The mother had an elective caesarean section at 38-weeks due to an active herpes infection. During examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 62 breaths per minute. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. What would be your management plan for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent surgical referral

      Correct Answer: Observation and supportive care

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn can be identified through a chest x-ray which may reveal hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. The appropriate management for this condition is observation and supportive care, including the administration of supplemental oxygen if necessary. Symptoms typically resolve on their own within a few days. The use of IV ceftriaxone, IV steroids, or urgent blood transfusion is not indicated in this case and therefore, incorrect.

      Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

      The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta...

    Correct

    • A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta and pulmonary trunk are parallel with an absence of crossing. What medication should be initiated urgently before corrective surgery can be performed?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1

      Explanation:

      The initial management for duct dependent congenital heart disease involves maintaining the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. In neonates with transposition of the great arteries (TGA), prostaglandin E1 is given intravenously to ensure the ductus arteriosus remains open, as its closure can lead to circulatory failure and profound cyanosis. Prostaglandins work by dilating vascular smooth muscle, which maintains the patency of the ductus arteriosus. Administering prostaglandins after delivery is necessary as the prostaglandin-rich placenta is no longer present to keep the ductus arteriosus open. Adenosine is not indicated in this case, as the newborn’s issue is circulatory rather than related to cardiac electrical activity. If heart failure occurs, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be used, but prostaglandins should be the first-line treatment to prevent heart failure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, leading to closure of the ductus arteriosus and likely death of the newborn. Prostaglandin E is the most potent type of prostaglandin responsible for maintaining ductus arteriosus patency, not prostaglandin F2.

      Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.

      The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.

      To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to the doctor because of a diaper...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to the doctor because of a diaper rash. During the examination, the doctor observes a red rash with flexural sparing. What is the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Irritant dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      Understanding the different types of napkin rashes and their causes is important in managing them effectively. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and alleviate napkin rashes in babies and young children.

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  • Question 20 - A young girl from a nomadic group has been diagnosed with measles. What...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl from a nomadic group has been diagnosed with measles. What is the potential immediate complication she may face following the initial infection?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a possible complication of measles, while subacute sclerosing panencephalitis may develop 5-10 years after the illness. Mumps infection may lead to pancreatitis and infertility.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet begun menstruating. During the physical examination, you observe that she has a short stature and a webbed neck. What would you anticipate hearing when listening to her heart?

      Your Answer: Continuous machinery murmur

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur

      Explanation:

      The ejection systolic murmur present in this patient is likely due to her Turner’s syndrome, which is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve. A continuous machinery murmur, late systolic murmur, and mid-late diastolic murmur are less likely causes, as they are associated with different conditions that are not commonly seen in patients with Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 22 - A concerned father brings his 20-month-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned father brings his 20-month-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. He is worried that she has not yet started combining two words and is only able to say single words. The father reports no other developmental concerns and there is no significant family history.

      What would be the first step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Make a routine referral to the paediatric specialist

      Correct Answer: Reassure her that this is part of normal development

      Explanation:

      By the age of 2, children should have the ability to combine two words, indicating normal development. Therefore, there is no need to seek consultation with a paediatric specialist or schedule a follow-up appointment in the near future.

      Developmental milestones for speech and hearing are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s progress and identify any potential issues early on. At three months, a baby should be able to quieten to their parents’ voice and turn towards sound. They may also start to squeal. By six months, they should be able to produce double syllables like adah and erleh. At nine months, they may say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they should know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a child may know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they should be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. Their vocabulary should be around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old. At three years old, they should be able to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They may also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they may start asking why, when, and how questions. These milestones are important to keep in mind as a child grows and develops their speech and hearing abilities.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. For the...

    Correct

    • A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. For the past 3 weeks, the girl has been experiencing discomfort while passing urine. She has a history of 3 previous urinary tract infections. During external examination, you notice thin semitranslucent adhesions that cover the vaginal opening between the labia minora but not the urethra opening. You prescribe a course of trimethoprim. What other treatment options would you consider initiating?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Labial adhesions are typically caused by low levels of estrogen and are usually treated conservatively as they often resolve during puberty. However, if there are recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen creams may be considered as a treatment option. The use of trimethoprim pessary, IV dexamethasone, and oral prednisolone are not appropriate treatments for labial adhesions. It is important to address the adhesion as leaving it untreated can lead to complications.

      Labial Adhesions: A Common Condition in Young Girls

      Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.

      Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.

      Conservative management is typically appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can be managed conservatively. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 6-year-old girl is seen in surgery. Her father is concerned about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is seen in surgery. Her father is concerned about her temperature, which she has had for the past 72 hours. He reports that she is eating and drinking around 75% of usual. She is still producing wet nappies and does not have any vomiting or diarrhoea. Examination reveals a temperature of 38.5°C, heart rate 120 beats/min, a capillary refill time <2 s, no rash, no cough, tender cervical lymphadenopathy, and a red exudative throat with pus on the right tonsil.
      Which of the following is the best action to take?
      Select the SINGLE best action from the list below.

      Your Answer: IM Benzylpenicillin stat

      Correct Answer: Manage at home with antibiotics and antipyretics

      Explanation:

      Based on the NICE Guideline on ‘Fever in under 5s’, this child is considered low risk for serious illness as they have no high-risk or red or amber features on traffic-light scoring. The child can be managed at home with antibiotics and antipyretics unless they deteriorate. The Centor criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of a sore throat being due to bacterial infection, and this child scores 4, indicating that antibiotics should be prescribed. Admitting the child to the hospital or administering IM benzylpenicillin would be inappropriate in this case. While the child has no red flags for serious illness, they are likely to have an acute bacterial infection that could benefit from antibiotics.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She had a runny nose for two days and has had a cough for three days. She has not been feeding as much as usual.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her respiratory rate is slightly raised. On auscultation of the chest, she has a widespread wheeze and crepitations. Her other observations are within normal limits.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between respiratory illnesses in children: A guide

      When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. Here, we will discuss the key features of several common respiratory illnesses in children and how to differentiate between them.

      Bronchiolitis is characterized by coryzal symptoms followed by a persistent cough, tachypnea, chest recession, and wheezing or crepitations on auscultation. A low-grade fever and reduced feeding may also be present.

      Croup is a viral upper airway infection that causes a barking cough, predominantly inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice, intercostal or sternal indrawing, fever, and coryzal symptoms.

      Asthma typically presents with shortness of breath, cough, wheeze, and chest tightness, and is more common in children over two years old.

      Acute epiglottitis is an insidious but rapidly progressive airway emergency that causes fever, sore throat, odynophagia, muffled voice, dysphagia, dyspnea, respiratory distress, dysphonia, and stridor. The child may sit in a tripod position to maximize airway opening.

      A viral upper respiratory tract infection may cause coryzal symptoms, cough, and fever, but crepitations on auscultation would not be expected.

      By understanding the key features of these respiratory illnesses, healthcare providers can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A 6-year-old boy comes to the pediatrician's office as his parents are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy comes to the pediatrician's office as his parents are concerned about his early development. He is now a lot taller than most of his friends and he has started to develop hair around his genitalia and armpits. On examination, his penis is also large for his age however his testes remain prepubertal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this boy's precocious puberty?

      Your Answer: A sex cord–gonadal stromal tumour

      Correct Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      When dealing with precocious puberty, it is important to examine the size of the testicles to determine the underlying cause. In cases where the testicles are small, such as in this situation, it suggests an adrenal origin of the symptoms. On the other hand, if there is bilateral testicular enlargement, it may indicate central precocious puberty caused by an astrocytoma or other brain tumor. Testotoxicosis, which is associated with a history of childhood sexual aggression, would result in advanced development in all areas. A sex cord-gonadal stromal tumor would cause unilateral enlargement of the affected testicle. Finally, an idiopathic cause of precocious puberty would lead to advanced development in all pubertal areas, resulting in enlarged testicles.

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

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  • Question 27 - A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's attempts at using a reward system, there has been no improvement. What is the best initial approach to management?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

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  • Question 28 - A 6-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father with symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea for the past 5 days. She has also developed a new rash that is bothering her and has a runny nose. The father denies any weight loss, fever, or other family members being sick.

      Upon further questioning, the father reveals that he has recently introduced formula milk as he is planning to return to work soon and wants the baby to get used to it. The pediatrician suspects that the infant may have an intolerance to cow's milk protein.

      What would be the most appropriate alternative feed to try for this baby?

      Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula

      Explanation:

      Formula options for infants with different types of intolerance vary. For infants with cow’s milk protein intolerance, a partially hydrolysed formula is recommended as it contains proteins that are less allergenic. Amino acid-based formula is suitable for infants with severe intolerance, although it may not be as palatable. High protein formula is used for pre-term infants, but recent studies suggest that it may increase the risk of obesity in the long-term. Lactose-free formula is appropriate for infants with lactose intolerance, which is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms rather than rash and runny nose.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

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  • Question 29 - A 1-month-old infant presents with low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of...

    Correct

    • A 1-month-old infant presents with low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Edward’s syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers, which are present at birth.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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  • Question 30 - A 10-year-old boy presents to you with his mother, reporting pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to you with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. He is typically healthy, but he recently saw another doctor for a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The pain began two days ago, and he is hesitant to put weight on his left leg.

      What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis of the hip

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for a child experiencing hip pain, limp, and a recent infection could be transient synovitis.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

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  • Question 31 - A 14-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother. She is asking...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother. She is asking for the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill as she has recently started a relationship with a 19-year-old man whom she met at a local coffee shop, but they have not yet engaged in sexual activity. During the consultation, you discuss the age difference, but the mother assures you that she has met the boyfriend and believes he treats her daughter well. Both the girl and her mother insist that they do not want anyone else involved. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Assess using Fraser guidelines + prescribe the COC

      Correct Answer: Immediately phone local child protection lead and refer to social services

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC guidelines, sexual intercourse with children below the age of 13 cannot be considered consensual, and therefore, any sexual activity would be classified as rape. In such cases, breaking confidentiality is mandatory.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

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  • Question 32 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 24-hour history...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of cough and wheeze, following a week of mild fever and coryzal symptoms. The infant appears otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history. Upon respiratory examination, diffuse wheezing is noted. Vital signs reveal:
      Respiratory rate 52/min
      Blood pressure 92/54 mmHg
      Temperature 38.2ºC
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this infant's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Supportive management only

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s respiratory distress worsened or their feeding was impacted, they would be admitted. It is important to note that amoxicillin is not effective in treating bronchiolitis, but may be used for uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia or acute otitis media. Dexamethasone is commonly used for croup, but this diagnosis is unlikely as the patient does not have a barking cough, hoarse voice, or inspiratory stridor. Inhaled racemic adrenaline is also used for croup. Nebulised salbutamol is not necessary for this patient as they are stable and require only supportive management.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

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  • Question 33 - A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried about her continued bedwetting at night. They had visited the clinic 4 weeks ago and have seen no improvement despite following general management advice and a basic reward system. The girl is healthy otherwise and has no history of constipation or daytime incontinence. She does not complain of any issues at home or school. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
      What additional treatment options would you suggest for her?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm plus desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When general management advice has not been effective for nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line recommendation. This device detects urine moisture and triggers an alarm (either through sound or vibration) to wake the child and prompt them to use the toilet. Enuresis alarms have a high success rate when used consistently, and a review is typically conducted after four weeks to assess progress. Bladder training and retention control training are not recommended by NICE guidelines due to limited evidence and concerns about promoting voiding dysfunction. Desmopressin, a vasopressin analogue that reduces urine production, may be considered if the family is not receptive to or finds an enuresis alarm ineffective. However, an enuresis alarm should be offered first. Desmopressin can provide short-term control, but it can cause hyponatremia. Desmopressin plus oxybutynin may be helpful if there are daytime symptoms or if desmopressin alone does not improve the condition. As not all anticholinergic medications have UK marketing authorization for bedwetting treatment, a healthcare professional with appropriate expertise should manage this combination, often requiring a specialist referral and further investigations.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 34 - Fragile X is commonly associated with all of the following symptoms except? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fragile X is commonly associated with all of the following symptoms except?

      Your Answer: Large low set ears

      Correct Answer: Small, firm testes

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 35 - A father with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency seeks guidance concerning his young son. Considering...

    Incorrect

    • A father with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency seeks guidance concerning his young son. Considering the x-linked recessive pattern of inheritance for this condition, what is the likelihood that his son will also exhibit the disease?

      Your Answer: 1 in 4

      Correct Answer: No increased risk

      Explanation:

      Conditions that are X-linked recessive do not show transmission from male to male.

      Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.

      In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 36 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has a photograph and is worried about the different appearances of her eyes. One eye shows a normal red reflex while the other appears white. He wants to know if this is normal.

      What is your advice for him?

      Your Answer: Reassure; check every 6 months and refer if persisting aged 2

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      If a newborn lacks red reflex, it is important to consider the possibility of retinoblastoma. Other causes should also be evaluated, but urgent referral to an ophthalmologist for a comprehensive, dilated eye examination is necessary.

      Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.

      When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 37 - A 9-week-old girl is seen by a surgeon for a general evaluation. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-week-old girl is seen by a surgeon for a general evaluation. During the assessment, her head circumference is observed to be between the 0.4th and 2nd percentile. Which of the following options would NOT account for this observation?

      Your Answer: Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Although not a typical reason for macrocephaly, children diagnosed with Fragile X syndrome often exhibit an enlarged head size.

      Understanding Microcephaly: Causes and Definitions

      Microcephaly is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head circumference, with measurements falling below the 2nd percentile. While some cases may be attributed to normal variation or familial traits, other causes include congenital infections, perinatal brain injury, fetal alcohol syndrome, and syndromes such as Patau and craniosynostosis.

      In some cases, microcephaly may simply be a variation of normal development, with no underlying medical concerns. However, when it is caused by other factors, it can lead to developmental delays, intellectual disability, and other neurological issues.

      It is important to note that microcephaly is not a disease in and of itself, but rather a symptom of an underlying condition. As such, it is crucial to identify and address the root cause of microcephaly in order to provide appropriate treatment and support for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 38 - What is the most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in pediatric patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Chronic pyelonephritis

      Correct Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome in Children

      Nephrotic syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by three main symptoms: proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years old. In fact, around 80% of cases in children are caused by a condition called minimal change glomerulonephritis. Fortunately, this condition has a good prognosis, with approximately 90% of cases responding well to high-dose oral steroids.

      Aside from the main symptoms, children with nephrotic syndrome may also experience hyperlipidaemia, a hypercoagulable state, and a higher risk of infection. These additional features are caused by the loss of antithrombin III and immunoglobulins in the body.

      Overall, understanding nephrotic syndrome in children is important for parents and healthcare professionals alike. With proper treatment and management, most children with this condition can recover and lead healthy lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 39 - A 6-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with a continuous fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with a continuous fever and rash that has been present for the past 4 days. During the examination, the doctor observes that the boy has chapped, parched lips and flaking hands and fingers. Despite administering regular doses of paracetamol, the mother is worried as there has been no improvement. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki's disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is characterized by a high fever that lasts for more than 5 days, along with red palms, desquamation, and a strawberry tongue. It is crucial to diagnose and treat this condition promptly to minimize the risk of cardiac complications. Without early treatment with IV immunoglobulins, up to 20% of patients may develop coronary artery aneurysms, which can result in heart attack and sudden death.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 40 - At what age would a typical infant develop the skill of crawling? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical infant develop the skill of crawling?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Correct Answer: 9 months

      Explanation:

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 41 - A 14-year-old female complains of persistent pain in her left knee. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female complains of persistent pain in her left knee. The pain usually occurs after running and is accompanied by occasional swelling and joint locking. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
      Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.

      Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.

      Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.

      Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 42 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you consult with your supervisor...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you consult with your supervisor regarding a patient who is five days old and displaying symptoms of cyanosis, tachypnoea, and weak peripheral pulses. Your suspicion is that the patient has a duct dependent cardiac lesion. Once this is confirmed, what would be the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Indomethacin

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins can maintain the patency of a patent ductus arteriosus, which can be beneficial in cases of duct dependent cardiac lesions such as tetralogy of Fallot, Ebstein’s anomaly, pulmonary atresia, and pulmonary stenosis. These conditions may be diagnosed before birth or present with symptoms such as cyanosis, tachypnea, and weak peripheral pulses at birth. While surgery is often the definitive treatment, keeping the duct open with prostaglandins can provide time for appropriate management planning. Aspirin is not recommended for children due to the risk of Reyes syndrome, which can cause liver and brain edema and be fatal. Indomethacin and other medications may also be used to close the duct.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 43 - A 10-year-old child receives primary immunisation against hepatitis B. What should be checked...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old child receives primary immunisation against hepatitis B. What should be checked four months later to ensure an adequate response to immunisation?

      Your Answer: HBsAg

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs

      Explanation:

      While a minimum of 10 mIU/ml is considered sufficient to provide protection against infection, it is recommended to attain anti-HBs levels exceeding 100 mIU/ml.

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.

      To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 44 - A 6-year-old boy presents to the operating room with a fever and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to the operating room with a fever and a developing purplish rash. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 900mg

      Correct Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 600mg

      Explanation:

      The RCGP has previously provided feedback that doctors are required to have knowledge of emergency medication dosages, with a specific emphasis on suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia.

      Paediatric Drug Doses for Emergency Situations

      When it comes to prescribing drugs for children in emergency situations, it is important to consult the current British National Formulary (BNF) beforehand. However, as a guide, the following doses can be used for intramuscular (IM) benzylpenicillin in suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia in the community. For children under one year old, the dose is 300 mg. For children between one and ten years old, the dose is 600mg. For children over ten years old, the dose is 1200mg. It is important to note that these doses are only a guide and should be adjusted based on the individual child’s weight and medical history. Always consult with a healthcare professional before administering any medication to a child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 45 - A 7-week-old baby girl comes to her pediatrician with complaints of vomiting and...

    Correct

    • A 7-week-old baby girl comes to her pediatrician with complaints of vomiting and regurgitation after feeding. Her mother also reports that she has been experiencing ongoing issues with diarrhea. The baby appears to be generally fussy, and her mother has noticed some dry patches of skin on the inside of her elbows. The mother mentions that the baby is being fed formula.

      Upon examination, the baby appears to be an appropriate size and weight for her age, and the only notable finding is mild eczema in the elbow flexures.

      What would be the most suitable course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Switch to an extensive hydrolysed formula

      Explanation:

      A baby has been diagnosed with cow’s milk protein intolerance, which is a common condition affecting many infants within the first 3 months of life. The severity of the case is considered mild-moderate, as the baby’s size and weight are appropriate for their age. Primary care can manage this condition initially by switching to an extensive hydrolysed formula. An oral challenge is not recommended, as it is typically reserved for cases with significant diagnostic uncertainty or to determine if a food allergy has resolved. Referral to a paediatrician is not necessary at this stage. If the initial switch to an extensive hydrolysed formula does not alleviate symptoms, an amino acid-based formula can be tried. It is not appropriate to suggest that the mother switch to breastfeeding, as this decision should be respected. Even exclusively breastfed babies can develop cow’s milk protein intolerance, and in those cases, the mother should eliminate cow’s milk from her diet while continuing to breastfeed.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 46 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents. He has been feeling unwell for 6 days with diarrhoea and is now lethargic and pale. Despite drinking enough fluids, he has not urinated in over 14 hours. The child has no medical history and has received all of his vaccinations. His symptoms began 3 days after he ate a chicken burger at a fair. During the examination, the doctor noticed multiple petechiae on his torso and limbs, and his feet were swollen. What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the organism responsible for this patient's illness?

      Your Answer: Clostridium perfringens

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      This child’s symptoms, including oliguria, peripheral edema, petechial bruising, and pallor, suggest the possibility of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). HUS is often associated with diarrheal illnesses and is characterized by normocytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury. The most common cause of HUS is Shiga-toxin producing Escherichia coli, which can be contracted from undercooked meat, such as a chicken burger from a carnival. While Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of acute diarrhea, it is not typically associated with HUS. Clostridium perfringens can cause acute diarrhea and vomiting but is not associated with HUS. Salmonella species can also cause diarrheal illnesses, but they are not a common cause of HUS. In this case, Escherichia coli is the most likely causative organism.

      Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The majority of cases are secondary and caused by Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, also known as ‘verotoxigenic’ or ‘enterohaemorrhagic’. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer. Primary HUS, also known as ‘atypical’, is caused by complement dysregulation.

      To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count to check for microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. A fragmented blood film may also be done to look for schistocytes and helmet cells. Additionally, a stool culture may be performed to check for evidence of STEC infection, and PCR for Shiga toxins may be done.

      Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. Plasma exchange may be considered for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea, while eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of HUS is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 47 - A 5-year-old boy presents with learning difficulties and macrocephaly. What is the probable...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with learning difficulties and macrocephaly. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: William's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fragile X

      Explanation:

      Fragile X is a condition characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, large ears, and macro-orchidism in young boys.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 48 - A 6-week-old baby is observed to have rocker-bottom feet, microcephaly and a small...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old baby is observed to have rocker-bottom feet, microcephaly and a small retracted chin. The mother is a refugee from Syria who gave birth recently but could not attend antenatal screening. What is the probable syndrome?

      Your Answer: Edwards' syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Genetic Conditions: Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ Syndrome)

      Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards’ syndrome, is a genetic condition that results in a range of physical and developmental abnormalities. Neonates with trisomy 18 often present with neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures, as well as severe psychomotor and growth retardation. Other common features include microcephaly, microphthalmia, microstomia, micrognathia, clenched fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. Over 90% of individuals with trisomy 18 have cardiac defects, commonly ventricular septal defect (VSD), as well as anomalies in most organ systems. Unfortunately, many fetuses will die in utero, and neonates born with trisomy 18 have a 40% chance of survival to 1 month.

      It is important to note that an Edwards’ syndrome diagnosis should be made in the prenatal period. Low levels of AFP (α-fetoprotein), estradiol, and hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) on triple test biochemistry are suggestive, and the diagnosis can be confirmed on ultrasonography.

      Other genetic conditions, such as Pierre-Robin syndrome, Down’s syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome, have their own distinct features and should be differentiated from trisomy 18. Understanding these conditions and their unique characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 49 - You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted to the hospital 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. The paediatric team prescribed him a Clenil (beclometasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100mcg prn via a spacer before his discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 50 - As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a two-day-old baby girl. She was delivered normally and in good condition. During the hip examination, you notice that the left hip can be relocated, which raises concerns. What is the next appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Urgent hip referral for hip x-ray

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral for hip ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The Ortolani manoeuvre was performed on a newborn to relocate the femoral head after dislocation caused by the Barlow manoeuvre. The result was abnormal, indicating a need for urgent assessment to check for potential developmental dysplasia of the hip. The best imaging option is ultrasound, which avoids radiation and provides optimal visualization of the hip’s development. Referring the child for routine assessment would cause unnecessary delay in treatment, and providing reassurance would be inappropriate given the abnormal screening result.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.1
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  • Question 51 - A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ºC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 52 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his father, complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his father, complaining of a rash. The father reports that his son has been feeling unwell for approximately 6 days. Three days ago, he noticed some red rash behind his son's ears and it has now spread to his face and body. He also observed some white spots in his son's mouth before the rash appeared. During examination, there is a widespread maculopapular rash with regions of confluence.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chickenpox

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of measles include prodromal symptoms, Koplik spots, and a maculopapular rash that starts behind the ears. Kawasaki’s disease is identified by a fever lasting more than five days, along with conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, a strawberry tongue, rash, and desquamation of digits. Chickenpox is characterized by the presence of vesicles, while scarlet fever is identified by a sandpaper rash and a strawberry tongue.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 53 - A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation...

    Incorrect

    • A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation of rotation and extension at the affected hip joint, and a radiograph shows a dense flattened and fragmented femoral head on the affected side.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Septic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Perthes' disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ Disease: Avascular Necrosis of the Proximal Femoral Head in Children

      Perthes’ disease is a condition that results from avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head, which is caused by a compromised blood supply. It typically affects children aged 4-10, with boys being affected more frequently than girls. The disease presents with a painless limp and limited range of motion of the affected hip, followed by hip pain as necrosis develops.

      The diagnosis of Perthes’ disease is suspected clinically, and radiographs may be normal initially or show only a non-specific effusion. As the condition progresses, the joint space between the ossified femoral head and acetabulum widens, and narrowing or collapse of the femoral head causes it to appear widened and flattened. Eventually, femoral head collapse may ensue.

      Other conditions that may present similarly to Perthes’ disease include slipped upper femoral epiphysis, septic arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and congenital dislocation of the hip. However, each of these conditions has its own unique features and diagnostic criteria.

      Overall, Perthes’ disease is a generalised disorder of cartilage development that predisposes children to repeated episodes of infarction in the proximal femoral epiphysis. The most significant factors determining prognosis are onset in the older child, epiphyseal protrusion, extensive involvement of the epiphysis, and arrest of subcapital growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 54 - A couple from Bangladesh, parents of a 13-year-old boy, seek guidance. They have...

    Incorrect

    • A couple from Bangladesh, parents of a 13-year-old boy, seek guidance. They have recently moved to the UK and have been advised by immigration officials that their son should receive the BCG vaccine for tuberculosis. The boy is currently healthy and shows no symptoms. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange a chest x-ray

      Correct Answer: Arrange a tuberculin skin test

      Explanation:

      Before administering the vaccine, it is crucial to conduct a tuberculin skin test to rule out any previous exposure to tuberculosis.

      The BCG Vaccine: Who Should Get It and How It’s Administered

      The Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is given to high-risk infants and certain groups of people who are at risk of contracting TB. The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy.

      The Greenbook provides guidelines on who should receive the BCG vaccine. It is recommended for all infants living in areas of the UK where the annual incidence of TB is 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent who was born in a country with a high incidence of TB. The vaccine is also recommended for previously unvaccinated tuberculin-negative contacts of cases of respiratory TB, new entrants under 16 years of age who were born in or have lived for a prolonged period in a high-risk country, healthcare workers, prison staff, staff of care homes for the elderly, and those who work with homeless people.

      Before receiving the BCG vaccine, any person being considered must first be given a tuberculin skin test, except for children under 6 years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is given intradermally, normally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm. It can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, but if not administered simultaneously, there should be a 4-week interval.

      There are some contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous BCG vaccination, a past history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test (Heaf or Mantoux). It is not given to anyone over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it works for people of this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.2
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  • Question 55 - A 9-year-old boy with asthma comes to the clinic with his mother, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy with asthma comes to the clinic with his mother, who is worried about his breathing problems. He has an oxygen saturation of 90%, his chest is slightly wheezy, but there is weak inspiratory effort, and his lips are pale.
      What is the probable classification of the acute asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Mild acute asthma

      Correct Answer: Life-threatening acute asthma

      Explanation:

      The child is experiencing life-threatening acute asthma, which is a medical emergency. This is defined as having any of the following features: SpO2 below 92%, peak expiratory flow below 33% of the best or predicted, silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, hypotension, exhaustion, or confusion. Therefore, 999 should be called immediately. This is not moderate or mild acute asthma, nor is it acute severe asthma, as the child is showing signs of cyanosis. Acute severe asthma is defined as having any of the following: SpO2 between 33-50% of the best or predicted, inability to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed, heart rate above 125 beats/min (for ages over 5) or above 140 beats/min (for ages 1-5), or respiratory rate above 30 breaths/min (for ages over 5) or above 40 breaths/min (for ages 1-5).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a two-day-old baby girl. She was delivered normally and in good condition. During the hip examination, you observe that the left hip can be dislocated. What is the name of the examination you have conducted?

      Your Answer: Ponseti

      Correct Answer: Barlow

      Explanation:

      The Barlow manoeuvre is a technique used to try and dislocate a newborn’s femoral head. If successful, the Ortolani manoeuvre can then be used to relocate the dislocated femoral head. The Thomas test is not appropriate for neonates and is used to identify hip flexion contractures in older patients. The Denis Brown bar is an orthotic device used in conjunction with the Ponseti method to correct a fixed talipes.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      213.7
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  • Question 57 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to surgery by her father. For the past...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to surgery by her father. For the past 3 months she has been complaining of pain in her shins and ankles at night-time. Her symptoms are bilateral and she is otherwise healthy. There is no significant family history. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Growing pains

      Explanation:

      Understanding Growing Pains in Children

      Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs with no obvious cause.

      One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.

      Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 58 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged complication of measles infection? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged complication of measles infection?

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 59 - A 6-month-old girl has been brought in to the Emergency Department after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl has been brought in to the Emergency Department after an episode of rectal bleeding. Her parents tell you that she appears to be suffering from abdominal pain since this morning, drawing her legs up into the fetal position, and has eaten very little, which is unlike her. She vomited about three times and then passed bloody stools. When you ask for further details, the parents tell you that the stool was jelly-like red and very slimy. The parents started weaning the child one month ago and only give her baby food.
      On examination, the child has right lower abdominal tenderness and her mucous membranes look dehydrated. Her capillary refill time is four seconds and you can vaguely feel some sort of mass in her right lower abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Disorders in Toddlers

      Intussusception is a common gastrointestinal disorder in toddlers, typically affecting those aged 9-12 months. Symptoms include slimy or jelly-like red stools, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass or fullness. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound imaging and treatment usually involves an enema, although surgery may be necessary in complicated cases.

      Pyloric stenosis is another disorder that can occur in the first few weeks of a baby’s life. It causes forceful projectile vomiting immediately after feeds and is diagnosed through ultrasound imaging. Treatment involves surgery with a pyloromyotomy.

      Campylobacter-related gastroenteritis is rare in toddlers, especially considering that they typically only consume baby food.

      Colorectal cancer is almost unheard of in this age group.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital disorder that causes bowel obstruction, resulting in vomiting and failure to pass stools. It is typically diagnosed through a rectal biopsy and treated with surgical removal of the affected part of the bowel.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 60 - A mother brings her 5-year-old son to the clinic as she is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 5-year-old son to the clinic as she is worried about his bedwetting habit. Unlike his older sibling who stopped bedwetting at the age of 4, this child still wets the bed at night. The mother is seeking advice on possible treatment options. What is the best course of action to manage this issue?

      Your Answer: Discourage fluids at night

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and advice on fluid intake, diet and toileting behaviour

      Explanation:

      Reassurance and advice are sufficient for managing nocturnal enuresis in children under 5 years of age. It is important to reassure mothers that bedwetting is still common at the age of 4.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 61 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of vomiting after every feed and then appearing very hungry afterwards. His weight has remained at 4 kg for the past two weeks, and for the past two days, the vomiting has become projectile. His birthweight was 3.6 kg. He is exclusively breastfed. A small mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Volvulus

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of vomiting and poor weight gain in infants

      Vomiting and poor weight gain are common symptoms in infants, but they can be caused by different conditions that require specific management. One possible cause is pyloric stenosis, which results from an enlarged muscle at the outlet of the stomach, leading to projectile vomiting, dehydration, and failure to thrive. Another possible cause is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which may also involve vomiting, but not projectile, and may respond to conservative measures such as frequent feeds and upright positioning, or medication such as Gaviscon® or proton pump inhibitors. Cow’s milk protein allergy is another potential cause, which may present with a range of symptoms, including vomiting, but not projectile, and may require an exclusion diet for the mother if breastfeeding. Gastroenteritis is a common cause of vomiting and diarrhoea in infants, but it usually resolves within a few days and does not cause an abdominal mass. Finally, volvulus is a rare but serious condition that involves a twisted bowel, leading to acute obstruction and ischaemia, which requires urgent surgical intervention. Therefore, a careful history, examination, and investigations, such as ultrasound or blood tests, may help to differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 62 - A mother brings in her 8-year-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 8-year-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. She is worried because she has noticed that her daughter has been showing signs of breast development for the past 3 months. The mother is concerned that her daughter may be experiencing early puberty. What course of action would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Advise her that breast development is not a sign of puberty

      Correct Answer: Reassure her that this is normal development

      Explanation:

      If a girl develops secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 and a boy before the age of 9, it is considered precocious puberty. However, if a girl is developing within the normal time frame, such as breast development, there is no need for the mother to worry or seek medical attention. Checking sex hormones or referring to a pediatric specialist is unnecessary as the child is developing normally and the breast development will continue as part of the natural pubertal process.

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 63 - Whilst discussing common causes of respiratory infections with a group of medical students,...

    Correct

    • Whilst discussing common causes of respiratory infections with a group of medical students, a question was raised about the age at which croup is typically diagnosed. Specifically, the student asked at what age croup is most commonly diagnosed.

      Your Answer: 6 months - 3 years

      Explanation:

      Croup affects 6 months to 3 years old and is caused by parainfluenza virus, while bronchiolitis affects 1-9 month olds and is caused by respiratory syncytial virus. Neonatal respiratory distress can occur due to prematurity.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 64 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who reports that he has been feeling tired and has developed mouth sores. Additionally, he has bruises on his knees and palms. A bone marrow aspirate reveals a hypocellular image.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypocellular Bone Marrow and Thrombocytopenia

      Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by bone marrow failure, resulting in peripheral pancytopenia and bone-marrow hypoplasia. This leads to a deficiency in the production of red blood cells, causing anaemia, and a reduced production of white blood cells, leading to immunodeficiency. Patients may experience symptoms such as shortness of breath, lethargy, pallor, mouth ulcers, and increased frequency of infections. The reduced production of platelets causes easy bruising.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition characterized by an isolated reduction in platelets with normal bone marrow, in the absence of another identifiable cause. Patients may present with abnormal bleeding and bruising, petechiae, and purpura.

      Haemophilia A is an X-linked-recessive condition causing a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, leading to easy bruising, prolonged bleeding after injury, or spontaneous bleeding in severe cases.

      Infectious mononucleosis is the result of Epstein–Barr virus infection, characterized by fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and a macular or maculopapular rash.

      Autoimmune neutropenia is associated with opportunistic infections, most commonly otitis media. However, this condition would not account for the thrombocytopenia observed in this patient.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 65 - A 12-month-old boy is brought into morning surgery by a concerned first-time mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old boy is brought into morning surgery by a concerned first-time mother. She reports several episodes of her baby crying inconsolably and drawing his legs towards his chest since last night. Today he passed some bright red jelly-like blood in his nappy without any stool.
      Which of the following is the likely cause?

      Your Answer: Gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intussusception: A Common Cause of Abdominal Pain in Children

      Intussusception is a medical condition where one segment of the bowel invaginates into another, causing obstruction and compromise to the blood supply of that part of the bowel. This can lead to symptoms such as colicky abdominal pains, vomiting, and passing of redcurrant stools. It is a common cause of abdominal pain in children and requires immediate medical attention.

      Gastroenteritis, appendicitis, constipation, and volvulus are all conditions that can cause abdominal pain in children, but they are not likely to present with the specific symptoms of intussusception. Any child with suspected intussusception should be admitted to the hospital immediately for further investigation and observation.

      Understanding the symptoms and causes of intussusception can help parents and caregivers recognize the condition and seek prompt medical attention for their child.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 66 - A 12-year-old Nigerian girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old Nigerian girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She has been experiencing headaches, fatigue, and body aches for the past week. She has also been complaining of a sore throat and difficulty swallowing. This morning, her mother noticed swollen glands on both sides of her neck. The mother asks if her daughter can still attend school.
      What would be your advice to the mother?

      Your Answer: She can only go back to school after the swellings are resolved and she feels completely back to normal

      Correct Answer: She should be kept off school for 5 days from the onset of swollen glands

      Explanation:

      If a child develops swollen glands due to mumps, they should stay away from school for 5 days starting from the day the swelling began. As the child’s swollen glands started one day ago, they should not attend school for the next 5 days. Waiting for a month is not necessary, but the child should not return to school until the 5-day exclusion period is over, even if the swelling has not completely resolved. The option suggesting waiting until all swellings have resolved before returning to school is incorrect.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. Influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 67 - A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with multiple congenital abnormalities such as an extra...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with multiple congenital abnormalities such as an extra finger on each hand, microphthalmia, microcephaly, and cleft palate and lip. Which chromosome is most likely to be affected in this case?

      Your Answer: 12

      Correct Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      A newborn has been diagnosed with Patau syndrome, which is caused by an extra full copy of chromosome 13 (trisomy 13). This chromosomal abnormality often results in physical and mental disabilities, with distinguishing features including polydactyly, cleft lips and palates, microcephaly, and microphthalmia. Unfortunately, many infants with Patau syndrome do not survive beyond their first year of life. Those who do survive often experience intellectual and motor disabilities.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 68 - As a junior doctor on the postnatal ward, you perform a newborn examination...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor on the postnatal ward, you perform a newborn examination on a twelve-hour-old baby delivered vaginally. During the examination, you observe a scalp swelling that has poorly defined margins and crosses suture lines. The swelling is soft and pitted on pressure. The mother reports that the swelling has been present since birth. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Correct Answer: Caput succedaneum

      Explanation:

      Scalp edema known as caput seccedaneum can be identified by its ability to extend beyond the suture lines during examination.

      Understanding Caput Succedaneum

      Caput succedaneum is a condition that refers to the swelling of the scalp at the top of the head, usually at the vertex. This swelling is caused by the mechanical trauma that occurs during delivery, particularly in prolonged deliveries or those that involve the use of vacuum delivery. The condition is characterized by soft, puffy swelling due to localized edema that crosses suture lines.

      Compared to cephalohaematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp, caput succedaneum is caused by edema. While cephalohaematoma is limited to a specific area and does not cross suture lines, caput succedaneum can affect a larger area and cross suture lines. Fortunately, no treatment is needed for caput succedaneum, as the swelling usually resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 69 - You are the foundation year two doctor on the paediatric medical assessment unit....

    Incorrect

    • You are the foundation year two doctor on the paediatric medical assessment unit. You are asked to clerk a 10-year-old boy who has been brought in by his father due to abdominal pain and strong smelling urine.

      A urine dip is positive for nitrites and leucocytes. You start treatment for a urinary tract infection. What is the most probable organism responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli is the most frequent organism responsible for UTIs in both children and adults. Streptococcus pneumonia is more commonly associated with pneumonia or otitis media, while Staphylococcus aureus is more likely to cause skin infections like impetigo. Herpes is a viral infection that causes oral or genital ulcerations and whitlow. Although not impossible, a fungal-induced UTI is unlikely.

      Investigating Urinary Tract Infections in Children

      When a child develops a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is important to consider the possibility of underlying causes and kidney damage. Unlike in adults, UTIs in children can lead to renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for imaging the urinary tract in children with UTIs. Infants under six months of age who have their first UTI and respond to treatment should have an ultrasound within six weeks. However, children over six months of age who respond to treatment for their first UTI do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection or recurrent infection.

      Features that suggest an atypical infection include being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicemia, failure to respond to suitable antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. If any of these features are present, further investigations may be necessary. Urine should be sent for microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months of age who present with atypical or recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 70 - What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?

      Your Answer: Male sex

      Correct Answer: Oligohydramnios

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 71 - A 6-day-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-day-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who has noticed a yellow tinge to his sclera and skin. He is being breastfed. He is otherwise well and had a normal newborn blood-spot test.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ABO incompatibility

      Correct Answer: Breastmilk jaundice

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Jaundice in a Breastfed Baby: Excluding Cystic Fibrosis, Galactosaemia, ABO Incompatibility, and Hypothyroidism

      Breastmilk jaundice is a common cause of jaundice in healthy, breastfed babies beyond two weeks of age. However, other potential causes should still be screened for. The exact mechanism of breastmilk jaundice is unknown, but breastfeeding should continue and bilirubin levels should be monitored. If levels are above the treatment line, phototherapy may be necessary. Jaundice can persist for up to 12 weeks in some cases. Cystic fibrosis is excluded as a diagnosis if the newborn blood-spot test is normal. Galactosaemia is unlikely if the baby has not shown symptoms such as difficulty feeding, vomiting, and faltering growth. ABO incompatibility typically presents within the first 24 hours of life, so it is unlikely if symptoms appear eight days after birth. Hypothyroidism is screened for in the newborn blood-spot test, and normal results exclude it as a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 72 - As a GPST1 in a GP practice, I have a patient named Sarah...

    Incorrect

    • As a GPST1 in a GP practice, I have a patient named Sarah who is 24 years old and has come to me seeking information on cystic fibrosis. She has been informed in the past that she is a carrier. Can you provide me with the correct information to share with her?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis affects 1 in 25,000 births

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis is due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR)

      Explanation:

      Delta F508 on the long arm of chromosome 7 accounts for the majority of CF cases, with approximately 1 in 2500 births being affected by the disease. The carrier rate is estimated to be around 1 in 25.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 73 - A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old baby's head. The baby was delivered using forceps due to a prolonged second stage of labor. Upon examination, there is a swelling in the parietal region that does not cross the suture lines. The doctor informs him that it may take several weeks to resolve. What type of head injury is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Caput succedaneum

      Correct Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 74 - An 8-year-old girl is brought in by her father, who reports that the...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought in by her father, who reports that the child experiences constant urinary dribbling and dampness. A urine dipstick was negative.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Urinary and Bowel Issues in Children

      Overactive bladder and nocturnal enuresis are common urinary issues in children. Here are some medications that can be used to treat these conditions:

      1. Oxybutynin: This medication relaxes the urinary smooth muscle and is used to treat overactive bladder in children over 5 years old.

      2. Imipramine: A tricyclic antidepressant that is used as a second-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis.

      3. Desmopressin: A vasopressin analogue that can be used to treat nocturnal enuresis in children.

      4. Duloxetine: A serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used to treat stress urinary incontinence in women. It is not licensed for use in individuals under 18 years old.

      In addition, loperamide is an opioid antimotility drug that can be used to treat diarrhoea caused by gastroenteritis or inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 75 - A 26-month-old child has a short history of runny nose and fever. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-month-old child has a short history of runny nose and fever. She is staying with her grandparents, who believe in sweating out a fever and wrap her up well under several blankets on the sofa between them. She suddenly cries out and then has a single grand mal seizure lasting two minutes, during which she is incontinent of urine. A couple of minutes after the episode she is completely well. Examination reveals no focal neurological signs. Development to date has been normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Correct Answer: Febrile convulsion

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Seizures in Children: A Case Study

      A child presents with a seizure following a fever. The differential diagnosis includes febrile convulsion, myoclonic epilepsy, bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis, and generalised epilepsy syndrome. However, the absence of intracranial infection and other neurological features suggests that febrile convulsion is the most likely diagnosis. Febrile convulsions are common in children aged 3 months to 5 years and are associated with viral illnesses. They are generalised, last less than 15 minutes, and do not recur within 24 hours. Children with febrile seizures have no increased mortality risk but may have a slightly increased risk of epilepsy in later life. Other possible causes of seizures, such as breath-holding attacks or reflex anoxic seizures, should also be considered. Education on managing fevers and keeping the child comfortable during illnesses should be provided to the family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 76 - Samantha is a 28-year-old who comes to your GP clinic seeking information about...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 28-year-old who comes to your GP clinic seeking information about cystic fibrosis. She is in a committed relationship and wants to start a family. Samantha mentions that her partner's family has a history of cystic fibrosis and she wants to know more about it. She has already done some research and knows that cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CF transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR) on chromosome 7. Samantha asks you to explain how cystic fibrosis is inherited.

      Can you help her understand the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: X-linked dominant inheritance

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. The carrier frequency is estimated to be 1 in 25 individuals, while the prevalence of the disease is 1 in 2500 newborns. Having a positive family history is the only known risk factor for CF, and parents should receive appropriate counseling before conception or during pregnancy if they are carriers.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 77 - What is a risk factor for the development of surfactant deficient lung disease...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for the development of surfactant deficient lung disease in a neonate?

      Your Answer: Maternal pregnancy-induced hypertension

      Correct Answer: Maternal diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 78 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother due to a new rash. The mother is worried as the rash appeared suddenly just 1 day ago. The child had a cold with a high fever 3 weeks ago, but has since recovered. Apart from that, the child is healthy and active.

      During the examination, an erythematous rash is observed on the child's trunk and limbs. The rash does not seem to be causing any itching and disappears when pressure is applied.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      What is the classical history of roseola infantum and how does it differ from other childhood rashes?

      Roseola infantum is a common viral illness that typically affects children between 6 months and 2 years of age. It is characterized by a high fever that is followed 1-2 weeks later by an erythematous rash across the trunk and limbs. Febrile seizures are also common with this illness.

      Measles, on the other hand, presents with an erythematous rash that starts behind the ears and spreads to the rest of the body. It is associated with fever, conjunctivitis, coryzal symptoms, and white koplik spots on the inside of the mouth.

      Parvovirus B19, also known as slapped cheek disease, is characterized by a rash that first appears on the cheeks before spreading to the trunk and arms. It is usually preceded by 2-5 days of mild fever and non-specific viral symptoms.

      Rubella presents with an erythematous rash that starts on the face and spreads to the rest of the body. It is associated with mild fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 79 - In a 40-year-old woman, what is the probability of having a child with...

    Incorrect

    • In a 40-year-old woman, what is the probability of having a child with Down syndrome? Please choose one option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: 1 in 10000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      The chance of Down syndrome increases with maternal age:
      Age (years) Chance
      20 1:1500
      30 1:800
      35 1:270
      40 1:100
      >45 >1:50

      Therefore, the correct answer is 1 in 100.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 80 - What is the likelihood of a 44-year-old mother having a child with Down's...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likelihood of a 44-year-old mother having a child with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: 1 in 10

      Correct Answer: 1 in 50

      Explanation:

      The risk of Down’s syndrome is 1 in 1,000 at the age of 30, and this risk decreases by a factor of 3 for every 5 years.

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age. At 20 years old, the risk is 1 in 1,500, but by 45 years old, the risk increases to 1 in 50 or greater. To remember this, one can start with a risk of 1/1,000 at 30 years old and divide the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. The risk of recurrence is 1 in 100 if the mother is under 35 years old. Robertsonian translocation occurs when part of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome, usually chromosome 14. This accounts for 5% of cases and has a higher risk of recurrence if the mother or father is a carrier. Mosaicism accounts for 1% of cases and occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      In summary, Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is more common with increasing maternal age. The risk of recurrence depends on the type of Down’s syndrome and whether the parents are carriers. It is important for individuals to understand the genetics and epidemiology of Down’s syndrome to make informed decisions about family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 81 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 82 - An infant develops bile-stained vomiting; an abdominal X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ appearance....

    Incorrect

    • An infant develops bile-stained vomiting; an abdominal X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ appearance. The infant is also hypotonic with brachycephaly.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 47,XXY

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders and Associated Phenotypic Features

      Trisomy 21: Down Syndrome and Duodenal Atresia
      Neonates with Down syndrome have an increased risk of duodenal atresia, accounting for around a third of cases. Prenatal imaging can detect this condition, which presents with bilious vomiting within hours of birth. Down syndrome is also characterized by distinct physical features such as brachiocephaly, upward slanting palpebral fissures, and joint hyperflexibility.

      45,XO: Turner Syndrome and Cardiac Defects
      Turner syndrome affects females with a genetic complement of 45XO. It is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and lymphoedema. Cardiac defects, including coarctation of the aorta, may also be present.

      Fragile X: Learning Disability and Autism
      Fragile X is a common X-linked form of learning disability and autism. Physical features are difficult to detect in infancy, but delayed motor milestones and speech and language delay may be present. Macro-orchidism is almost universal post-puberty, and cardiac defects, including mitral valve prolapse, may occur.

      Trisomy 18: Edwards’ Syndrome and Neonatal Hypotonia
      Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is characterized by neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures. There is severe psychomotor and growth retardation, microcephaly, and microphthalmia. Over 90% have cardiac defects, commonly VSD, as well as anomalies in most organ systems.

      47,XXY: Klinefelter’s Syndrome and Infertility
      Klinefelter’s syndrome affects males with a genetic complement of either 47,XXY or 48,XXXY. It is a random mutation, not inherited, and is characterized by tall stature, poorly developed testes or cryptorchidism, and gynaecomastia. Infertility is common. Physical features are not obvious in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 83 - You encounter the mother of a 9-month-old baby who was born premature (at...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter the mother of a 9-month-old baby who was born premature (at 30 weeks) and has recently been discharged from hospital after being admitted for 'breathing difficulties'. During the hospital stay, the baby received an injection called palivizumab, but the mother cannot remember the purpose of this medication. Can you explain the medication and its indication?

      Your Answer: Macrolide antibiotic used to prevent hospital acquired pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Monoclonal antibody used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

      Explanation:

      To prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children who are at a higher risk of severe disease, palivizumab, a monoclonal antibody, is administered. Infants who are premature, have lung or heart abnormalities, or are immunocompromised are among those at risk of developing RSV.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 84 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery as his father is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery as his father is worried about his weight. This has been a concern for more than three years and dad believes it is affecting his son's performance in school. What is the best way to determine the extent of his obesity?

      Your Answer: Weight plotted on percentile chart

      Correct Answer: Body mass index percentile adjusted to age and gender

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obesity in Children

      Childhood obesity is a complex issue that requires careful assessment and management. Unlike adults, defining obesity in children is more challenging as body mass index (BMI) varies with age. To accurately assess BMI, percentile charts are needed. According to recent guidelines by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the UK 1990 BMI charts should be used to provide age- and gender-specific information.

      NICE recommends tailored clinical intervention if BMI is at the 91st centile or above. If BMI is at the 98th centile or above, assessing for comorbidities is necessary. Lifestyle factors are the most common cause of obesity in childhood. However, other factors such as growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, Down’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome can also contribute to obesity in children.

      Obesity in children can lead to various consequences, including orthopaedic problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphyses and Blount’s disease, musculoskeletal pains, psychological consequences like poor self-esteem and bullying, sleep apnoea, and benign intracranial hypertension. Moreover, obesity in childhood can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease in the long run. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and manage obesity in children to prevent these adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 85 - A 10-year-old girl comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with asthma two years ago by her pediatrician. She is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler, using 2 puffs 3 times a day, and a low-dose beclomethasone inhaler. She also takes oral montelukast. However, she still experiences a night time cough and has to use her blue inhaler most days. Unfortunately, the addition of montelukast has not provided much relief. On examination today, her chest is clear with no wheeze and a near-normal peak flow. What should be the next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Add tiotropium

      Correct Answer: Stop montelukast and add salmeterol

      Explanation:

      For children between the ages of 5 and 16 with asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA), low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), and a leukotriene receptor antagonist, it is recommended to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) to the treatment plan and discontinue the use of the leukotriene receptor antagonist.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 86 - You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was born at term. As part of health promotion, you are discussing ways to minimize the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) with the mother. She is already aware of the significance of placing the baby on its back while sleeping and does not smoke. What is the most crucial additional risk factor for SIDS?

      Your Answer: The room being too cold

      Correct Answer: Sleeping in the same bed as the baby

      Explanation:

      Studies have indicated that bed sharing is the most prominent risk factor for SIDS, followed by prone sleeping, parental smoking, hyperthermia and head covering, and prematurity.

      Understanding Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, maternal drug use, and an increased incidence during winter.

      However, there are also protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS. Breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers have been shown to be protective. In the event of a SIDS occurrence, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors and protective factors associated with SIDS can help parents and caregivers take steps to reduce the likelihood of this tragic event. By following safe sleep practices and promoting healthy habits, we can work towards reducing the incidence of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 87 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She reports that her daughter has been complaining of abdominal pain and has had loose stools for the past three weeks. Her weight was previously on the 75th centile but has now dropped to the 50th centile. She appears fatigued, pale and has a bloated abdomen.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Blood tests for immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. There are several diagnostic tests that can be performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease.

      Initial Blood Tests
      The initial blood tests for coeliac disease are immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA. Total IgA is tested because IgA deficiency is associated with coeliac disease and can cause a false-negative tTG-IgA. It is important for patients to be eating a diet containing gluten when they have the blood test to avoid a false-negative result.

      Endoscopy and Duodenal Biopsy
      An endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis in secondary care. However, guidelines state that children may be diagnosed without a biopsy if they have tTG-IgA levels over ten times the upper limit of normal and positive endomysial antibodies (EMA-IgA) in a second blood test.

      HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 Blood Tests
      HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 are associated with coeliac disease. This blood test may be performed in secondary care but is not an initial investigation.

      C13 Urea Breath Test
      The C13 urea breath test is used in the diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori and has no role in the diagnosis of coeliac disease.

      In conclusion, a combination of blood tests and endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating a gluten-containing diet before undergoing diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 88 - A 7-week old male infant is presented to the GP clinic by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week old male infant is presented to the GP clinic by his mother for a regular examination. During auscultation of the baby's heart, you detect a harsh ejection systolic murmur that is most audible at the second intercostal space on the right parasternal area and extends to the neck. Additionally, you observe that the baby has a small upturned nose, a long philtrum, a small chin, and swollen eyes. What is the probable syndrome that this baby is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Correct Answer: William's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Aortic stenosis is commonly seen in individuals with William’s syndrome, which is characterized by distinct facial features such as a small upturned nose, long philtrum, wide mouth, full lips, small chin, and puffiness around the eyes. On the other hand, Down’s syndrome is typically associated with atrioventricular septal defects, while Klinefelter syndrome is linked to hypogonadism. Angelman syndrome, on the other hand, is not commonly associated with aortic stenosis.

      Aortic Stenosis in Children: Causes and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a type of congenital heart disease that affects 5% of children. It can be associated with other conditions such as William’s syndrome, coarctation of the aorta, and Turner’s syndrome. The aim of management is to delay or avoid valve replacement if possible. However, if the gradient across the valve is greater than 60 mmHg, balloon valvotomy may be necessary. It is important to monitor and manage aortic stenosis in children to prevent complications and ensure optimal health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 89 - A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with pertussis. She came to the doctor's...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with pertussis. She came to the doctor's office after a child at her workplace daycare tested positive for whooping cough. She has been experiencing an on-and-off cough with occasional vomiting for the past 18 days. Assuming the patient has no allergies, what is the best course of treatment for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Azithromycin or clarithromycin are recommended as first-line antibiotics for non-pregnant adults with whooping cough if the cough onset is within 21 days. Erythromycin can be used for pregnant adults. Co-amoxiclav and doxycycline are not recommended, and co-trimoxazole can be used off-label if macrolides are contraindicated or not tolerated. Antibiotics are preferred over supportive treatment within 21 days of presentation.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 90 - A 6-year-old girl attends surgery with a rash on her legs and buttocks....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl attends surgery with a rash on her legs and buttocks. She has been unwell with a cough and cold for one week. The rash is purpuric, macular and symmetrical to both buttocks and legs, and is non-blanching.
      Which of the following is the likely cause?
      Select the SINGLE cause from the list below.

      Your Answer: Meningococcal disease

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Common Childhood Vasculitis

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a common vasculitis of childhood that affects small vessels. It typically occurs in children, with 50% of cases in under-5s. The exact cause of the immune-mediated vasculitis is unknown, but it commonly follows a viral or streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). Classic features include a non-blanching rash (palpable purpura, usually of the lower limbs), abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement/glomerulonephritis.

      Possible complications of HSP include glomerulonephritis and renal failure, gastrointestinal bleed/intussusception, and pulmonary hemorrhage. Treatment is usually supportive, and the condition is self-limiting in most patients.

      Other conditions, such as intertrigo, meningococcal disease, slapped cheek disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences. For example, intertrigo affects skinfolds, meningococcal disease presents with red flags such as fever and headache, slapped cheek disease has a facial rash that precedes a rash on the limbs, and SLE typically has vague and insidious systemic symptoms before skin changes.

      Investigations for HSP include bloods, blood pressure monitoring, and urinalysis. Treatment usually involves observation and monitoring, with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used for pain relief and sometimes corticosteroids given.

      In summary, HSP is a common childhood vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement. It often follows a recent illness such as an upper respiratory tract infection and is usually self-limiting. Other conditions may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 91 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you examine a two hour...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you examine a two hour old baby delivered via cesarean section. The baby presents with intercostal recession and a respiratory rate of 55/min. However, they have good tone and color and are apyrexial. You suspect transient tachypnoea of the newborn and order a chest x-ray as part of your assessment. What is the probable result of the chest x-ray?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn may be indicated by hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure on a chest x-ray. However, it is important to note that even if this condition is suspected, the baby should still be screened and treated for sepsis. This is because transient tachypnoea of the newborn is the most common cause of respiratory distress in neonates, but it typically resolves within 24-48 hours. Other conditions may present with different x-ray findings, such as ground glass appearance and low volume lungs in respiratory distress syndrome, or asymmetric patchy opacities in meconium aspiration syndrome. Additionally, a pneumothorax may be associated with mechanical ventilation but should be carefully evaluated in all chest x-rays.

      Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

      The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 92 - A father brings in his 3-week-old baby boy to the pediatrician's office as...

    Correct

    • A father brings in his 3-week-old baby boy to the pediatrician's office as he's noticed that the baby bruises very easily. This is his first child, who was born in Canada following an uncomplicated pregnancy by natural vaginal delivery. Exclusive breastfeeding was commenced immediately following delivery and the baby has been feeding well otherwise and gaining weight steadily. You order the following blood test.

      International normalised ratio (INR) 4

      What could be the possible reasons for the baby's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Exclusive breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breastfed infants may be susceptible to vitamin K deficiency, as breast milk lacks sufficient amounts of this nutrient. The baby in question is likely experiencing idiopathic vitamin K deficiency, with breastfeeding being the only known risk factor. It is possible that the baby did not receive a vitamin K injection at birth, as they were born in Ukraine. Gender, age, vaginal delivery, and birth order are not associated with an increased risk of vitamin K deficiency.

      Haemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn: Causes and Prevention

      Newborn babies have a relatively low level of vitamin K, which can lead to the development of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN). This condition occurs when the production of clotting factors is impaired, resulting in bleeding that can range from minor bruising to intracranial haemorrhages. Breast-fed babies are particularly at risk, as breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. Additionally, the use of antiepileptic medication by the mother can increase the risk of HDN in the newborn.

      To prevent HDN, all newborns in the UK are offered vitamin K supplementation. This can be administered either intramuscularly or orally. By providing newborns with adequate levels of vitamin K, the risk of HDN can be significantly reduced. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the risk factors for HDN and to take steps to prevent this potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 93 - A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10....

    Incorrect

    • A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. She is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 150, cries on stimulation, her arms and legs resist extension and she has a good cry. However, she appears jaundiced. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Encourage the mother to sit with the baby in sunlight

      Correct Answer: Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently.

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 94 - A grandfather visits you as his grandson has been diagnosed with hypospadias. He...

    Correct

    • A grandfather visits you as his grandson has been diagnosed with hypospadias. He wants to know what treatment options are available and if there are any measures he can take to prevent the condition from worsening.

      Your Answer: Corrective surgery at around 12 months of age is required and children should not be circumcised

      Explanation:

      The usual age for performing hypospadias surgery is approximately 12 months.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 95 - A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
    What is the recommended first line...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
      What is the recommended first line treatment for constipation in children?

      Your Answer: Lactulose

      Correct Answer: Macrogol (Movicol)

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatment for Constipation in Children: Macrogol (Movicol)

      When a child is diagnosed with constipation and secondary causes have been ruled out, treatment can be initiated. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is macrogol, which is available as Movicol Paediatric Plain or Movicol depending on the child’s age. The dose is escalated until regular and good consistency stools are achieved. However, it is important to check for faecal impaction before starting maintenance treatment. Suppositories and enemas should not be routinely used in primary care. If macrogol is not tolerated or if there is a particularly hard stool, a stool softener such as lactulose can be used. A stimulant laxative such as senna can also be used as an alternative to macrogol.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 96 - Which of the following examples of infant jaundice from the list below is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following examples of infant jaundice from the list below is the most concerning?

      Your Answer: Bilirubin levels of 25 μmol/L five days post-delivery

      Correct Answer: Jaundice which develops on the day of delivery

      Explanation:

      Jaundice that appears within the first 24 hours after delivery is always considered to be pathological. Physiological jaundice typically develops 2-3 days after delivery and should resolve within 14 days. The risk of developing jaundice is higher in pre-term infants. In cases of physiological jaundice, bilirubin levels typically do not exceed 200 μmol/L.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 97 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema despite...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema despite regular use of emollient creams. On examination, the child has dry, scaly skin on the flexor surfaces of her arms and legs without any signs of infection or weeping. What is the most suitable next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Stop using emollients and start using hydrocortisone 1% ointment to be applied twice a day

      Correct Answer: Continue using emollients and use hydrocortisone 1% ointment to be applied thinly twice a day

      Explanation:

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 98 - A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his mother who recently arrived in the UK. Due to inadequate antenatal care in their home country, the baby has been experiencing rapid breathing, poor feeding, and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. During examination, the baby displayed upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent inner epicanthal folds, a protuberant tongue, and single palmar creases. Additionally, an atypical murmur was heard. An urgent echocardiogram was performed, and the diagnosis was revealed. What is the most likely congenital cardiac abnormality in this baby?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The most frequent congenital cardiac abnormality found in individuals with Down’s syndrome is atrioventricular septal defects. This baby, who displays typical syndromic features of Down’s syndrome, was not diagnosed during pregnancy due to inadequate antenatal care in Somalia. In the first few weeks of life, dyspnoea, failure to thrive, poor weight gain, and cyanosis can be common presentations. Although Tetralogy of Fallot can occur in Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common. Ventricular and atrial septal defects can also occur, but they are not as prevalent and do not align with the severity of this baby’s symptoms.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 99 - A 6-year-old girl's normal heart rate is which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl's normal heart rate is which of the following?

      Your Answer: 100 – 150 bpm

      Correct Answer: 80 – 120 bpm

      Explanation:

      Normal Heart Rate Range for Children

      The normal heart rate for a 6-year-old child would be between 80-120 beats per minute (bpm). It’s important to note that the normal heart rate range varies depending on the child’s age. For instance, a heart rate of 110-160 bpm would be normal for a child aged less than 1 year, while a heart rate of 60-100 bpm would be normal for a child aged over 12 years. For children aged between 1 and 2 years, a heart rate of 100-150 bpm is considered normal, while for those aged between 2 and 5 years, a heart rate of 95-140 bpm is normal. For children aged between 5 and 12 years, a heart rate of 80-120 bpm is normal. Knowing the normal heart rate range for children is essential in monitoring their health and detecting any abnormalities.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 100 - A 6-week-old baby is seen in surgery with decreased feeding and a temperature...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old baby is seen in surgery with decreased feeding and a temperature of 38.8°C.
      Which of the following is the appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Give a stat dose of IM benzylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Refer to the paediatric on-call team

      Explanation:

      Management of Fever in a High-Risk Child

      When managing a child with fever, it is important to consider their age and any accompanying symptoms. According to the NICE guideline on ‘Fever in under 5s’, children aged <3 months with a temperature of 38°C are at high risk for serious illness. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child urgently to a paediatric specialist. Encouraging fluids may be useful, but it should not be relied upon to rule out serious underlying illness. Similarly, antipyretics may be given before the child is seen by the paediatric team, but it is important to consult the NICE guideline for appropriate dosages. Blind prescription of oral antibiotics or IM benzylpenicillin is not recommended without a clear source of infection and discussion with the on-call paediatric team. Therefore, it is crucial to refer high-risk children to the paediatric on-call team for further management.

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      • Paediatrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (64/100) 64%
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