-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved in a car accident. A trauma alert is activated, and you are tasked with obtaining intravenous access and administering a fluid bolus. However, you are unable to successfully establish intravenous access and decide to prepare for intraosseous access instead.
Which of the following anatomical sites would be the most appropriate for insertion?Your Answer: Proximal humerus
Explanation:Intraosseous access is recommended in trauma, burns, or resuscitation situations when other attempts at venous access fail or would take longer than one minute. It is particularly recommended for circulatory access in pediatric cardiac arrest cases. This technique can also be used when urgent blood sampling or intravenous access is needed and traditional cannulation is difficult and time-consuming. It serves as a temporary measure to stabilize the patient and facilitate long-term intravenous access.
Potential complications of intraosseous access include compartment syndrome, infection, and fracture. Therefore, it is contraindicated to use this method on the side of definitively fractured bones or limbs with possible proximal fractures. It should also not be used at sites of previous attempts or in patients with conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteopetrosis.
There are several possible sites for intraosseous access insertion. These include the proximal humerus, approximately 1 cm above the surgical neck; the proximal tibia, on the anterior surface, 2-3 cm below the tibial tuberosity; the distal tibia, 3 cm proximal to the most prominent aspect of the medial malleolus; the femoral region, on the anterolateral surface, 3 cm above the lateral condyle; the iliac crest; and the sternum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman presents having experienced a minor fall while shopping with her husband. He has observed that she has been forgetful for quite some time and that her condition has been gradually deteriorating over the past few years. She frequently forgets the names of people and places and struggles to find words for things. Lately, she has also been experiencing increased confusion. She has no significant medical history of note.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is the leading cause of dementia, accounting for approximately half of all cases. It involves the gradual degeneration of the cerebral cortex, resulting in cortical atrophy, the formation of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques, and a decrease in acetylcholine production from affected neurons. The exact cause of this disease is still not fully understood.
The onset of Alzheimer’s disease is typically slow and subtle, progressing over a span of 7 to 10 years. The symptoms experienced by individuals vary depending on the stage of the disease. In the early stages, family and friends may notice that the patient becomes forgetful, experiencing lapses in memory. They may struggle to recall the names of people and places, as well as have difficulty finding the right words for objects. Recent events and appointments are easily forgotten. As the disease advances, language skills deteriorate, and problems with planning and decision-making arise. The patient may also exhibit apraxia and become more noticeably confused.
In the later stages of Alzheimer’s disease, symptoms become more severe. The patient may wander aimlessly, become disoriented, and display apathy. Psychiatric symptoms, such as depression, are common during this stage. Hallucinations and delusions may also occur. Behavioral issues, including disinhibition, aggression, and agitation, can be distressing for the patient’s family.
Considering the absence of a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, vascular dementia is less likely. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia typically has a more sudden onset and exhibits stepwise increases in symptom severity.
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder closely associated with Parkinson’s disease. It can be distinguished from Alzheimer’s disease by the presence of mild Parkinsonism features, fluctuations in cognition and attention, episodes of transient loss of consciousness, and early occurrence of visual hallucinations and complex delusions.
Frontotemporal dementia is a progressive form of dementia that primarily affects the frontal and/or temporal lobes. It typically occurs at a younger age than Alzheimer’s disease, usually between 40 and 60 years old. Personality changes often precede memory loss in this condition.
Pseudodementia, also known as depression-related cognitive dysfunction, is a condition characterized by a temporary decline in cognitive function alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. While depression is the most common cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after getting injured while playing soccer. Her ankle appears to be deformed, and it is suspected that she has a fracture. The triage nurse informs you that she is experiencing moderate pain. According to RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended for treating moderate pain in a child of this age?
Your Answer: Intranasal diamorphine 0.1 mg/kg
Correct Answer: Oral codeine phosphate 1 mg/kg
Explanation:A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.
To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.
The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.
To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance with a 68-year-old individual who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three defibrillation attempts and the administration of adrenaline and amiodarone, the patient experiences a restoration of spontaneous circulation.
What is the recommended target SpO2 following a cardiac arrest?Your Answer: >90%
Correct Answer: 94-98%
Explanation:The recommended target SpO2, which measures the percentage of oxygen saturation in the blood, following a cardiac arrest is 94-98%. This range ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia, which is an excess of oxygen in the body.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A patient presents with abdominal pain and confusion. They have a history of Addison’s disease but recently ran out of their steroid medication. You suspect an Addisonian crisis.
What is the most frequent cause of Addison’s disease?Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation:Addison’s disease can be attributed to various underlying causes. The most common cause, accounting for approximately 80% of cases, is autoimmune adrenalitis. This occurs when the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the adrenal glands. Another cause is bilateral adrenalectomy, which involves the surgical removal of both adrenal glands. Additionally, Addison’s disease can be triggered by a condition known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, which involves bleeding into the adrenal glands. Tuberculosis, a bacterial infection, is also recognized as a potential cause of this disease. Lastly, although rare, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can contribute to the development of Addison’s disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old girl comes in with a painful, red, swollen right eye. She recently had a sinus infection but has no other significant medical history. Her temperature is 38.2°C. She experiences pain when moving her eye and complains of seeing double.
What ONE clinical feature would be most helpful in differentiating between orbital and peri-orbital cellulitis?Your Answer: Peri-orbital tenderness
Correct Answer: Red desaturation
Explanation:Peri-orbital cellulitis, also known as preseptal cellulitis, is an infection that affects the eyelid and the skin surrounding the eye in front of the orbital septal. On the other hand, orbital cellulitis is a medical emergency that occurs when there is an infection in the tissues of the eye located behind the orbital septum.
The most common organisms that cause these infections include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and Haemophilus influenzae.
Peri-orbital cellulitis may present with various symptoms, such as swelling of the eyelid, redness around the eye, discharge, difficulty closing the eye, conjunctival injection, mild fever, teary eyes, and discomfort.
To distinguish orbital cellulitis from peri-orbital cellulitis, it is important to look out for additional symptoms, including pain when moving the eye, protrusion of the eye (proptosis), redness of the eye (red desaturation), vision loss, eye muscle paralysis (ophthalmoplegia), double vision (diplopia), and optic nerve damage (optic neuropathy). These symptoms indicate a more severe condition that requires immediate medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 40-year-old patient with asthma comes to the Emergency Department for an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing their medications, you find out that they are taking theophylline as part of their asthma treatment.
Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin is known to inhibit the activity of cytochrome P450 enzymes, which can lead to increased levels of theophylline in the blood. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid prescribing ciprofloxacin and theophylline together. For more information on the interactions between these two medications, you can refer to the relevant section on theophylline interactions in the British National Formulary (BNF).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man has loss of motivation, difficulties with concentration and behavioral changes that have been ongoing for the past few years. Over the past couple of months, he has also exhibited signs of memory loss. His family is extremely worried and states that his behavior has been very different from his usual self for the past few months. His language has become vulgar, and he has been somewhat lacking in inhibition. Occasionally, he has also been excessively active and prone to pacing and wandering.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB)
Correct Answer: Pick’s disease
Explanation:Pick’s disease is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that leads to a gradual decline in cognitive function known as frontotemporal dementia. One of the key features of this condition is the accumulation of tau proteins in neurons, forming silver-staining, spherical aggregations called ‘Pick bodies.’
Typically, Pick’s disease manifests between the ages of 40 and 60. Initially, individuals may experience changes in their personality, such as disinhibition, tactlessness, and vulgarity. They may also exhibit alterations in their moral values and attempt to distance themselves from their family. Difficulties with concentration, increased activity levels, pacing, and wandering are also common during this stage.
What sets Pick’s disease apart from Alzheimer’s disease is that the changes in personality occur before memory loss becomes apparent. As the disease progresses, patients will experience deficits in intellect, memory, and language.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 58 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of palpitations, swollen legs, and excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests are requested and reveal low TSH and elevated free T4 levels. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm problems, can have effects on the thyroid gland. It can either cause hypothyroidism (low thyroid hormone levels) or hyperthyroidism (high thyroid hormone levels). Amiodarone is a highly fat-soluble drug that accumulates in various tissues, including the thyroid. Even after stopping the medication, its effects can still be seen due to its long elimination half-life of around 100 days.
The reason behind amiodarone impact on the thyroid is believed to be its high iodine content. In patients with sufficient iodine levels, amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism is more likely to occur. On the other hand, in populations with low iodine levels, amiodarone can lead to a condition called iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis, which is characterized by hyperthyroidism.
The mechanism of amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism involves the release of iodide from the drug, which blocks the uptake of further iodide by the thyroid gland and hampers the production of thyroid hormones. Additionally, amiodarone inhibits the conversion of the inactive thyroid hormone T4 to the active form T3.
Amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism, on the other hand, is thought to occur in individuals with abnormal thyroid glands, such as those with nodular goiters, autonomous nodules, or latent Graves’ disease. In these cases, the excess iodine from amiodarone overwhelms the thyroid’s normal regulatory mechanisms, leading to hyperthyroidism.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma. hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient experiences episodes of cognitive decline that last for a few days. During these episodes, the patient struggles to remember the names of friends or family members and often forgets what he is doing. The family member also mentions that the patient seems to have hallucinations, frequently asking about animals in the house and people in the garden who are not actually there. Upon examination, you observe muscle rigidity and a tremor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by several key features, including spontaneous fluctuations in cognitive abilities, visual hallucinations, and Parkinsonism. Visual hallucinations are particularly prevalent in DLB and Parkinson’s disease dementia, which are considered to be part of the same spectrum. While visual hallucinations can occur in other forms of dementia, they are less frequently observed.
Further Reading:
Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.
To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.
The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.
There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.
Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.
Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.
Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.
In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man who has been in a car crash experiences symptoms of sudden airway blockage. You conclude that he needs to be intubated using a rapid sequence induction. You intend to use thiopental sodium as your induction medication.
What is the mechanism of action of thiopental sodium?Your Answer: Agonism of the NMDA receptor
Correct Answer: Depressing postsynaptic sensitivity to neurotransmitters
Explanation:Thiopental sodium is a barbiturate with a very short duration of action. It is primarily used to induce anesthesia. Barbiturates are believed to primarily affect synapses by reducing the sensitivity of postsynaptic receptors to neurotransmitters and by interfering with the release of neurotransmitters from presynaptic neurons.
Thiopental sodium specifically binds to a unique site associated with a chloride ionophore at the GABAA receptor, which is responsible for the opening of chloride ion channels. This binding increases the length of time that the chloride ionophore remains open. As a result, the inhibitory effect of GABA on postsynaptic neurons in the thalamus is prolonged.
In summary, thiopental sodium acts as a short-acting barbiturate that is commonly used to induce anesthesia. It affects synapses by reducing postsynaptic receptor sensitivity and interfering with neurotransmitter release. By binding to a specific site at the GABAA receptor, thiopental sodium prolongs the inhibitory effect of GABA in the thalamus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old patient comes in with a painful and red left eye. Upon examination, you observe conjunctival erythema and the presence of mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting. Based on these findings, you diagnose the patient with bacterial conjunctivitis. However, the patient cannot use the first-line treatment due to a previous reaction. According to the current NICE guidance, what is the recommended second-line antibiotic for managing bacterial conjunctivitis?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin 0.3% drops
Correct Answer: Fusidic acid 1% drops
Explanation:When it comes to managing bacterial conjunctivitis, NICE provides some helpful guidance. It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment. However, in severe cases or situations where a quick resolution is necessary, topical antibiotics may be necessary. In some cases, it may be appropriate to delay treatment and advise the patient to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.
There are a few options for topical antibiotics that can be used. One option is Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops, which should be applied every 2 hours for 2 days and then 4 times daily for 5 days. Another option is Chloramphenicol 1% ointment, which should be applied four times daily for 2 days and then twice daily for 5 days. Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment and should be applied twice daily for 7 days.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bacterial conjunctivitis and provide appropriate treatment options for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
You assess a 60-year-old woman who has a confirmed diagnosis of aortic stenosis.
Which ONE statement accurately describes aortic stenosis?Your Answer: There is a widened pulse pressure
Correct Answer: A 4th heart sound may be present
Explanation:Aortic stenosis can be identified through various clinical signs. These signs include a slow rising and low-volume pulse, as well as a narrow pulse pressure. The ejection systolic murmur, which is loudest in the aortic area (2nd intercostal space, close to the sternum), is another indicator. Additionally, a sustained apex beat and a thrill in the aortic area can be felt when the patient is sitting forward at the end of expiration. In some cases, a 4th heart sound may also be present. It is important to note that in severe cases of aortic stenosis, there may be reverse splitting of the second heart sound. However, fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound is typically associated with ASD and VSD. Lastly, the presence of an ejection click can help exclude supra- or subaortic stenosis, especially if the valve is pliable.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 25 kg.
What is the child's hourly maintenance fluid requirement when he is in good health?Your Answer: 50 ml/hour
Correct Answer: 65 ml/hour
Explanation:The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration becomes evident only after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.
The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children:
Bodyweight:
– First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg.
– Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg.
– Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg.Based on this information, the hourly maintenance fluid requirements for this child can be calculated as follows:
– First 10 kg: 4 ml/kg = 40 ml
– Second 10 kg: 2 ml/kg = 20 ml
– Subsequent kg: 1 ml/kg = 5 mlTherefore, the total hourly maintenance fluid requirement for this child is 65 ml.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes in with amenorrhoea for the past six months following childbirth. The delivery was complicated by a post-partum haemorrhage that necessitated a blood transfusion. She has been unable to produce breast milk or breastfeed. She has also mentioned a loss of hair in her underarm and pubic regions and a decreased sex drive.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sheehan’s syndrome
Explanation:Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition where the pituitary gland becomes damaged due to insufficient blood flow and shock during and after childbirth, leading to hypopituitarism. The risk of developing this syndrome is higher in pregnancies with conditions that increase the chances of bleeding, such as placenta praevia and multiple pregnancies. Sheehan’s syndrome is quite rare, affecting only 1 in 10,000 pregnancies.
During pregnancy, the anterior pituitary gland undergoes hypertrophy, making it more vulnerable to ischaemia in the later stages. While the posterior pituitary gland is usually unaffected due to its direct arterial supply, there have been rare cases where it is also involved.
The clinical features of Sheehan’s syndrome include the absence or infrequency of menstrual periods, the inability to produce milk and breastfeed (galactorrhoea), decreased libido, fatigue and tiredness, and loss of pubic and axillary hair. Additionally, secondary hypothyroidism and adrenal insufficiency may also occur.
Serum prolactin levels are typically low, measuring less than 5ng/ml. An MRI can be helpful in ruling out other pituitary issues, such as a pituitary tumor.
The management of Sheehan’s syndrome involves hormone replacement therapy. With appropriate treatment, the prognosis for this condition is excellent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a fall in the playground at daycare. She has a bruise and a small scrape on her right knee and is walking with a slight limp, but she can put weight on her leg. Her pain is assessed using a numerical rating scale, and the triage nurse informs you that she has 'mild discomfort'.
According to the RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended as a loading dose for the treatment of mild discomfort in a child of this age?Your Answer: Oral paracetamol 20 mg/kg
Explanation:A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.
To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.
The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.
To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical ailment during the 4th and 5th month of her pregnancy. As a result, the unborn baby has experienced reduced blood flow and a condition known as oligohydramnios sequence.
Which of the listed medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:During the second and third trimesters of pregnancy, exposure to ACE inhibitors can lead to hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. This sequence refers to the abnormal physical appearance of a fetus or newborn due to low levels of amniotic fluid in the uterus. It is also associated with malformations of the patient ductus arteriosus and aortic arch. These defects are believed to be caused by the inhibitory effects of ACE inhibitors on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. To avoid these risks, it is recommended to discontinue ACE inhibitors before the second trimester.
Here is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:
Drug: ACE inhibitors
Adverse effects: If given in the second and third trimesters, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.Drug: Aminoglycosides
Adverse effects: Ototoxicity (damage to the ear) and deafness.Drug: Aspirin
Adverse effects: High doses can cause first trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. Low doses (e.g. 75 mg) have no significant associated risk.Drug: Benzodiazepines
Adverse effects: When given late in pregnancy, respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome can occur.Drug: Calcium-channel blockers
Adverse effects: If given in the first trimester, can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, can cause fetal growth retardation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 72-year-old male visits the emergency department on a weekend complaining of colicky abdominal pain and frequent episodes of diarrhea. The patient mentions that he had given a stool sample to his GP earlier in the week, but he is worried because the diarrhea has worsened. The pathology report confirms the presence of clostridium difficile toxin in the stool sample. Which of the medications the patient regularly takes are known to increase the risk of clostridium difficile diarrhea?
Your Answer: Lansoprazole
Explanation:Regular use of medications that decrease gastric acid secretion, such as proton pump inhibitors (esomeprazole, lansoprazole, omeprazole, pantoprazole, and rabeprazole) and H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine, can increase the risk of developing clostridium difficile diarrhoea. However, it is important to note that antibiotics are the most common cause of this condition.
Further Reading:
Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department with a three day history of nausea and upper abdominal pain. The patient is concerned as the nausea became severe enough to cause her to vomit today and she noticed dark blood in the vomitus. The patient takes simvastatin daily for high cholesterol and has recently been taking ibuprofen to treat knee pain. You are able to schedule her for an endoscopy today.
Upon returning to the ED, you decide to conduct a risk assessment for upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate to use?Your Answer: Blatchford score
Correct Answer: Full Rockall score
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, when evaluating patients with acute upper GI bleeding, it is recommended to use the Blatchford score during the initial assessment and the full Rockall score after endoscopy. The Rockall score is specifically designed to assess the risk of re-bleeding or death in these patients. If a patient’s post-endoscopic Rockall score is less than 3, they are considered to have a low risk of re-bleeding or death and may be eligible for early discharge.
Further Reading:
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.
The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.
Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.
Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.
Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.
For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 22-year-old individual comes in with a painful, itchy, red left eye. During the examination, there is noticeable redness in the conjunctiva, and follicles are observed on the inner eyelid when it is turned inside out. They recently had a mild and short-lived upper respiratory tract infection, but there are no other significant medical history.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Viral conjunctivitis
Explanation:Conjunctivitis is the most common reason for red eyes, accounting for about 35% of all eye problems seen in general practice. It occurs when the conjunctiva, the thin layer covering the white part of the eye, becomes inflamed. Conjunctivitis can be caused by an infection or an allergic reaction.
Infective conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection. The most common type of infective conjunctivitis is viral, with adenoviruses being the main culprits. Bacterial conjunctivitis is also common and is usually caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, or Haemophilus influenzae.
The symptoms of infective conjunctivitis include sudden redness of the conjunctiva, discomfort described as a gritty or burning sensation, watering of the eyes, and discharge that may temporarily blurry vision. It can be challenging to differentiate between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis based on symptoms alone.
Here are some key features that can help distinguish between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis:
Features suggestive of viral conjunctivitis:
– Mild to moderate redness of the conjunctiva
– Presence of follicles on the inner surface of the eyelids
– Swelling of the eyelids
– Small, pinpoint bleeding under the conjunctiva
– Pseudomembranes (thin layers of tissue) may form on the inner surface of the eyelids in severe cases, often caused by adenovirus
– Less discharge (usually watery) compared to bacterial conjunctivitis
– Mild to moderate itching
– Symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection and swollen lymph nodes in front of the earsFeatures suggestive of bacterial conjunctivitis:
– Purulent or mucopurulent discharge with crusting of the eyelids, which may cause them to stick together upon waking
– Mild or no itching
– Swollen lymph nodes in front of the ears, which are often present in severe bacterial conjunctivitis
– If the discharge is copious and mucopurulent, infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae should be considered.By considering these distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage cases of conjunctivitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 40-year-old man receives a blood transfusion after surgery. Shortly after starting the transfusion, he experiences hives and itching all over his body. He is in good health otherwise and shows no signs of any breathing difficulties or wheezing.
Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to have happened?Your Answer: Allergic reaction
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there has been an improvement in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
Mild allergic reactions during blood transfusion are relatively common and typically occur within a few minutes of starting the transfusion. These reactions happen when patients have antibodies that react with foreign plasma proteins in the transfused blood components. Symptoms of mild allergic reactions include urticaria, Pruritus, and hives.
Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, is much rarer and occurs when an individual has previously been sensitized to an allergen present in the blood. When re-exposed to the allergen, the body releases IgE or IgG antibodies, leading to severe symptoms such as bronchospasm, laryngospasm, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, shock, and loss of consciousness. Anaphylaxis can be fatal.
Mild allergic reactions can be managed by slowing down the transfusion rate and administering antihistamines. If there is no progression after 30 minutes, the transfusion may continue. Patients who have experienced repeated allergic reactions to transfusion should be given pre-treatment with chlorpheniramine. In cases of anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped immediately, and the patient should receive oxygen, adrenaline, corticosteroids, and antihistamines following the ALS protocol.
The table below summarizes the main transfusion reactions and complications, along with their features and management:
Complication | Features | Management
Febrile transfusion reaction | 1 degree rise in temperature, chills, malaise | Supportive care, paracetamol
Acute haemolytic reaction | Fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine | STOP THE TRANSFUSION, administer IV fluids, diuretics if necessary
Delayed haemolytic reaction | Fever, anaemia, jaundice, haemoglobinuria | Monitor anaemia and renal function, treat as required
Allergic reaction | Urticaria, Pruritus, hives | Symptomatic treatment with ant -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
You review a 72-year-old man who is currently on the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) after undergoing surgery for a hip fracture that occurred as a result of a fall. He informs you that he experienced the onset of menopause in his early 50s. His primary care physician recently arranged for a DEXA scan, and you have obtained the results from the CDU computer. The scan reveals a T-score of -3.0 standard deviations. Upon reviewing his medical history and family history, you discover that his father suffered a hip fracture in his early 60s, and the patient himself has a body mass index of 21 kg/m2.
Which SINGLE statement regarding this case is true?Your Answer: She has osteoporosis and ideally should be started on a combination of treatment such as alendronate and calcichew D3 forte
Explanation:Fragility fractures occur when a person experiences a fracture from a force that would not typically cause a fracture, such as a fall from a standing height or less. The most common areas for fragility fractures are the vertebrae, hip, and wrist. Osteoporosis is diagnosed when a patient’s bone mineral density, measured by a T-score on a DEXA scan, is -2.5 standard deviations or below. This T-score compares the patient’s bone density to the peak bone density of a population. In women over 75 years old, osteoporosis can be assumed without a DEXA scan. Osteopenia is diagnosed when a patient’s T-score is between -1 and -2.5 standard deviations below peak bone density. Risk factors for fractures include a family history of hip fractures, excessive alcohol consumption, and rheumatoid arthritis. Low bone mineral density can be indicated by a BMI below 22 kg/m2, untreated menopause, and conditions causing prolonged immobility or certain medical conditions. Medications used to prevent osteoporotic fractures in postmenopausal women include alendronate, risedronate, etidronate, and strontium ranelate. Raloxifene is not used for primary prevention. Alendronate is typically the first-choice medication and is recommended for women over 70 years old with confirmed osteoporosis and either a risk factor for fracture or low bone mineral density. Women over 75 years old with two risk factors or two indicators of low bone mineral density may be assumed to have osteoporosis without a DEXA scan. Other pharmacological interventions can be tried if alendronate is not tolerated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 62 year old male is brought to the emergency department after experiencing difficulty breathing. You observe that he has had a tracheostomy for a long time due to being on a ventilator for an extended period following a severe car accident. You provide high flow oxygen and try to pass a suction catheter after removing the inner tracheostomy tube, but you are unable to do so. What should be the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Attempt intubation of stoma
Correct Answer: Deflate the cuff
Explanation:If a patient with a tracheostomy is experiencing difficulty breathing and it is not possible to pass a suction catheter, the next step is to deflate the cuff. Deflating the cuff can help determine if the tracheostomy tube is obstructed or displaced by allowing air to flow around the tube within the airway. The following steps are followed in order: 1) Remove the inner tube and any speaking cap/valve if present. 2) Attempt to pass the suction catheter. 3) If the suction catheter cannot be passed, deflate the cuff. 4) If the patient’s condition does not stabilize or improve, the tracheostomy tube may need to be removed. This process is summarized in the green algorithm.
Further Reading:
Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.
When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.
Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car crash and sustains severe facial injuries. Facial X-rays and CT scans show the presence of a Le Fort II fracture.
What is the most probable cause of this injury?Your Answer: A force through the upper part of the maxilla
Correct Answer: A force through the lower or mid maxilla
Explanation:Le Fort fractures are intricate fractures of the midface, which involve the maxillary bone and the surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the separation of the pterygomaxillary due to trauma. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening situations and disfigurement.
The causes of Le Fort fractures vary depending on the type of fracture. Common mechanisms include motor vehicle accidents, sports injuries, assaults, and falls from significant heights. Patients with Le Fort fractures often have concurrent head and cervical spine injuries. Additionally, they frequently experience other facial fractures, as well as neuromuscular injuries and dental avulsions.
The specific type of fracture sustained is determined by the direction of the force applied to the face. Le Fort type I fractures typically occur when a force is directed downward against the upper teeth. Le Fort type II fractures are usually the result of a force applied to the lower or mid maxilla. Lastly, Le Fort type III fractures are typically caused by a force applied to the nasal bridge and upper part of the maxilla.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with swollen lips and a rash all over her body. According to her friend, she had recently consumed a sandwich. Anaphylaxis is suspected. You inquire about her medication use, and she presents a packet of propranolol. In addition to the usual treatment, which drug should be taken into consideration for this patient?
Your Answer: Glucagon
Explanation:Glucagon may be an option for individuals experiencing anaphylaxis while taking beta blockers. However, it should not be chosen over Adrenaline as the primary treatment. Glucagon stimulates the production of cyclic AMP, which helps to increase heart contractility and heart rate, both of which are necessary during anaphylaxis. It is important to note that rapid administration of glucagon may lead to adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.
In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.
Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.
The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 32-year-old individual presents with a sudden worsening of asthma symptoms. You conduct an arterial blood gas test, and their PaCO2 level is 6.3 kPa.
How would you categorize this asthma exacerbation?Your Answer: Near-fatal asthma
Explanation:This individual has presented with an episode of acute asthma. Their PaCO2 levels are elevated at 6.3 kPa, indicating a near-fatal exacerbation. According to the BTS guidelines, acute asthma can be classified as moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, or near-fatal.
Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate) of 50-75% of the best or predicted value. There are no features of acute severe asthma present in this classification.
Acute severe asthma can be identified by any one of the following criteria: a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate surpassing 110 beats per minute, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.
Life-threatening asthma is determined by any one of the following indicators: a PEFR below 33% of the best or predicted value, an SpO2 (oxygen saturation) level below 92%, a PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) below 8 kPa, normal PaCO2 levels (ranging from 4.6-6.0 kPa), a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension.
Near-fatal asthma is characterized by a raised PaCO2 level and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with elevated inflation pressures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of paracetamol. The patient claims that he wants to end it all and refuses to stay in the hospital for treatment. His wife insists that he must be treated because he is not thinking clearly.
Which medication is the primary treatment for paracetamol overdose in an inpatient setting?Your Answer: Acetylcysteine
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose is the most common overdose in the U.K. and is also the leading cause of acute liver failure. The liver damage occurs due to a metabolite of paracetamol called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s glutathione stores and directly harms liver cells. Severe liver damage and even death can result from an overdose of more than 12 g or > 150 mg/kg body weight.
The clinical manifestations of paracetamol overdose can be divided into four stages:
Stage 1 (0-24 hours): Patients may not show any symptoms, but common signs include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort.
Stage 2 (24-48 hours): Right upper quadrant pain and tenderness develop, along with the possibility of hypoglycemia and reduced consciousness.
Stage 3 (48-96 hours): Hepatic failure begins, characterized by jaundice, coagulopathy, and encephalopathy. Loin pain, haematuria, and proteinuria may indicate early renal failure.
Stage 4 (> 96 hours): Hepatic failure worsens progressively, leading to cerebral edema, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and ultimately death.
The earliest and most sensitive indicator of liver damage is a prolonged INR, which starts to rise approximately 24 hours after the overdose. Liver function tests (LFTs) typically remain normal until 18 hours after the overdose. However, AST and ALT levels then sharply increase and can exceed 10,000 units/L by 72-96 hours. Bilirubin levels rise more slowly and peak around 5 days.
The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is a highly effective antidote, but its efficacy diminishes rapidly if administered more than 8 hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions exceeding 75 mg/kg are considered significant.
Acetylcysteine should be given based on a 4-hour level or administered empirically if the presentation occurs more than 8 hours after a significant overdose. If the overdose is staggered or the timing is uncertain, empirical treatment is also recommended. The treatment regimen is as follows:
– First dose: 150 mg/kg in 200 mL 5% glucose over 1 hour
– Second dose 50 mg/kg in 500 mL 5% glucose over 4 hours
– Third dose 100 mg/kg in 1000 mL 5% glucose over 16 hours -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
Which of the following conditions is NOT linked to ulcerative colitis disease?Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis is a condition that is less common among smokers, as around 70-80% of individuals affected by this disease are non-smokers. There are several recognized associations of ulcerative colitis, including aphthous ulcers, uveitis and episcleritis, seronegative spondyloarthropathies, sacroiliitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and chronic active hepatitis. These conditions often coexist with ulcerative colitis and can provide additional insight into the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 47 year old female comes to the emergency department with a 4 day history of pain on the left side of her torso. The patient describes the pain as burning and noticed a rash develop in the painful area a few days ago. Upon examination, you observe blotchy erythema with clustered vesicles on the left side of her torso, extending from the left side of her back to the midline in the distribution of the T10 dermatome.
What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?Your Answer: Herpes simplex type 1
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster
Explanation:Shingles, also known as herpes zoster, occurs when the varicella zoster virus becomes active again in a specific area of the skin. This results in a rash characterized by clusters of fluid-filled blisters or vesicles on a red base. Over time, these blisters will dry up and form crusts before eventually healing.
Further Reading:
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.
Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.
Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.
Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.
Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old sex worker comes in with a painful genital ulcer. During the examination, a highly sensitive ulcer is found on her right labia majora, measuring around 10 mm in diameter with well-defined edges. Additionally, she has swollen inguinal lymph nodes that are tender.
What is the MOST LIKELY causative organism for this case?Your Answer: Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer: Haemophilus ducreyi
Explanation:Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Haemophilus ducreyi. It is not very common in the UK but is prevalent in Africa, Asia, and South America. HIV is often associated with chancroid, particularly in Africa where there is a 60% correlation.
The main symptom of chancroid is the development of painful ulcers on the genitalia. In women, these ulcers typically appear on the labia majora. Sometimes, kissing ulcers can form when ulcers are located on opposing surfaces of the labia. Painful swelling of the lymph nodes occurs in 30-60% of patients, and in some cases, these swollen nodes can turn into abscesses known as buboes.
The CDC recommends treating chancroid with a single oral dose of 1 gram of azithromycin or a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone. Alternatively, a 7-day course of oral erythromycin can be used. It’s important to note that Haemophilus ducreyi is resistant to several antibiotics, including penicillins, tetracyclines, trimethoprim, ciprofloxacin, aminoglycosides, and sulfonamides.
Possible complications of chancroid include extensive swelling of the lymph nodes, large abscesses and sinuses in the groin area, phimosis (a condition where the foreskin cannot be retracted), and superinfection with Fusarium spp. or Bacteroides spp.
Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, presents with a painless ulcer called a chancre during its primary stage. This is different from chancroid, which causes painful ulcers. Chlamydia trachomatis can lead to lymphogranuloma venereum, where a painless genital ulcer may develop initially and go unnoticed. Granuloma inguinale, caused by Klebsiella granulomatis, causes painless nodules and ulcers on the genitals that eventually burst and create open, oozing lesions. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, on the other hand, typically causes vaginal or urethral discharge and is often asymptomatic, rather than causing genital ulceration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)