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  • Question 1 - Who is responsible for introducing chlorpromazine into clinical practice? ...

    Correct

    • Who is responsible for introducing chlorpromazine into clinical practice?

      Your Answer: Delay and Deniker

      Explanation:

      Chlorpromazine, also known as Thorazine, is a medication used to treat various mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and severe anxiety. It was first synthesized by Paul Charpentier in 1950 and quickly became a popular antipsychotic medication due to its effectiveness in reducing symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Chlorpromazine works by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain, leading to a calming effect on the patient. Despite its success, chlorpromazine can cause side effects such as drowsiness, dry mouth, and blurred vision. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking this medication.

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the preferred medication for managing withdrawal symptoms in individuals experiencing alcohol...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred medication for managing withdrawal symptoms in individuals experiencing alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is a common issue in the UK, and Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is a benzodiazepine that is frequently used to treat it. This medication is safe, effective, and allows for flexible dosing. Acamprosate is another medication that is licensed for the treatment of alcohol cravings, while Carbamazepine may be used in cases where there is a risk of withdrawal seizures. Chlormethiazole, also known as Heminevrin, was once widely used for alcohol withdrawal but is now less commonly used due to its relative toxicity. Chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic, is not typically used in uncomplicated cases of alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?...

    Correct

    • What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?

      Your Answer: 6%

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - For what purpose is Modafinil licensed? ...

    Correct

    • For what purpose is Modafinil licensed?

      Your Answer: Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug?

      Your Answer: In Zero order reactions the half-life decreases as the concentration falls

      Explanation:

      In contrast to first order reactions, drugs that exhibit zero order kinetics do not have a fixed half-life, as the rate of drug elimination remains constant regardless of the drug concentration in the plasma. The relationship between time and plasma concentration in zero order kinetics is linear, whereas in first order reactions, the half-life remains constant.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the options would be the least impacted by the intake of...

    Correct

    • Which of the options would be the least impacted by the intake of grapefruit juice?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Although many drugs are metabolized by CYP1A2, grapefruit juice does not have a significant effect on the metabolism of lithium, as the majority of lithium is excreted without undergoing significant metabolic changes.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which antipsychotic is commonly linked to priapism? ...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic is commonly linked to priapism?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection

      Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old female with long-standing epilepsy experiences severe hyponatremia. What medication is the...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female with long-standing epilepsy experiences severe hyponatremia. What medication is the probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug that is used to treat seizures and nerve pain. However, it can also cause some major systemic side effects. These include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can be quite severe in some cases. Another potential side effect is hyponatremia, which is a condition where the blood sodium levels become too low. This can cause symptoms such as confusion, seizures, and even coma in severe cases.

      Carbamazepine can also cause skin reactions such as rash and pruritus (itching). These can range from mild to severe and may require medical attention. Finally, fluid retention is another potential side effect of carbamazepine. This can cause swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet, and may also lead to weight gain.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes carbamazepine will experience these side effects. However, if you do experience any of these symptoms, it is important to speak with your doctor right away. They may be able to adjust your dosage of switch you to a different medication to help alleviate these side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What condition of situation would make the use of lithium inappropriate of unsafe?...

    Correct

    • What condition of situation would make the use of lithium inappropriate of unsafe?

      Your Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brugada syndrome typically appears in males during adulthood, usually around age 40, and sudden death may be the initial symptom. This genetic disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This information is sourced from the National Organization for Rare Disorders (NORD).

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of these medications used to treat depression has the most extended duration...

    Correct

    • Which of these medications used to treat depression has the most extended duration of action?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants have varying half lives, with fluoxetine having one of the longest at four to six days. Agomelatine, on the other hand, has a much shorter half life of approximately one to two hours. Citalopram has a half life of approximately 36 hours, while duloxetine has a half life of approximately 12 hours. Paroxetine falls in the middle with a half life of approximately 24 hours. For more information on antidepressant discontinuation syndrome, refer to the article by Warner et al. (2006).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient prescribed quetiapine (500mg once daily) at the age of 65 had...

    Correct

    • A patient prescribed quetiapine (500mg once daily) at the age of 65 had a recent ECG which showed a QTc interval of 510 ms. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?:

      Your Answer: Stop quetiapine completely and then switch to aripiprazole and refer to cardiology

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole and olanzapine are preferred over haloperidol due to its high impact on the QTc interval. Risperidone can also be considered as a viable option in cases where the QTc interval is elevated.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which statement about modafinil is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about modafinil is accurate?

      Your Answer: It does not tend to lead to dependence

      Explanation:

      Modafinil shares similarities in its mechanism of action with amphetamine, and its effects are relatively brief with a half-life of approximately 8-12 hours. Additionally, the side effects of modafinil are comparable to those of amphetamine.

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What medication prescribed for depression is most likely to result in decreased sexual...

    Incorrect

    • What medication prescribed for depression is most likely to result in decreased sexual drive?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is a known outcome of using lithium for an extended period of...

    Correct

    • What is a known outcome of using lithium for an extended period of time?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which individual brought clozapine into clinical use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual brought clozapine into clinical use?

      Your Answer: Charpentier

      Correct Answer: Kane

      Explanation:

      Imipramine antidepressant effects were discovered by Kuhn. Kane introduced clozapine into clinical practice after conducting a successful double-blind multicenter trial comparing it with chlorpromazine in treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Charpentier synthesized chlorpromazine, while Klein discovered the use of iproniazid. Cade discovered the beneficial effect of lithium in treating mania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult...

    Correct

    • What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult male?

      Your Answer: 440

      Explanation:

      While the upper limit technically reaches 439, it is evident that 440 is the optimal choice among the options provided.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - For which specific symptom would you recommend a patient to begin taking buspirone?...

    Correct

    • For which specific symptom would you recommend a patient to begin taking buspirone?

      Your Answer: Can cause dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Buspirone is a type of anti-anxiety medication that belongs to the azapirone (azaspirodecanedione) class of drugs. It is used to treat the same conditions as benzodiazepines. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone is a partial agonist of the serotonin 5HT1A receptor and does not cause sedation, physical dependence, of psychomotor impairment. However, it may cause side effects such as dizziness, headache, excitement, and nausea. Other less common side effects include dry mouth, tachycardia/palpitations/chest pain, drowsiness/confusion, seizures, fatigue, and sweating. Buspirone is not recommended for individuals with epilepsy, severe hepatic impairment, moderate to severe renal impairment, during pregnancy, of while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A junior researcher in the field of psychiatry is currently undertaking a six-month...

    Incorrect

    • A junior researcher in the field of psychiatry is currently undertaking a six-month research placement as part of their training program. They are collaborating with a team of psychopharmacologists who are studying the mechanism of action of a novel antidepressant medication.
      What is the primary group of molecules that most known antidepressants target?

      Your Answer: G-protein-linked receptors

      Correct Answer: Transmembrane transporters

      Explanation:

      Most antidepressants and stimulants target monoamine transporters, which are crucial molecular targets. These transporters are also targeted by 30% of all psychotropic drugs. Another 30% of psychotropic drugs target G-protein-linked receptors, while enzymes are targeted by about 10% of these drugs. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of antidepressant that targets the enzyme monoamine oxidase. Ligand-gated and voltage-gated ion channels are targeted by 20% and 10% of all psychotropic drugs, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old man with a history of partial seizures is prescribed a second...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of partial seizures is prescribed a second anticonvulsant due to inadequate control with his current medication. However, he experiences concentric visual field loss as a side effect. Which anticonvulsant is most likely responsible for this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Vigabatrin

      Explanation:

      Vigabatrin is known to cause visual field constriction in approximately 30% of its users. Although the majority of cases are asymptomatic, as the drug primarily affects peripheral fields and not central visual acuity, the effects are typically irreversible of only partially reversible after discontinuation of the medication. Patients who are over the age of 10 and are prescribed vigabatrin should undergo baseline threshold visual field testing and follow-up every six months. It is important for patients to report any new vision problems, such as blurring, double vision, of signs of peripheral vision impairment. Vigabatrin is only recommended for specialist use and is indicated for epilepsy that is not adequately controlled by other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol dependence by targeting which type of receptors?

      Your Answer: GABA-B

      Correct Answer: Metabotropic glutamate receptors

      Explanation:

      The exact way in which acamprosate helps maintain alcohol abstinence is not fully understood. However, it is believed that chronic alcohol exposure disrupts the balance between neuronal excitation and inhibition. Studies conducted on animals suggest that acamprosate may interact with the glutamate and GABA neurotransmitter systems in the brain, which may help restore this balance. Acamprosate is thought to inhibit glutamate receptors while activating GABA receptors, specifically GABA-A and metabotropic glutamate receptors. It should be noted that some sources suggest that acamprosate affects NMDA receptors, which are a type of ionotropic glutamate receptor. However, this is not entirely accurate and may not be reflected in exam questions.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A client in their senior years has recently been prescribed an SSRI. What...

    Correct

    • A client in their senior years has recently been prescribed an SSRI. What signs of symptoms would be most indicative of hyponatremia?

      Your Answer: Muscle cramps

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding clozapine, which class of receptors does not experience any impact? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding clozapine, which class of receptors does not experience any impact?

      Your Answer: Glutamatergic

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is a true statement about antihistamines? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about antihistamines?

      Your Answer: First generation antihistamines should be avoided in people at risk of angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      First generation antihistamines should be avoided in individuals who are at risk of angle closure glaucoma due to their tendency to cause anticholinergic side effects. Pupil dilation (mydriasis) caused by these medications can increase the risk of angle closure glaucoma in individuals with narrow anterior chamber angles, but this is not a concern for those with open angle glaucoma.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects? ...

    Correct

    • Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects?

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What factor is most likely to cause an elderly patient with dementia to...

    Correct

    • What factor is most likely to cause an elderly patient with dementia to exhibit aggressive and hostile behavior?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Disinhibitory Drug Reactions: Understanding Paradoxical Reactions to Benzodiazepines

      Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed for anxiety and sleep disorders, but they are also associated with paradoxical reactions, also known as disinhibitory reactions. These reactions are unexpected increases in aggressive behavior, sexual disinhibition, hyperactivity, vivid dreams, and hostility. However, the prevalence of these reactions is difficult to determine, as study findings vary widely from 1% to 58%.

      Certain factors increase the risk of paradoxical reactions, including a history of aggression of poor impulse control, extremes of age (elderly of young), benzodiazepines with short half-lives, high doses of benzodiazepines, and intravenous administration of benzodiazepines. It is important to record these reactions, and if they are severe, it is advisable to avoid future use of benzodiazepines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which drug is most likely to cause porphyria to occur? ...

    Correct

    • Which drug is most likely to cause porphyria to occur?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Porphyria: The Little Imitator

      Porphyria is a medical condition that is often referred to as the little imitator because it can mimic various common psychiatric presentations. This condition can be triggered by the use of certain psychotropic drugs, including barbiturates, benzodiazepines, sulpiride, and some mood stabilizers.

      Porphyria can manifest in different ways, and it is important to be aware of the symptoms. These may include abdominal pain, mental state changes, constipation, vomiting, and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the primary metabolic pathway for benzodiazepines? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary metabolic pathway for benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: CYP3A4

      Explanation:

      CYP3A4 is responsible for metabolizing the majority of benzodiazepines in the liver.

      Benzodiazepines: Effective but Addictive

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used to treat anxiety. They are divided into two categories: hypnotics, which have a short half-life, and anxiolytics, which have a long half-life. While they can be effective in reducing anxiety symptoms, they are also highly addictive and should not be prescribed for more than one month at a time.

      Benzodiazepines are particularly effective as hypnotics, but they do have some negative effects on sleep. They suppress REM sleep, and when they are discontinued, a rebound effect is often seen. This means that people may experience more vivid dreams and nightmares when they stop taking the medication. It is important for doctors to carefully monitor patients who are taking benzodiazepines to ensure that they are not becoming addicted and that they are not experiencing any negative side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What specific warnings should be given to patients who are prescribed tranylcypromine? ...

    Correct

    • What specific warnings should be given to patients who are prescribed tranylcypromine?

      Your Answer: Hypertensive crisis

      Explanation:

      It is important to provide education to patients who are prescribed MAOIs regarding the dietary restrictions that must be followed in order to avoid a hypertensive crisis.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.4
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old female with a history of seizures is prescribed an anticonvulsant but...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female with a history of seizures is prescribed an anticonvulsant but experiences pain in her left flank after 10 months. An ultrasound reveals the presence of a kidney stone.
      Which anticonvulsant is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Long-term use of topiramate for approximately one year can result in systemic metabolic acidosis due to the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, leading to distal tubular acidification and impaired acid excretion by the kidneys. Additionally, topiramate use can elevate urine pH and decreased urine citrate, which is a crucial inhibitor of kidney stone formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine? ...

    Correct

    • When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine?

      Your Answer: 4-18 weeks

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, is a rare side effect of clozapine occurring in approximately 1% of patients. The period of maximum risk for developing agranulocytosis is between 4-18 weeks after starting treatment. It is important for patients taking clozapine to have regular blood tests and be registered with the Clozaril Patient Monitoring Service to monitor for this side effect. It is worth noting that the risk of agranulocytosis is not related to the dose of clozapine. For more information on the treatment of schizophrenia, the book Contemporary Issues in the Treatment of Schizophrenia edited by Shriqui CL and Nasrallah HA may be of interest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - What is a common side effect of olanzapine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a common side effect of olanzapine?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine use is commonly linked to the development of akathisia, which is a type of side effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which statement accurately describes interactions involving chlorpromazine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes interactions involving chlorpromazine?

      Your Answer: Valproic acid decreases the serum concentration of chlorpromazine

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine increases the serum concentration of valproic acid

      Explanation:

      The serum concentration of valproic acid may be elevated by chlorpromazine, although the reason for this is not fully understood. However, this outcome is widely acknowledged.

      Chlorpromazine: Photosensitivity Reactions and Patient Precautions

      Chlorpromazine, the first drug used for psychosis, is a common topic in exams. However, it is important to note that photosensitivity reactions are a known side effect of its use. Patients taking chlorpromazine should be informed of this and advised to take necessary precautions. Proper education and awareness can help prevent potential harm from photosensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is the opioid system modulator that is prescribed to decrease alcohol consumption?...

    Correct

    • What is the opioid system modulator that is prescribed to decrease alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Nalmefene

      Explanation:

      Nalmefene is a medication that affects the opioid system by partially activating the κ receptor and blocking the μ and σ receptors. It is believed to reduce the pleasurable effects of alcohol by targeting the mesolimbic system and opioid receptors, helping individuals decrease their alcohol consumption.

      Acamprosate works by targeting NMDA and GABA receptors, which can reduce the urge to drink alcohol.

      Disulfiram inhibits the enzyme acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which is involved in breaking down alcohol. If someone drinks alcohol while taking disulfiram, they may experience a severe and potentially deadly reaction due to the buildup of acetaldehyde. Disulfiram is typically used by individuals who have stopped drinking and want to maintain their sobriety.

      Naltrexone is a medication that blocks opioid receptors and can be used to treat both opioid and alcohol addiction.

      Naloxone is a short-acting medication that blocks opioid receptors and is used in emergency situations to treat opioid overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A client complains of feeling ill after abruptly discontinuing paroxetine. What symptom is...

    Incorrect

    • A client complains of feeling ill after abruptly discontinuing paroxetine. What symptom is most indicative of discontinuation syndrome associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

      Your Answer: Myoclonic jerks

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Discontinuation syndrome of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may manifest with diverse symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea.

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following is most strongly linked to delirium? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most strongly linked to delirium?

      Your Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 72-year-old male is experiencing depression after being admitted for a flare-up of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male is experiencing depression after being admitted for a flare-up of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which antidepressant would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Unless there is a specific reason stated in the vignette, the first-line treatment for depression with medication is typically a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). However, an alternative option may be duloxetine, which is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI).

      SSRIs, of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are the first-line treatment for depression in most patients. However, some SSRIs have different side effects and interactions than others. For example, fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, while citalopram is useful for elderly patients as it is associated with lower risks of drug interactions. SSRIs should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and fluoxetine is the drug of choice in this population.

      Common side effects of SSRIs include gastrointestinal symptoms, sedation, and sexual dysfunction. Paroxetine is considered the most sedating and anticholinergic, while vortioxetine is associated with the least sexual dysfunction. Patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, and a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if they are also taking an NSAID.

      When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, and gastrointestinal symptoms.

      SSRIs can also have interactions with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. Patients should be reviewed by a doctor after starting antidepressant therapy, and if they make a good response, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.

      In patients who have had a myocardial infarction, approximately 20% develop depression. SSRIs are the preferred antidepressant group post-MI, but they can increase the bleeding risk, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it too is associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.8
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  • Question 37 - Among the listed antipsychotics, which one has the greatest likelihood of causing extrapyramidal...

    Correct

    • Among the listed antipsychotics, which one has the greatest likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which diuretic can be used safely in combination with lithium? ...

    Correct

    • Which diuretic can be used safely in combination with lithium?

      Your Answer: Amiloride

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics and potassium sparing diuretics have been found to have no significant impact on lithium levels, unlike other diuretics. While acetazolamide can decrease lithium levels by increasing excretion, loop diuretics may initially increase excretion followed by a rebound phase of enhanced reabsorption, resulting in no significant effect on lithium levels over a 24-hour period.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 39 - What is the most likely negative outcome for a patient who has just...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely negative outcome for a patient who has just started taking donepezil?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Headache is a very common symptom, while agitation and fatigue are also frequently reported. Bradycardia is less commonly observed. Extrapyramidal symptoms are rare occurrences.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 40 - Which medication does not create a significant active metabolite? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication does not create a significant active metabolite?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Oxazepam

      Explanation:

      Oxazepam is a significant metabolite found in various benzodiazepines, but it does not produce any significant metabolites of its own. It is occasionally prescribed to individuals with liver impairment because it does not necessitate hepatic oxidation and is instead metabolized through glucuronidation (which is often preserved even in severe liver disease).

      The Significance of Active Metabolites in Drug Discovery and Development

      Certain drugs are classified as prodrugs, which means that they are inactive when administered and require metabolism to become active. These drugs are converted into an active form, which is referred to as an active metabolite. Some drugs have important active metabolites, such as diazepam, dothiepin, fluoxetine, imipramine, risperidone, amitriptyline, and codeine, which are desmethyldiazepam, dothiepin sulfoxide, norfluoxetine, desipramine, 9-hydroxyrisperidone, nortriptyline, and morphine, respectively.

      The role of pharmacologically active metabolites in drug discovery and development is significant. Understanding the active metabolites of a drug can help in the development of more effective and safer drugs. Active metabolites can also provide insights into the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug, which can aid in the optimization of dosing regimens. Additionally, active metabolites can have different pharmacological properties than the parent drug, which can lead to the discovery of new therapeutic uses for a drug. Therefore, the study of active metabolites is an important aspect of drug discovery and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.3
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  • Question 41 - What is a true statement about extrapyramidal side-effects? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about extrapyramidal side-effects?

      Your Answer: They can be caused by the withdrawal of antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - What is a frequently observed side effect of varenicline? ...

    Correct

    • What is a frequently observed side effect of varenicline?

      Your Answer: Abnormal dreams

      Explanation:

      While varenicline may cause uncommon of rare side effects, abnormal dreams are a frequently reported one.

      Varenicline for Smoking Cessation: Safety and Efficacy

      Varenicline is a medication used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and pleasurable effects of tobacco products. It has a high affinity for the alpha 4 beta 2 nicotinic receptor and is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. Varenicline is safe to use in cases of liver dysfunction as it undergoes very little hepatic metabolism. It has been found to be nearly 80% more effective than bupropion and more effective than 24-hour nicotine replacement therapy in two large randomized controlled trials. The initial course of treatment could last 12 weeks, with an additional 12 weeks offered to those who have successfully quit smoking. However, varenicline has been observed to exacerbate underlying psychiatric illness, including depression, and is associated with changes in behavior of thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, aggressive behavior, suicidal ideation, and behavior. Patients with a psychiatric history should be closely monitored while taking varenicline. One randomized controlled trial has challenged this concern. The FDA has issued a safety announcement that varenicline may be associated with a small, increased risk of certain cardiovascular adverse events in patients with cardiovascular disease. The very common side effects of varenicline include nasopharyngitis, abnormal dreams, insomnia, headache, and nausea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.6
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  • Question 43 - What is true about the discontinuation syndrome of antidepressants? ...

    Correct

    • What is true about the discontinuation syndrome of antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Symptoms rapidly disappear upon readministration of the drug

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The surgical team is seeking advice on administering an antidepressant to a patient...

    Correct

    • The surgical team is seeking advice on administering an antidepressant to a patient with depression who recently underwent a major mouth and throat surgery and cannot swallow. The patient has a history of responding well to SSRIs. Which intravenous SSRIs are suitable for this situation?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants

      While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.

      One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.

      Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.

      Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.

      Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 45 - Which of the following is an uncommon feature of discontinuing SSRI medication? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an uncommon feature of discontinuing SSRI medication?

      Your Answer: Palpitations

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced during discontinuation can be similar to those of anxiety and depression, leading to the possibility of misinterpreting them as a relapse.

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - For which group of patients is it not recommended to prescribe lithium? ...

    Correct

    • For which group of patients is it not recommended to prescribe lithium?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      According to a recent study by Ran (2019), lithium carbonate has been found to have a neuroprotective effect in individuals who have experienced a stroke. The study conducted exploratory analyses of neuroanatomical and cognitive outcomes in a poststroke population. It is interesting to note that while lithium is contraindicated in individuals with Addison’s disease, it is only cautioned in individuals with QT prolongation. Hypothyroidism (untreated) is also a contraindication for lithium. Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by inadequate production of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal cortex, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, gastrointestinal abnormalities, changes in skin pigmentation, and mood changes. In some cases, acute adrenal failure can occur, which is a serious condition that develops rapidly. The cause of Addison’s disease is often due to the body’s immune system mistakenly attacking the adrenal glands, causing progressive damage to the adrenal cortex.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Sulpiride

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What medication does not impact the QTc interval? ...

    Correct

    • What medication does not impact the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole does not affect the QTc interval and has minimal risk of extrapyramidal side effects, sedation, of weight gain. Amisulpride, citalopram, and quetiapine have a moderate effect on the QTc interval, which requires ECG monitoring due to a prolongation of >10 msec. Haloperidol has a high effect on the QTc interval, which mandates ECG monitoring due to a prolongation of >20 msec.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill when used together?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      It is safe to use sodium valproate together with the oral contraceptive pill. However, as valproate is known to cause birth defects, all women who use it and are of childbearing age must also use contraception.

      Interactions with Oral Contraceptives

      Psychiatric drugs such as St John’s Wort, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Topiramate, and Barbiturates can interact with oral contraceptives and lead to a reduced contraceptive effect. It is important to be aware of these potential interactions to ensure the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which symptom is the strongest indicator of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is the strongest indicator of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer: Increased muscle tone

      Explanation:

      NMS can be identified by three primary symptoms: hyperthermia, rigidity, and elevated creatine phosphokinase concentration. If these symptoms are not present, the diagnosis of NMS should be reconsidered as other symptoms may be present in patients taking neuroleptics without having NMS. This information was reported by P Adnet in the British Journal of Anaesthesia in 2000.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which combination of organs is primarily responsible for the first pass effect? ...

    Correct

    • Which combination of organs is primarily responsible for the first pass effect?

      Your Answer: Liver and bowel

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which test dose is correctly matched with the corresponding long-acting injectable antipsychotic? ...

    Correct

    • Which test dose is correctly matched with the corresponding long-acting injectable antipsychotic?

      Your Answer: Flupentixol decanoate 20mg

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with insomnia and mild depression. The doctor...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with insomnia and mild depression. The doctor decides to prescribe mirtazapine as it can also improve his mood. What is the mechanism of action of mirtazapine as a sleep aid?

      Your Answer: H1 receptor blocking

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine blocking of histamine 1 receptors can alleviate night time insomnia, but may also result in daytime drowsiness. Additionally, the drug blocks 5HT2C, 5HT2A, and 5HT3 receptors, which increases serotonin levels. This increase in serotonin then acts on the 5HT1A receptors, resulting in improved cognition, anti-anxiety effects, and antidepressant activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Can you explain the mechanism of action of lofexidine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you explain the mechanism of action of lofexidine?

      Your Answer: Synthetic opioid

      Correct Answer: Alpha 2 agonist

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What is a true statement about olanzapine pamoate / embonate? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about olanzapine pamoate / embonate?

      Your Answer: It is licenced only for gluteal administration

      Explanation:

      Although only gluteal injection is approved for olanzapine, deltoid injection is not as effective. Smoking and carbamazepine can induce the metabolism of olanzapine, resulting in lower concentrations. However, the increase in olanzapine clearance is only slight to moderate, and the clinical implications are likely limited. Clinical monitoring is recommended, and an increase in olanzapine dosage may be necessary. While test doses are not required for olanzapine embonate, the Summary of Product Characteristics (SPC) recommends treating patients with oral olanzapine before administering ZYPADHERA to establish tolerability and response.

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder, currently on medication, experiences...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder, currently on medication, experiences a low white blood cell count after developing a sore throat. Which antipsychotic medication is most likely responsible for these side effects?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of white cell count and differential is necessary for all patients receiving clozapine due to the risk of neutropenia and fatal agranulocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

      Your Answer: Butyrophenone - Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What is a suitable alternative for a patient who has lithium-induced diabetes insipidus...

    Correct

    • What is a suitable alternative for a patient who has lithium-induced diabetes insipidus and cannot be switched to a different medication?

      Your Answer: Amiloride

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to limit fluid intake in cases of lithium-induced DI as it can result in severe hypernatremia.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which statement about pharmacokinetics in the elderly is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about pharmacokinetics in the elderly is incorrect?

      Your Answer: The volume of distribution for lipid-soluble drugs decreases with age

      Explanation:

      As people age, they tend to have less muscle mass, more fat, and less water in their bodies. As a result, drugs that dissolve in fat tend to spread out more in their bodies. This can cause the effects of these drugs to last longer even after they stop taking them.

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - What are the factors that increase the likelihood of an individual developing tardive...

    Correct

    • What are the factors that increase the likelihood of an individual developing tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: Having an affective illness

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of...

    Correct

    • An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of the following medications?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The previously assumed higher risk is now uncertain and may not actually exist. We include this question to ensure that you are aware of the past association, as it may still be present in exam materials that have not been revised.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - What is a true statement about flumazenil? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about flumazenil?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil is not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is not authorized for treating benzodiazepine overdose in the UK, despite its widespread use. It works by competitively inhibiting the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABAA receptor, reversing the effects of benzodiazepines. Due to its short half-life of 60 minutes, it is important to note that multiple doses may be necessary in cases of benzodiazepine overdose.

      Flumazenil: A Selective GABAA Receptor Antagonist

      Flumazenil is a medication that selectively blocks the effects of benzodiazepines on the GABAA receptor. It is used to reverse the sedative effects caused by benzodiazepines, either partially or completely. Flumazenil works by competitively interacting with benzodiazepine receptors, which can reverse the binding of benzodiazepines to these receptors. It is administered intravenously and has a short half-life of about 60 minutes. The effects of flumazenil are usually shorter than those of benzodiazepines, and sedation may recur. Flumazenil also blocks non-benzodiazepine-agonists like zopiclone. However, it has no effect on other drugs such as barbiturates, ethanol, of other GABA-mimetic agents unless they act on the benzodiazepine receptor site. The hypnosedative effects of benzodiazepines are rapidly blocked within 1-2 minutes after intravenous administration, and the duration of action ranges from 20 to 50 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works?

      Your Answer: Inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine are utilized to enhance central acetylcholine levels. Although they share this common mechanism of action, there are variations in how they function. Unlike galantamine, rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit butyrylcholinesterase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 65-year-old individual on lithium treatment experiences a fine tremor that is affecting...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old individual on lithium treatment experiences a fine tremor that is affecting their handwriting and causing embarrassment. Despite having normal lithium levels, what is the most effective solution to alleviate this issue?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Lithium-induced tremor is a prevalent issue that can be resolved by discontinuing the medication. Propranolol is the most effective treatment option based on available evidence, while levodopa and anticholinergic agents have not been shown to be effective.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - What is a regulator of glutamate receptors? ...

    Correct

    • What is a regulator of glutamate receptors?

      Your Answer: Acamprosate

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 50-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder presents with an acute...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder presents with an acute confusional state.

      Which one of the following drugs is most likely to precipitate lithium toxicity?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Plasma concentrations of lithium may be decreased by both sodium bicarbonate and aminophylline.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which antidepressant specifically targets the inhibition of noradrenaline reuptake and does not have...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant specifically targets the inhibition of noradrenaline reuptake and does not have significant affinity for 5-HT?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Reboxetine

      Explanation:

      Reboxetine, Atomoxetine, and Maprotiline are all important Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (NRIs) that specifically target noradrenaline.

      Antidepressants: Mechanism of Action

      Antidepressants are a class of drugs used to treat depression and other mood disorders. The mechanism of action of antidepressants varies depending on the specific drug. Here are some examples:

      Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant (NaSSa). It works by blocking certain receptors in the brain, including 5HT-1, 5HT-2, 5HT-3, and H1 receptors. It also acts as a presynaptic alpha 2 antagonist, which stimulates the release of noradrenaline and serotonin.

      Venlafaxine and duloxetine are both serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They work by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.

      Reboxetine is a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of noradrenaline, which increases its availability in the brain.

      Bupropion is a noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.

      Trazodone is a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI) and 5HT agonist. It works by increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain.

      St John’s Wort is a natural supplement that has been used to treat depression. It has a weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) effect and a weak SNRI effect.

      In summary, antidepressants work by increasing the availability of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, such as serotonin, noradrenaline, and dopamine. The specific mechanism of action varies depending on the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which receptor genes' promoter polymorphisms are strongly linked to weight gain caused by...

    Correct

    • Which receptor genes' promoter polymorphisms are strongly linked to weight gain caused by antipsychotic medications?

      Your Answer: 5-HT2C

      Explanation:

      Genome-wide association studies (GWAS) have demonstrated that individuals carrying specific variant alleles in the promoter region of the 5-HT2C receptor gene are less susceptible to significant weight gain when undergoing antipsychotic treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - What is the most frequently occurring side effect of rivastigmine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently occurring side effect of rivastigmine?

      Your Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 70 - What is a frequently observed side effect of carbamazepine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a frequently observed side effect of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      The use of carbamazepine often results in numerous side effects, with ataxia being a common occurrence.

      Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects

      Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.

      Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.

      In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 71 - In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone...

    Correct

    • In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone for 2 years, who develops worsening symptoms and is given an increased dose of 4 mg risperidone, what is the most likely cause of his current presentation of stiffness, fever, breathlessness, and sweating?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 72 - What substance is eliminated from the body through urine without undergoing any chemical...

    Correct

    • What substance is eliminated from the body through urine without undergoing any chemical changes?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 73 - What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication? ...

    Correct

    • What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, including by typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) categories of by chemical structure. Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic that works as a dopamine D2 partial agonist, a weak 5HT1a partial agonist, and a 5HT2a receptor antagonist. It has a lower risk of causing movement disorders than typical antipsychotics and can also lower prolactin levels.

      Typical antipsychotics, developed in the 1950s, block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain and can cause various side effects, including extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. They are not selective for any of the four dopamine pathways in the brain.

      In elderly patients with dementia, antipsychotics are associated with an increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack, as well as a small increased risk of mortality. Prescribing guidelines for the elderly can be found in the British National Formulary (BNF).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 74 - Can you provide an example of a drug interaction that affects the way...

    Correct

    • Can you provide an example of a drug interaction that affects the way a drug works in the body?

      Your Answer: Competition at a receptor

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 75 - Which of the following findings would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis of lithium toxicity in a man who has just started taking lithium and is reporting feeling unwell during a clinic visit?

      Your Answer: Fine tremor

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 76 - A 60-year-old male with a history of depression and anxiety is prescribed selegiline....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male with a history of depression and anxiety is prescribed selegiline. What is the mode of action of selegiline?

      Your Answer: Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibition

      Correct Answer: MAO-B inhibition

      Explanation:

      Selegiline is a monoamine-oxidase B inhibitor that increases dopamine levels and is used in combination with levodopa to treat Parkinson’s disease. While it has been tested for use in Parkinson’s dementia due to its presumed ability to boost dopamine and potential neuroprotective effects, the results have been modest at best. It is not effective as an antidepressant as it does not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 77 - Which of the options below is not an accepted method for treating depression?...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below is not an accepted method for treating depression?

      Your Answer: Zotepine

      Explanation:

      Zotepine, which has been utilized globally to manage schizophrenia, has been removed from the UK market due to its potential to trigger seizures.

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 78 - What is the truth about medication absorption in elderly individuals? ...

    Correct

    • What is the truth about medication absorption in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer: The first pass metabolism tends to be reduced

      Explanation:

      The circulation of blood to the organs of the abdominal gastrointestinal system, such as the stomach, liver, spleen, pancreas, small intestine, and large intestine, is referred to as the splanchnic circulation.

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 79 - Which receptor antagonism is most likely to result in Priapism? ...

    Correct

    • Which receptor antagonism is most likely to result in Priapism?

      Your Answer: Alpha 1

      Explanation:

      Priapism is a rare condition where the penis remains erect for more than four hours without any stimulation, and it can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic and antidepressant medications.

      Receptors and Side-Effects

      Histamine H1 Blockade:
      – Weight gain
      – Sedation

      Alpha 1 Blockade:
      – Orthostatic hypotension
      – Sedation
      – Sexual dysfunction
      – Priapism

      Muscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
      – Agitation
      – Delirium
      – Memory impairment
      – Confusion
      – Seizures

      Muscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
      – Dry mouth
      – Ataxia
      – Blurred vision
      – Narrow angle glaucoma
      – Constipation
      – Urinary retention
      – Tachycardia

      Each receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 80 - Which of the following adverse effects caused by antipsychotic medications is not influenced...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following adverse effects caused by antipsychotic medications is not influenced by dopaminergic receptors?

      Your Answer: Gynaecomastia

      Correct Answer: Ejaculatory failure

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 81 - You are asked to evaluate a woman on a general medical ward who...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a woman on a general medical ward who has been admitted for a chest infection. The medical team suspects that she may be experiencing depression and has initiated treatment. You notice that her QTc interval measures at 490 msec and are concerned about the medications she is taking. If she were to be prescribed any of the following medications, which one would be the most likely culprit for her prolonged QTc?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 82 - What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male patient who is taking sertraline and wishes to continue its use due to positive response to the medication?

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      The medication with the strongest evidence is sildenafil.

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 83 - Select the atypical antipsychotic with the shortest half-life. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the atypical antipsychotic with the shortest half-life.

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Due to its short half-life of 6 hours, quetiapine is administered twice daily in divided doses. However, a modified release version called Seroquel XL is available, which can be taken once daily.

      Antipsychotic Half-life and Time to Steady State

      Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Understanding the half-life and time to steady state of these medications is important for determining dosing and monitoring their effectiveness.

      Aripiprazole has a half-life of 75 hours and takes approximately 2 weeks to reach steady state. Olanzapine has a half-life of 30 hours and takes about 1 week to reach steady state. Risperidone has a half-life of 20 hours when taken orally and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Clozapine and Amisulpride both have a half-life of 12 hours and take 2-3 days to reach steady state. Ziprasidone has a shorter half-life of 7 hours and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Quetiapine has the shortest half-life of 6 hours and also takes 2-3 days to reach steady state.

      Knowing the half-life and time to steady state of antipsychotic medications can help healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosing and frequency of administration. It can also aid in monitoring the effectiveness of the medication and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 84 - What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for...

    Correct

    • What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for NMDA receptors?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 85 - What receptors does asenapine have low affinity for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What receptors does asenapine have low affinity for?

      Your Answer: D2

      Correct Answer: H1

      Explanation:

      Asenapine exhibits affinity towards D2, 5HT2A, 5HT2C, and α1/α2 adrenergic receptors, while having relatively low affinity for H1 and ACh receptors. This makes it a second generation antipsychotic that is approved for the treatment of moderate to severe manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder. Its low affinity for H1 receptors is believed to contribute to its metabolically-neutral profile.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 86 - All of the following contribute to the sleep enhancing properties of mirtazapine except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following contribute to the sleep enhancing properties of mirtazapine except:

      Your Answer: 5HT3 antagonist

      Correct Answer: Alpha 2 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine is known to enhance sleep through its effects on various receptors, including 5HT2, 5HT3, and H1, as well as alpha 1 antagonist. However, its alpha 2 antagonist may actually inhibit the release of norepinephrine and potentially diminish the sleep-enhancing effects of the drug at higher dosages. Therefore, doses of 30mg of less are typically used to treat insomnia. (Source: Foundations of Psychiatric Sleep Medicine, Cambridge University Press, 2011, p.224)

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 87 - What medication belongs to the class of SNRIs? ...

    Correct

    • What medication belongs to the class of SNRIs?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      Some significant SNRIs (Serotonin Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors) are Venlafaxine and Duloxetine.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 88 - What are the things that a person prescribed an MAOI should avoid? ...

    Correct

    • What are the things that a person prescribed an MAOI should avoid?

      Your Answer: Soy sauce

      Explanation:

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 89 - Which CYP450 enzyme is produced by the 2D6 gene? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which CYP450 enzyme is produced by the 2D6 gene?

      Your Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Debrisoquine hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is responsible for the metabolism of several antidepressants such as tricyclics, SSRIs, venlafaxine, and others. Poor metabolisers may experience more side effects from these medications, while ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher doses.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 90 - For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed? ...

    Correct

    • For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed?

      Your Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 91 - Which medication has been associated with the occurrence of extrapyramidal side effects? ...

    Correct

    • Which medication has been associated with the occurrence of extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      EPSEs have been linked to the use of fluoxetine, and all of the treatment options are utilized to address them.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Can you identify an antidepressant that also acts as a melatonin receptor agonist?...

    Correct

    • Can you identify an antidepressant that also acts as a melatonin receptor agonist?

      Your Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine is an antidepressant that targets 5HT2C, melatonin-1, and melatonin-2 receptors and is approved for treating major depression. Bupropion is not licensed as an antidepressant in the UK but is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. It has dopaminergic and noradrenergic effects but does not affect melatonin receptors. Escitalopram is an SSRI antidepressant that does not impact melatonin receptors. Melatonin, on the other hand, acts on melatonin receptors but is not an antidepressant; it is used to treat primary insomnia. Vortioxetine is a multimodal antidepressant that enhances serotonin and other neurotransmitter levels in the brain by targeting 5HT3, 7, 1A, and 1B receptors. It is not known to affect melatonin receptors and is not currently licensed for use in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine?

      Your Answer: Hypersalivation

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - What is a true statement about the QTc interval? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: The Bazett formula over corrects the QTc at heart rates > 100 bpm

      Explanation:

      To obtain an accurate measurement of the QT interval, it is recommended to measure it in lead II of leads V5-6. The Bazett formula may not provide accurate corrections for heart rates above 100 bpm of below 60 bpm, but it can be used to estimate the QT interval at a standard heart rate of 60 bpm through the corrected QT interval (QTc).

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which psychotropic medication is known to have a notable impact on the QTc...

    Correct

    • Which psychotropic medication is known to have a notable impact on the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Haloperidol causes a significant prolongation of the QTc interval, resulting in a ‘high effect’. This effect is observed even at normal doses, with a prolongation of more than 20 msec. In contrast, aripiprazole, Mirtazapine, and paliperidone do not affect the QTc interval. Additionally, most SSRIs do not have an impact on the QTc interval, except for citalopram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes? ...

    Correct

    • QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes?

      Your Answer: Hypomagnesaemia

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - What factor increases the risk of developing SIADH? ...

    Correct

    • What factor increases the risk of developing SIADH?

      Your Answer: Being female

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which drug was discovered by Nathan Kline and how is it utilized in...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug was discovered by Nathan Kline and how is it utilized in treating depression?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Correct Answer: Iproniazid

      Explanation:

      Initially used to treat tuberculosis, iproniazid was found to have a positive impact on patients’ moods. Kline’s publication provided the first evidence supporting its effectiveness in treating depression.

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for? ...

    Correct

    • What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for?

      Your Answer: RR interval

      Explanation:

      The Bazett formula adjusts the QT interval for heart rate by taking the square root of the R-R interval and dividing the QT interval by it.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds

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Psychopharmacology (80/100) 80%
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