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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old female presents to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female presents to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain. A pregnancy test and ultrasound confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring 32mm and associated with a foetal heartbeat. The patient has no past medical history of note. Her observations show:

      Respiratory rate of 15 breaths/min
      Pulse of 93 beats/min
      Temperature of 36.7ºC
      Blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations of 96% on room air

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Salpingotomy

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      If a foetal heartbeat is detected on ultrasound in the case of an ectopic pregnancy, surgical management is necessary, and the appropriate procedure is a salpingectomy. This is the recommended course of action for a patient with no significant medical history and both fallopian tubes. Expectant management is not suitable in this scenario, as the foetal heartbeat is visible on ultrasound. Medical management with methotrexate is also not an option due to the foetal heartbeat, and mifepristone is not used for ectopic pregnancies.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 47-year-old woman attends to discuss hormone replacement therapy (HRT) because she believes...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman attends to discuss hormone replacement therapy (HRT) because she believes she is experiencing symptoms of menopause.

      What is the PRIMARY MOTIVATION for starting HRT in a woman who is experiencing perimenopause?

      Your Answer: Reduce vasomotor symptoms

      Explanation:

      Benefits and Risks of Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is a treatment used to alleviate the symptoms of menopause, such as hot flushes, sweating, and palpitations. It has been proven effective in placebo-controlled randomized studies. HRT can also improve vaginal dryness, superficial dyspareunia, and urinary frequency and urgency. Long-term therapy is required to achieve these benefits, and symptoms may recur after stopping HRT.

      HRT is commonly prescribed to prevent osteoporosis, particularly if started within the first five years after menopause onset. Women with decreased bone mineral density and those with a history of osteoporotic fractures also benefit from HRT. However, protection may be lost after stopping the hormones. HRT can reduce the incidence of hip fractures by about one case per 1000 women aged <70 years and by about 8 cases per 1000 women aged 70–79 years. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study revealed an increased annual risk of heart attacks in women who took combined HRT compared to those who took estrogen only. HRT may also prevent and treat dementia and related disorders by enhancing cholinergic neurotransmission and preventing oxidative cell damage, neuronal atrophy, and glucocorticoid-induced neuronal damage. However, studies have failed to provide a consensus on this aspect due to issues of selection bias and extreme heterogeneity in study participants, treatments, cognitive function tests applied, and doses of HRT. In conclusion, HRT can provide relief for menopausal symptoms, improve vaginal health, prevent osteoporosis, and reduce the risk of heart attacks. However, it may increase the risk of dementia, particularly in women aged 65 years who take combination HRT and have relatively low cognitive function at the start of treatment. Therefore, the benefits and risks of HRT should be carefully considered before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for discussion about testing for chromosomal disorders. She has no significant medical history and is concerned about the potential risks to her and her baby. Upon investigation, her b-hCG levels are elevated, PAPP-A levels are decreased, and ultrasound reveals thickened nuchal translucency. The calculated chance of a chromosomal disorder is 1/100. What is the recommended next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Discuss advice regarding continuing the pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Offer non-invasive prenatal screening testing

      Explanation:

      Women with a higher chance of Down’s syndrome based on combined or quadruple tests are offered further screening or diagnostic tests. In this case, the patient’s chance is 1 in 100, making non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPT) the most appropriate option. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling (CVS) are less appropriate due to their invasive nature and higher risks.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea?

      Your Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      Bromocriptine is used to treat galactorrhoea, not to induce it.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. Galactorrhoea is a condition characterized by the production of breast milk in individuals who are not breastfeeding. It is important to distinguish the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism. Additionally, certain medications like metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, haloperidol, SSRIs, and opioids can also increase prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During her booking appointment, her blood pressure was 112/78 mmHg, but today it has increased to 146/94 mmHg. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the following results were obtained:
      Protein negative
      Leucocytes negative
      Blood negative

      What is the most suitable characterization of her situation?

      Your Answer: Moderate pre-eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Gestational hypertension

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this morning. She usually takes it at 9am, but it's now 12:30 pm. What guidance should the doctor provide?

      Your Answer: Take missed pill as soon as possible and advise condom use until pill taking re-established for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Progestogen Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill

      The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Nogeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:

      – If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
      – If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman experiences hypertension during the third trimester of her initial pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences hypertension during the third trimester of her initial pregnancy. Upon conducting a 24-hour urine collection, it is revealed that she has 0.5g protein. Which of the following complications is the least commonly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Correct Answer: Transverse myelitis

      Explanation:

      Transverse myelitis is not linked to pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 8 - An expectant mother visits the obstetrician's office with a complaint of a painful...

    Correct

    • An expectant mother visits the obstetrician's office with a complaint of a painful nipple and a white discharge from the nipple. It is suspected that she has a candidal infection. What advice and treatment should be provided?

      Your Answer: Continue breast feeding treat both the mother and baby simultaneously

      Explanation:

      It is essential to treat the candidal infection by administering miconazole cream to both the mother and child. The cream should be applied to the nipple after feeding and the infant’s oral mucosa. Breastfeeding should continue during the treatment period. Additionally, the mother should be educated on maintaining good hand hygiene after changing the baby’s nappy and sterilizing any objects that the baby puts in their mouth, such as dummies and teats. This information is provided by NICE CKS.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 9 - You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting...

    Incorrect

    • You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting a baby. She is a smoker and consumes 20 cigarettes per day. What is the primary risk factor linked to smoking while pregnant?

      Your Answer: Microcephaly

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of pre-term labour

      Explanation:

      Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, pre-term labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old girl visits her general practitioner with worries about never having experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her general practitioner with worries about never having experienced a menstrual period. Upon examination, she displays minimal pubic and axillary hair growth and underdeveloped breast tissue for her age. She has a normal height and weight and no significant medical history. A negative beta-HCG test prompts the GP to order blood tests, revealing high levels of FSH and LH. What is the probable cause of her amenorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Asherman syndrome

      Correct Answer: Gonadal dysgenesis

      Explanation:

      A young woman who has never had a menstrual period before and has underdeveloped secondary sexual characteristics presents with raised FSH and LH levels. The most likely cause of her primary amenorrhoea is gonadal dysgenesis, which can be seen in syndromes such as Turner’s syndrome. In this condition, the gonads are atypically developed and may be functionless, resulting in the absence of androgen production in response to FSH and LH. This leads to underdeveloped secondary sexual characteristics and primary amenorrhoea. Asherman syndrome, imperforate hymen, Kallmann syndrome, and pregnancy are incorrect answers.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman comes in for her 42-week antenatal check-up. It was...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman comes in for her 42-week antenatal check-up. It was previously agreed that she would be induced at 42 weeks if she did not go into labour naturally. She reports normal foetal movements and denies any recent illnesses. She has no relevant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the examination, her abdomen is soft with a palpable uterus and a fundal height of 40cm. What is the most crucial aspect to evaluate in this woman?

      Your Answer: Bishop score

      Explanation:

      Induction of Labour: Reasons, Methods, and Complications

      Induction of labour is a medical process that involves starting labour artificially. It is necessary in about 20% of pregnancies due to various reasons such as prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and rhesus incompatibility. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required, which takes into account cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates that the cervix is ripe and there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      There are several methods of induction of labour, including membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. Membrane sweeping involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua by rotating the examining finger against the wall of the uterus. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, unless there are specific clinical reasons for not using it. Uterine hyperstimulation is the main complication of induction of labour, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can cause fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. In rare cases, uterine rupture may occur, which requires removing the vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and tocolysis with terbutaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old female is 24 weeks pregnant and visits the midwife for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female is 24 weeks pregnant and visits the midwife for a check-up. The foetal heart rate is detected on the Doppler scan and growth rates are appropriate for the gestational age. The mother reports to the midwife that she has been experiencing faster breathing than usual in the recent weeks. The midwife reassures her that an increase in ventilation is a typical occurrence during pregnancy. What other physiological changes are considered normal during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: Red blood cell volume increases

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.

      If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 13 - A 31-year-old female patient, who is three weeks postpartum, presents with a breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient, who is three weeks postpartum, presents with a breast lump. On examination, there is a fluctuant mass around 4 cm in diameter at the left upper quadrant adjacent to the nipple. There is overlying skin erythema and the lump is tenderness to touch. She is currently breast feeding but has been finding it very painful.
      What is the most probable causative agent for this condition?

      Your Answer: Candida species

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of breast abscess in lactational women is Staphylococcus aureus, while Candida species is not a frequent culprit. On the other hand, Group B streptococcus and Klebsiella pneumoniae are responsible for breast abscess in non-lactating women.

      Breast Abscess: Causes and Management

      Breast abscess is a condition that commonly affects lactating women, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. The condition is characterized by the presence of a tender, fluctuant mass in the breast. To manage the condition, healthcare providers may opt for either incision and drainage or needle aspiration, typically using ultrasound. Antibiotics are also prescribed to help manage the infection.

      Breast abscess is a condition that can cause discomfort and pain in lactating women. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, a common bacterium that can infect the breast tissue. The condition is characterized by the presence of a tender, fluctuant mass in the breast. To manage the condition, healthcare providers may opt for either incision and drainage or needle aspiration, typically using ultrasound. Antibiotics are also prescribed to help manage the infection. Proper management of breast abscess is crucial to prevent complications and ensure a speedy recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her ex-partner four days ago. She is determined to prevent a pregnancy. The patient has a history of ectopic pregnancy four years ago, which led to a salpingectomy. She is currently on day 14 of a 28-day cycle. What is the best course of action among the available options?

      Your Answer: Insert an intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 15 - What is the primary mode of operation of Nexplanon (etonogestrel contraceptive implant)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mode of operation of Nexplanon (etonogestrel contraceptive implant)?

      Your Answer: Prevents implantation

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The primary way in which Nexplanon works is by preventing ovulation.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She is currently 36 weeks pregnant and experienced convulsions for approximately 1 minute following the fall. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and has been experiencing headaches and swollen feet for the past 48 hours. Upon assessment, her heart rate is 87 bpm and blood pressure is 179/115 mmHg. What is the next best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Oral labetalol and hydralazine

      Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In this case, the woman has been diagnosed with eclampsia due to her tonic-clonic seizure and her symptoms of pre-eclampsia for the past two days. The initial management should focus on preventing further seizures and providing neuroprotection to the fetus, followed by considering delivery. It is important to monitor both the mother and fetus for signs of hypermagnesaemia, such as hyperreflexia and respiratory depression, and to continuously monitor their cardiotocography. Emergency caesarean section is not the most appropriate initial management as the woman needs to be stabilized first, given her high risk of having further seizures. Intravenous anti-hypertensives should also be administered after magnesium sulphate to lower her blood pressure. Intravenous furosemide and monitoring cardiotocography are not recommended as furosemide does not lower blood pressure in eclampsia. Intramuscular steroids are not necessary in this case as the woman is 35 weeks pregnant, and fetal lungs should be fully developed by now. Steroids are also not the most important management at this stage, even if the woman was earlier in her pregnancy.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic for preconception counseling. She plans...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic for preconception counseling. She plans to conceive within the next 6 months. She has never been pregnant before and has a medical history of Type 1 diabetes mellitus and irritable bowel syndrome. She is currently taking insulin and has no known drug allergies. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no family history of neural tube defects, and her partner has no history of neural tube defects. What is the recommended folic acid dosage for her?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once a day from now to 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      If a woman has Type 1 diabetes mellitus, she is at a high risk of having a baby with neural tube defects. To prevent this, she should take 5mg of folic acid daily for three months before getting pregnant until the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. Any other dosage or duration of the regime would be incorrect for her.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old woman is contemplating hormone replacement therapy but is concerned about the...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman is contemplating hormone replacement therapy but is concerned about the potential risk of developing breast cancer. She began menstruating at the age of 11 and experienced premature menopause at 45. She has three children, all of whom she breastfed, and has never used oral contraceptives. Apart from hormone replacement therapy, which of the following factors is most strongly linked to an elevated risk of breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Early menarche

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer risk is increased by HRT, early menarche, late menopause, and COCP, while it is reduced by multiple pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Breast Cancer Risk Factors: Understanding the Predisposing Factors

      Breast cancer is a complex disease that can be influenced by various factors. Some of these factors are considered predisposing factors, which means they increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. One of the most well-known predisposing factors is the presence of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which can increase a person’s lifetime risk of breast and ovarian cancer by 40%. Other predisposing factors include having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer, nulliparity, having a first pregnancy after the age of 30, early menarche, late menopause, combined hormone replacement therapy, combined oral contraceptive use, past breast cancer, not breastfeeding, ionizing radiation, p53 gene mutations, obesity, and previous surgery for benign disease.

      To reduce the risk of developing breast cancer, it is important to understand these predisposing factors and take steps to minimize their impact. For example, women with a family history of breast cancer may choose to undergo genetic testing to determine if they carry the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes. Women who have not yet had children may consider having their first child before the age of 30, while those who have already had children may choose to breastfeed. Additionally, women who are considering hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives should discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider. By understanding these predisposing factors and taking proactive steps to reduce their impact, women can help protect themselves against breast cancer.

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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She had been using...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She had been using the combined pill for contraception before her diagnosis. Now, she wants to switch to a different method of contraception before starting chemotherapy. What would be the most suitable option?

      Your Answer: Depo-Provera (injectable progestogen)

      Correct Answer: Copper Intrauterine Device

      Explanation:

      The copper intrauterine device is the recommended form of contraception for individuals with breast cancer. Hormonal forms of contraception are not recommended and are rated as a Category 4 risk, which is deemed unacceptable for the patient’s health.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of right-sided abdominal discomfort during...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of right-sided abdominal discomfort during sexual intercourse, specifically during deep penetration, which has been ongoing for a month. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is scheduled, and it reveals a 5cm ovarian cyst filled with fluid and having regular borders. What type of ovarian cyst is most probable?

      Your Answer: Endometrioma

      Correct Answer: Follicular cyst

      Explanation:

      The most frequent type of ovarian cyst is the follicular cyst, which is often a physiological cyst in young women. A simple cyst in a young woman is likely to be a follicular cyst. The endometrioma is typically filled with old blood, earning it the nickname chocolate cyst. The dermoid cyst contains dermoid tissue, while the corpus luteum cyst is also a physiological cyst but is less common than follicular cysts.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

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  • Question 21 - A 26 year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP...

    Correct

    • A 26 year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP with a blood pressure reading of 170/110 mmHg. She is feeling well otherwise and is currently taking 250 mg labetalol. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Fetal monitoring is normal. Her blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 135 g/l, platelet count of 280 * 109/l, white blood cell count of 6.0 * 109/l, sodium level of 142 mmol/l, potassium level of 4.0 mmol/l, urea level of 2.8 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 24 µmol/l. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as an emergency

      Explanation:

      Despite the absence of symptoms, the patient’s blood pressure remains elevated at a level exceeding 160/100 mmHg, and there is also significant proteinuria, despite receiving labetalol treatment. As a result, emergency admission is necessary to monitor and manage the hypertension in a controlled setting. If there is no improvement, delivery may be considered as an option.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old primip nurse has presented to you 5 days after being in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primip nurse has presented to you 5 days after being in contact with a child who had a vesicular rash on their face and chest. She is currently 14 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing some morning sickness, but otherwise feels fine. Her blood tests show that she is not immune to varicella zoster virus. What should be the next course of action in your management plan?

      Your Answer: IV Aciclovir

      Correct Answer: A single dose of varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZI)

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman is not immune to the varicella zoster virus and has been in close contact with someone who has the virus, it is recommended that she receive varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible. VZIG can be effective up to 10 days after contact, or 10 days after the appearance of the rash in the person with the virus if there are continuous exposures.
      For pregnant women who are not immune and have been exposed to chickenpox, they should be considered potentially infectious from 8-28 days after exposure if they receive VZIG, and from 8-21 days after exposure if they do not receive VZIG.
      Source: RCOG

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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  • Question 23 - A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected symphysis-fundal height?

      Your Answer: 22 - 26 cm

      Explanation:

      The symphysis-fundal height in centimeters after 20 weeks of gestation is equal to the number of weeks of gestation.

      The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.

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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. According to RCOG guidelines, what are the diagnostic criteria for hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss AND dehydration AND electrolyte imbalance

      Explanation:

      Weight loss before pregnancy
      Lack of proper hydration
      Disruption in electrolyte balance

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 25 - A young lady requests for the 'morning after pill'. Within what timeframe after...

    Correct

    • A young lady requests for the 'morning after pill'. Within what timeframe after sexual intercourse is levonorgestrel approved for use?

      Your Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). Administration of a single dose of levonorgestrel after this time is not licensed but may be considered.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with vaginal bleeding and is seen in the early pregnancy assessment unit. The ultrasound scan confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy, but the high vaginal swab has isolated group B streptococcus (GBS). What is the appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: No treatment required now, no intrapartum antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin only

      Explanation:

      GBS is a type of bacteria commonly found in the vagina of many women. While it is generally harmless, it can cause serious infections in newborns, leading to significant health problems and even death.

      If GBS is detected during pregnancy, it does not require immediate treatment as it will not reduce the likelihood of transmission to the baby during delivery. However, intravenous benzylpenicillin or clindamycin is necessary during labor to reduce the risk of transmission. This applies to GBS found in vaginal swabs and urine, and appropriate antibiotics are required for GBS urinary tract infections during pregnancy.

      There is currently no screening program for GBS in the UK, and vaginal swabs should only be taken when clinically necessary. Women who have had a previous baby infected with GBS are offered intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin in future pregnancies.

      (Source – RCOG guidelines, GBS in pregnancy).

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman contacts the clinic to discuss her cervical screening outcome. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman contacts the clinic to discuss her cervical screening outcome. She had a positive result for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) during her last screening 18 months ago, but her cytology was normal. This time, her cytology is normal again, but she has tested positive for hrHPV once more. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer to colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat in 12 months

      Explanation:

      Cervical cancer screening now includes testing all samples for hrHPV. If the result is positive, cytology is performed. If the cytology is normal, the test is repeated after 12 months.

      Upon repeat testing, if the result is now negative for hrHPV, the patient can resume normal recall. However, if the result is still positive for hrHPV and the cytology is normal, another repeat test should be done after 12 months. This applies to the patient in the given scenario.

      If the second repeat test at 24 months is negative for hrHPV, the patient can return to normal recall. However, if the result is positive for hrHPV, they should be referred for colposcopy.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 28 - A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise,...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:

      Hb 85 g/l
      WBC 6 * 109/l
      Platelets 89 * 109/l
      Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
      ALP 215 u/l
      ALT 260 u/l
      γGT 72 u/l
      LDH 846 u/I

      A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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  • Question 29 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during her routine booking visit bloods. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: IM benzathine penicillin G

      Explanation:

      Management of Syphilis

      Syphilis can be effectively managed with intramuscular benzathine penicillin as the first-line treatment. In cases where penicillin cannot be used, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, nontreponemal titres such as rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) should be monitored to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.

      It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This reaction is characterized by fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. The reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. However, no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required.

      In summary, the management of syphilis involves the use of intramuscular benzathine penicillin or doxycycline as an alternative. Nontreponemal titres should be monitored after treatment, and the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur but does not require treatment unless symptomatic.

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  • Question 30 - You see a 29-year-old woman who has recently become pregnant. She has well-controlled...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 29-year-old woman who has recently become pregnant. She has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health. At what gestational age should the following be initiated?

      Your Answer: Ferrous fumarate

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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