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  • Question 1 - Your next patient is a 50-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis who suffers from...

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient is a 50-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis who suffers from severe spasticity that has failed to respond to conventional treatment.

      Of which of the following would NICE support a trial?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Correct Answer: Cannabis based product

      Explanation:

      Patients with intractable spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis may undergo a trial of THC:CBD spray, a medicinal product derived from cannabis. CKS suggests a 4 week trial for those with moderate to severe spasticity who have not found relief from other treatments, under the supervision of a specialist. Other treatments are not recommended.

      Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.

      Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.

      It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.

      Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old boy presents with swelling under his arm. He was well until...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents with swelling under his arm. He was well until six days before, when he developed mild fever and malaise. Immunisations are up-to-date. No family history of note. The family have a pet kitten and there were visible scratches on his arm.

      On examination the temperature is 37.8°C. He has a 2.5 cm smooth enlargement of a node in the right axilla. This is slightly red but not fluctuant. Otherwise there are no abnormalities to find.

      What is the single most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: One week course of azithromycin

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin and incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      Cat-Scratch Disease: A Brief Overview

      The patient’s medical history suggests subacute regional gland enlargement due to inflammation. This is a common symptom of cat-scratch disease, which is caused by the bacteria Bartonella henselae. The incubation period for this disease is typically 3-30 days, and small erythematous lesions may be found along the scratch marks. After 1-4 weeks, regional adenopathy develops.

      In most cases, patients who are not immunocompromised do not require specific antibiotic treatment for cat-scratch disease. However, those with severe symptoms or compromised immune systems may benefit from treatment with either azithromycin or ciprofloxacin. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications from this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A worried father brings his 14 month old child into the clinic, concerned...

    Correct

    • A worried father brings his 14 month old child into the clinic, concerned that he is not walking. He says that many other children his age in his playgroup are already walking but his child is still crawling.

      At what age would you consider referring a child who is not yet walking?

      Your Answer: 18 months

      Explanation:

      Further assessment should be sought if a child is unable to walk without support by the age of 18 months.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor developmental milestones refer to the physical abilities that a child acquires as they grow and develop. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s overall development and can help parents and healthcare professionals identify any potential delays or concerns. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.

      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a sitting position and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to crawl and pull themselves to a standing position. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. Finally, at 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. By monitoring a child’s gross motor developmental milestones, parents and healthcare professionals can ensure that they are meeting their developmental goals and identify any potential concerns early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A middle-aged couple attend clinic seeking advice on contraception. They are currently using...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple attend clinic seeking advice on contraception. They are currently using condoms.

      Which of the following topical agents would you recommend as safe to use with latex condoms?

      Your Answer: KY jelly

      Correct Answer: Dalacin cream

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Proper Condom Use

      The use of condoms is crucial in reducing the risk of venereal infections, especially in controlling the spread of HIV. However, occasional failures may occur due to defective sheaths, not wearing them in the earlier phases of coitus, or slipping from the penis after ejaculation. It is also important to note that spermicides should not be used with latex condoms as they do not offer additional contraceptive efficacy. Moreover, certain topical, vaginal, and rectal preparations can destroy the integrity of latex condoms, rendering them ineffective. For instance, baby oil can destroy 90% of a latex condom’s strength within 15 minutes. Therefore, it is essential to be aware of the potential interaction between latex condoms and certain topical preparations, such as dalacin and clotrimazole. Professor John Guillebaud’s book Contraception: Your Questions Answered provides a more exhaustive list of preparations that should be avoided and are regarded as unsafe to use with latex condoms. Proper condom use is crucial in protecting oneself and one’s partner from sexually transmitted infections and unwanted pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a malodorous vaginal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a malodorous vaginal discharge that is white in color. She reports no associated itch or dyspareunia. The healthcare provider suspects bacterial vaginosis. Which organism is most likely responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is a condition characterized by the excessive growth of mainly bacteria.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires a statin. His brother has encouraged him to book the appointment because ‘everyone in the family takes a statin’, due to familial hypercholesterolaemia. He has no significant medical history and rarely consults with a doctor. His total cholesterol is 8.2 mmol/l.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Carry out a QRisk2 score

      Correct Answer: Carry out blood tests for liver, renal and thyroid function, HbA1c and lipid panel

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia requires a thorough diagnostic and management approach. The first step is to carry out blood tests for liver, renal, and thyroid function, HbA1c, and lipid panel. Additionally, a full cardiovascular assessment and exclusion of secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia should be conducted before referral.

      QRisk2 scoring is not appropriate in suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia due to the high risk of premature heart disease associated with the condition. Atorvastatin 20 mg is a good choice for primary prevention, but further tests are necessary to establish its suitability for the patient. Atorvastatin 80 mg is often given as secondary prevention, but there is no evidence that this is necessary for the patient from the information provided.

      Referral to a lipid clinic in secondary care is imperative for patients with suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia. This condition should be suspected in adults with a total cholesterol >7.5mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of a cardiovascular event before the age of 60 years old. Basic blood tests will provide important diagnostic and management information, ruling out secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia and assessing the patient’s suitability for treatment with lipid-lowering drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old Caucasian smoker presents to you with a two month history of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old Caucasian smoker presents to you with a two month history of a cough. The cough is non-productive, but he has coughed up spots of blood on occasion. He has also lost 10 pounds in weight, which he attributes to a reduced appetite since his wife started a healthy eating regime at home.

      Upon examination, he has lost weight, but he is afebrile and appears to be in good health. His 4-year-old grandson whom he sees twice a week has recently been diagnosed with whooping cough, and he wonders if he could have whooping cough as well.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignancy

      Explanation:

      Managing a Patient Who is a Contact of an Infectious Disease

      When managing a patient who is a contact of an infectious disease, it is crucial to consider the full differential diagnosis and take an overview of the clinical picture. In this case, the patient presented with haemoptysis, which could be a symptom of various conditions.

      Bronchopneumonia is a possible cause, but it typically presents with fever and general malaise. Chronic bronchitis is unlikely to result in haemoptysis, and tuberculosis is not probable in a Caucasian man with no history of travel or contact with the disease. Pertussis is also not a likely cause of haemoptysis.

      The most probable diagnosis, which needs to be ruled out, is malignancy. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate testing should be conducted to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      461.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has been waking him up at night for the past ten days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 20 minutes and causing him to feel restless and agitated. He also experiences tearing from his left eye and nasal congestion. During attacks, he has noticed his left eyelid drooping. He recalls having similar symptoms for a few weeks last year, but they went away on their own and he did not seek medical attention. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. He has been a smoker for most of his life.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Migraine, Paroxysmal Hemicrania, Temporal Arteritis, and Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Cluster headache is a type of headache disorder that commonly affects middle-aged men in clusters lasting weeks to months. Verapamil and prednisolone are used for prophylaxis, while sumatriptan and oxygen are the main treatments for the acute attack. Migraine lacks the specific features of cluster headache and tends to have bilateral autonomic symptoms. Paroxysmal hemicrania is another type of trigeminal autonomic cephalgia that occurs multiple times throughout the day but for shorter periods and is more frequently seen in women. It responds to indomethacin and is often used as a diagnostic aid. Temporal arteritis is unusual in this age group and is usually throbbing and continuous with focal tenderness on direct palpation. Trigeminal neuralgia is sometimes mistaken for cluster headache, but the attacks are much shorter and autonomic activation is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      80.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his ankles and fluid-filled blisters around his feet that burst easily. He has a history of Crohn's disease that has been bothering him for a long time. Upon examination, he appears normal except for a urinalysis that shows 2+ protein. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Pemphigus

      Correct Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions Associated with Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can lead to various medical conditions. One of these conditions is amyloidosis, which occurs when extracellular protein deposits disrupt normal organ function. This can result in nephrotic syndrome, characterized by protein in the urine and edema. While cardiac disease is uncommon in Crohn’s disease, it can occur and may present as congestive heart failure. Cirrhosis of the liver is also a potential complication, particularly in cases of primary sclerosing cholangitis. However, there is no indication of liver failure in the presented case. Nephritic syndrome, which involves protein and blood in the urine, is not the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. While cutaneous manifestations such as blisters can occur in Crohn’s disease, pemphigus is a rare association and is not the likely cause of the patient’s edema and proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of diarrhoea for the past eight...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of diarrhoea for the past eight weeks and fresh rectal bleeding for the past few weeks. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and frequently experiences bloating, which has worsened in recent weeks. She started a new job two months ago, which has been stressful. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness but no other abnormal signs.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer for an urgent outpatient appointment

      Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN ointment and review in a month

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Rectal Bleeding and Diarrhoea

      This woman is experiencing persistent diarrhoea and rectal bleeding, which cannot be attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. According to NICE guidelines, she requires urgent referral for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This is because she is under 50 years of age and has rectal bleeding with unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anaemia.

      Prescribing GTN ointment or loperamide would not be appropriate in this case as they would only delay diagnosis and not address the underlying issue. Carcinoembryonic antigen testing is useful for assessing prognosis and monitoring treatment in colorectal cancer patients, but it should only be ordered after malignancy has been confirmed. Similarly, TTG testing for coeliac disease is good practice for patients with IBS-like symptoms, but it would not be appropriate in the presence of rectal bleeding of unknown origin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      152.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his testicles. He reports a soft sensation on the top of his left testicle but denies any pain or issues with urination or erections. The GP orders an ultrasound, and the results show a mild varicocele on the left side with no other abnormalities detected in the right testis. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic repair of the varicocoele

      Correct Answer: Reassure and observe

      Explanation:

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and iron-deficiency anaemia after complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and iron-deficiency anaemia after complaining of feeling very tired. She was started on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate and has been taking these for the last six months. Three months ago her blood tests showed:

      Haemoglobin 120 g/L (115-160 g/L)
      Ferritin 60 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
      Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 6.9 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)

      She was continued on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate tablets for a further 3 months. Her blood tests were repeated today which show:

      Haemoglobin 130 g/L (115-160 g/L)
      Ferritin 110 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
      TSH 7 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)

      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose of levothyroxine

      Correct Answer: Stop the iron supplementation and continue levothyroxine at the current dose

      Explanation:

      To avoid reducing the absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be given four hours apart. The patient’s blood results indicate that her iron levels have been replenished and her blood count is now normal, but her thyroid-stimulating hormone level remains elevated. According to NICE guidelines, iron treatment should be continued for three more months after normalizing haemoglobin concentrations and blood counts before being discontinued. Since the patient’s iron levels are now normal, continuing ferrous sulphate is unnecessary and may hinder the absorption of levothyroxine. Therefore, it is advisable to discontinue iron and observe if her thyroid hormone levels normalize before adjusting her levothyroxine dosage.

      If a patient with hypothyroidism has a structural change in the thyroid gland or is suspected of having an underlying endocrine disease such as Addison’s disease, they should be referred to endocrinology. However, this patient doesn’t appear to have any of these conditions, but it is essential to conduct a neck examination to ensure that there are no palpable masses.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      92.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you due to ongoing problems with reflux.

      The baby has been seen in paediatric outpatients and was started on ranitidine. You can see from the clinic letters that this was started at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg three times a day but to achieve symptom control it has been titrated to 3 mg/kg TDS. The higher dose seems to be controlling symptoms well.

      The paediatricians have asked you to continue to prescribe the ranitidine at a dose of 3 mg/kg until they review the child again in four weeks time.

      You weigh the child today and the current weight is 6 kg. Ranitidine oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 1 ml TDS

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Ranitidine Dose for a 5 kg Child

      When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on their weight. In this case, the child weighs 5 kg and the prescribed dose of ranitidine is 3 mg/kg TDS. To calculate the correct dose, we multiply the child’s weight by the prescribed dose: 5 x 3 = 15 mg TDS.

      The oral solution of ranitidine is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. This means that there is 15 mg of ranitidine in 1 ml of the solution. Therefore, the correct dose for the child is 1 ml TDS.

      It is important to ensure that the correct dosage is administered to avoid any potential adverse effects or ineffective treatment. By following the appropriate calculations and using the correct concentration of medication, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A surgery hires a Nurse Practitioner (NP) to care for a nearby nursing...

    Incorrect

    • A surgery hires a Nurse Practitioner (NP) to care for a nearby nursing home. The GPs only visit when requested by the NPs. An 87-year-old woman with dementia contracts a chest infection. Following discussions with her family, the NP decides to treat her with oral antibiotics but not to admit her. She passes away two days later, and a GP from the local out-of-hours service confirms her death. The woman's last GP visit was five weeks ago. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Patients registered GP completes a death certificate, 1a 'Bronchopneumonia'

      Correct Answer: Report the death to the Coroner

      Explanation:

      As the patient was not examined by a physician during the final 28 days of their illness, it is necessary to report their death.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - As per the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following tests should not...

    Incorrect

    • As per the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following tests should not be routinely offered to women during the initial antenatal care visit?

      Your Answer: Screening for haemoglobinopathies

      Correct Answer: Blood glucose

      Explanation:

      NICE has made a surprising decision to no longer recommend routine glucose testing during antenatal care. Instead, they suggest that only individuals who are considered at risk, such as those with a history of obesity, previous macrosomic baby, family history, or Asian ethnicity, should have their blood glucose levels checked.

      Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.

      The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.

      At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.

      At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

    He has a mild early...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

      He has a mild early Alzheimer's dementia and type 2 diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin 500 mg tds. On examination, he has sats of 96% on air, has a pulse of 90 bpm, blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg, a temperature of 37.6°C and a respiration rate of 32/min. There is no neck stiffness nor abnormal neurology.

      Chest examination reveals bibasal crackles and decreased breath sounds in the left lung base.

      Blood samples were taken that morning and a call to the lab reveals the following:

      Haemoglobin 129 g/L (115-165)
      White cell count 16.6 ×109/L (4-11)
      93% neutrophils -
      5% band forms -
      2% lymphocytes -
      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Scoring Systems for Decision Making in Pneumonia Treatment

      When it comes to deciding whether to treat or admit a patient with pneumonia, scoring systems can be helpful. The CURB-65 severity score and the CRB-65 score are two commonly used systems. The CRB-65 score is recommended for use in primary care and assigns one point for each of confusion, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg (or diastolic below 60 mmHg), and age 65 years or older. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk of death and do not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 1 or 2 are at increased risk and should be considered for referral and assessment. Patients with a score of 3 or more are at high risk and require urgent hospital admission. The CURB-65 score is used for patients with a score of 2 or more to be admitted, while those with a score of 0-1 may be admitted if there are other issues. While an experienced GP may admit a patient regardless of the score, understanding these systems is important for medical exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      49
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman came to see your colleague two weeks ago with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman came to see your colleague two weeks ago with a five day history of pain, redness and swelling of her left breast. She was given seven days of flucloxacillin. She has returned and it is no better; if anything it is slightly worse.

      There is no discharge. She stopped Breastfeeding her last child eight months ago. She is otherwise very well. Her mother had breast cancer in her 60s and her maternal aunt had bowel cancer in her 70s.

      On examination about half of the breast is erythematous, and the affected breast seems larger than the other side. There is no discrete mass to feel but the whole of the swollen area is indurated. She has a palpable axillary lymph node on that side. Her pulse is 80 bpm and her temperature is 36.2°C.

      Which of these options would you select?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with anti-inflammatories and refer urgently to breast clinic

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Inflammatory Breast Cancer

      Most GPs and patients are familiar with the presentation of a breast lump, but inflammatory breast cancer can present in a more unusual way, making a swift diagnosis difficult. However, simply considering the possibility of this rare form of breast cancer can help pick out relevant information in the patient’s history and examination. Inflammatory breast cancer is not common, accounting for only 1-4% of all breast cancers, which can lead to delayed diagnosis in primary care. Patients with a personal or family history of breast cancer, symptoms of non-lactational mastitis that do not respond to antibiotics, palpable lymphadenopathy, involvement of more than 1/3 of the breast, and an absence of fever should be considered at high risk for inflammatory breast cancer.

      It is important for GPs to ask about family history of breast cancer and check and record temperature when seeing patients with mastitis. Blindly prescribing another course of antibiotics, especially when the patient doesn’t have a fever or symptoms of infection, may delay diagnosis. Suggesting milk expression would be reasonable for lactational mastitis, but not for a patient who stopped breastfeeding six months ago. Attempting to aspirate would not be advisable for a generalist in a primary care setting, even if an abscess were suspected. Referring the patient to the Emergency department for assessment by a breast surgeon would be a wiser strategy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 18 - A 6-week-old girl has had vomiting that has been increasing in frequency over...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old girl has had vomiting that has been increasing in frequency over several days. Now when she vomits, the gastric contents are ejected with great force. She is ravenously hungry after each vomit. She is otherwise well but has started to lose weight.
      Which is the SINGLE MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vomiting in Infants: Symptoms and Descriptions

      Projectile vomiting is a common symptom in infants, but it can be caused by various conditions. One of the most common causes is infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which is characterized by forceful vomiting after feeding. This condition is caused by the narrowing of the pyloric canal due to the hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the smooth muscle of the antrum of the stomach and pylorus. It usually occurs in infants aged 2-8 weeks and can be treated by pyloromyotomy.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is another cause of vomiting in infants, which is characterized by non-forceful regurgitation of milk due to the functional immaturity of the lower oesophageal sphincter. This condition is most common in the first weeks of life and usually resolves by 12-18 months.

      Duodenal atresia is a condition that causes hydramnios during pregnancy and intestinal obstruction in the newborn. About 30% of cases have Down syndrome and 30% have cardiovascular abnormalities.

      Gastroenteritis is an acute illness that can cause vomiting and loose stools. However, the vomiting is not usually projectile, and the baby would not appear hungry straight after vomiting. These are typical symptoms of pyloric stenosis in this age group.

      Lactose intolerance is a condition that develops in people with low lactase levels. Symptoms include bloating, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and flatulence. Although babies and children can be affected, primary lactose intolerance most commonly appears between 20 and 40 years.

      Understanding the Causes of Vomiting in Infants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.

      What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.

      If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin which disappears when he is recumbent. It is accompanied by some discomfort. He has a chronic cough due to smoking and has had an appendicectomy previously. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernia is the most probable reason for a lump in the right groin of a patient in this age group. This type of hernia occurs when a part of the intestine protrudes through the external inguinal ring. It may go unnoticed for a while, cause discomfort or pain, and resolve when lying flat. Femoral hernias are more common in females, while an epigastric hernia or an incisional hernia following appendicectomy would be unlikely in this anatomical site.

      This patient’s persistent cough due to smoking puts him at a higher risk of developing hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast....

    Incorrect

    • Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast. She has been breastfeeding her newborn daughter for the past four weeks. During her visit to the GP, the doctor notes the inflammation and a temperature of 38.2ºC. The GP diagnoses mastitis and prescribes medication while encouraging Jane to continue breastfeeding.

      Which organism is most commonly responsible for causing mastitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mastitis: Symptoms, Management, and Risks

      Mastitis is a condition that occurs when the breast tissue becomes inflamed, and it is commonly associated with breastfeeding. It affects approximately 1 in 10 women and is characterized by symptoms such as a painful, tender, and red hot breast, as well as fever and general malaise.

      The first-line management of mastitis is to continue breastfeeding, and simple measures such as analgesia and warm compresses can also be helpful. However, if a woman is systemically unwell, has a nipple fissure, or if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal, treatment with antibiotics may be necessary. The most common organism causing infective mastitis is Staphylococcus aureus, and the first-line antibiotic is oral flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. It is important to note that breastfeeding or expressing should continue during antibiotic treatment.

      If left untreated, mastitis can lead to the development of a breast abscess, which may require incision and drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen. By understanding the symptoms, management, and risks associated with mastitis, women can take proactive steps to address this condition and ensure their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old woman, who is receiving endocrine therapy for advanced breast cancer, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman, who is receiving endocrine therapy for advanced breast cancer, presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue. Clinical examination reveals no additional information. Sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium and glucose levels, renal function, C-reactive protein, albumin levels and liver and thyroid function are all normal. A full blood count is also normal. She denies depression or any problem with sleep.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate prescription?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribing is not indicated

      Explanation:

      Managing Fatigue in Advanced Chronic Illness: Non-Pharmacological Interventions Recommended

      Fatigue is a common symptom in advanced chronic illness, but it is often under-recognised by healthcare professionals. While potentially reversible factors should be treated, the cause of fatigue may remain poorly understood. Non-pharmacological interventions such as pacing activities, graded exercise, stress/anxiety management, and sleep hygiene advice may help reduce the impact of fatigue on daily life. Vitamin supplements are not recommended unless there is a proven deficiency, and dexamfetamine and fluoxetine are not indicated for treating fatigue in this context. Methylphenidate may be an option under specialist supervision, but non-pharmacological interventions should be tried first. Overall, managing fatigue in advanced chronic illness requires awareness, acknowledgement, and a focus on non-pharmacological interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 23 - At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 67-year-old man who has no significant medical history of note other than gout

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine is only necessary for asthmatics who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system. Having multiple sclerosis doesn’t warrant the pneumococcal vaccine. The 67-year-old man is eligible for the vaccine based on his age, not his medical background.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 24 - A 47-year-old Jewish woman visited her GP for breast cancer screening. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old Jewish woman visited her GP for breast cancer screening. She had no symptoms, and her breast examination was normal. She mentioned that her maternal aunt was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 43. What would be the best course of action for further investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care for early screening

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a family history of Jewish ancestry and breast cancer, they should be referred to secondary care. This is one of the criteria that require early referral, as listed below. However, the current presentation doesn’t require an urgent referral. Although the NHS Screening programme is being extended to begin at 47, this patient has valid reasons to be referred earlier.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks ago her husband died from pancreatic cancer. She reports being tearful every day but her son is concerned because she is constantly 'picking fights' with him over minor matters and issues relating to their family past. The son also reports that she has on occasion described hearing her husband talking to her and on one occasion she set a place for him at the dinner table.

      Despite this she has started going to yoga classes again with friends and says that she is determined to get 'back on track'.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief Reactions

      Grief is a natural response to the loss of a loved one, but it can be helpful to have an understanding of the potential stages a person may go through while grieving. One popular model divides grief into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. However, not everyone will experience all five stages.

      Abnormal or atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women and when the death is sudden or unexpected. Other risk factors include a problematic relationship before death or a lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving doesn’t begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which can last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

      It is important to note that grief doesn’t necessarily need to be medicalized, but understanding the potential stages and risk factors can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal grief reaction or if they may need additional support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman receives a Levonorgestrel-intrauterine system for birth control on the 6th...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman receives a Levonorgestrel-intrauterine system for birth control on the 6th day of her menstrual cycle. How many more days of contraception does she need?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      No additional contraception is needed if an LNG-IUS or Levonorgestrel-IUS is inserted on day 1-7 of the cycle. However, if it is inserted outside this timeframe, 7 days of additional contraception is required. Since the patient is currently on day 6 of her cycle, there is no need for extra precautions.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 27 - You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift....

    Incorrect

    • You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift. She has become very sick quite suddenly, with a high fever, sore throat, and difficulty breathing.

      When you examine her, she is sitting upright with her mouth open, and you observe that saliva is drooling down her chin. She has a soft stridor audible at rest.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute tonsillitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Stridor

      A sudden onset of stridor without any warning signs such as cough and runny nose may indicate epiglottitis. Symptoms to look out for include respiratory distress, cyanosis, agitation, and drooling. However, there are other causes of acute stridor such as croup, bacterial tracheitis, subglottic stenosis, foreign body inhalation, and retropharyngeal abscess. Smoke inhalation, diphtheria, and angioneurotic edema can also lead to stridor. In all cases, it is important to administer oxygen to maintain adequate saturation. Severe cases may require ventilation. Enlarged adenoids and tonsils can also cause snoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 28 - In your practice area there is sheltered accommodation for a small number of...

    Incorrect

    • In your practice area there is sheltered accommodation for a small number of young adults with general learning disability.
      Which of the following is the correct statement concerning general learning disability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expressive language skills may be better than receptive skills

      Explanation:

      Understanding General Learning Disability: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      General learning disability is a condition characterized by incomplete or arrested development of the mind, which is evident from childhood. This term is now recommended in the United Kingdom to replace outdated terms such as mental handicap and mental retardation. The majority of patients have mild learning disability, with an Intelligence Quotient (IQ) of 50-70. The causes of this condition are varied, including genetic, metabolic, and events during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postnatal period. Patients with general learning disability often have associated physical, psychological, and behavioral problems.

      Psychotropic drugs are commonly used to manage behavioral problems, but they are rarely beneficial. Before resorting to medication, doctors should first check for any sources of discomfort, such as earache or toothache. When communicating with patients, it is important to address them directly and obtain as much history as possible from them. However, doctors should also be aware that there may be incongruence between receptive and expressive verbal skills, and patients may not fully understand the questions being asked.

      Most adults with general learning disability have limited economic opportunities. It is important to understand this condition and provide appropriate support and management to improve the quality of life for patients and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 29 - Oliver has just turned one year old and his parents are curious about...

    Incorrect

    • Oliver has just turned one year old and his parents are curious about the meningitis C vaccine schedule. They want to know at what age the vaccine is now given to children in the UK. Can you provide them with the correct times for administering the meningitis C vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aged 1 year & 14 years

      Explanation:

      As of July 1st, 2016, the vaccination schedule underwent a change that eliminated the meningitis C vaccination at 12 weeks of age. Consequently, children will receive the meningitis C vaccine when they turn 1 year old and again at 14 years old.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old woman is discovered to have the subsequent blood tests:

    TSH 0.05 mu/l
    Free...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is discovered to have the subsequent blood tests:

      TSH 0.05 mu/l
      Free T4 19 pmol/l (range 9-25 pmol/l)
      Free T3 7 pmol/l (range 3-9 pmol/l)

      What are the potential outcomes if no treatment is given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraventricular arrhythmias and osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Subclinical Hyperthyroidism

      Subclinical hyperthyroidism is a condition that is becoming more recognized in the medical field. It is characterized by normal levels of free thyroxine and triiodothyronine, but with a thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) that falls below the normal range, usually less than 0.1 mu/l. The condition is often caused by a multinodular goitre, particularly in elderly females, or excessive thyroxine intake.

      It is important to recognize subclinical hyperthyroidism because it can have negative effects on the cardiovascular system, such as atrial fibrillation, and on bone metabolism, leading to osteoporosis. It can also impact quality of life and increase the likelihood of dementia.

      Management of subclinical hyperthyroidism involves monitoring TSH levels, as they may revert to normal on their own. If levels remain persistently low, a therapeutic trial of low-dose antithyroid agents for approximately six months may be recommended to induce remission. It is important to address subclinical hyperthyroidism to prevent potential complications and improve overall health.

      Overall, understanding subclinical hyperthyroidism and its potential effects is crucial for proper management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (2/3) 67%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Passmed