-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of left knee pain and swelling. He has difficulty bearing weight on the left leg and reports no recent trauma, fevers, or chills. The patient has also been experiencing constipation, excessive urination, and fatigue for several months. He has a history of passing a kidney stone with hydration. He does not take prescription medications or use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
During examination, the patient's temperature is 37.2 ºC (98.9ºF) and blood pressure is 130/76 mmHg. The right knee is tender, erythematous, and swollen. Arthrocentesis reveals a white blood cell count of 30,000/mm3, with a predominance of neutrophils and numerous rhomboid-shaped crystals.
What substance is most likely the composition of the crystals?Your Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate
Explanation:The patient is experiencing acute inflammatory arthritis, which is likely caused by pseudogout. This condition occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovial fluid, and it is often associated with chronic hypercalcemia resulting from primary hyperparathyroidism. Pseudogout typically affects the knee joint, and the presence of rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the synovial fluid is diagnostic. Calcium hydroxyapatite crystals are typically found in tendons, while calcium oxalate is the most common component of renal calculi. Xanthomas refer to the deposition of cholesterol and other lipids in soft tissues, while gout is characterized by the deposition of monosodium urate in joints and soft tissues.
Understanding Pseudogout
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.
The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.
Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
What is the most frequent reason for osteolytic bone metastasis in adolescents?
Your Answer: Leukaemia
Correct Answer: Neuroblastoma
Explanation:Neuroblastomas are a childhood tumour that frequently metastasizes widely and causes lytic lesions.
Secondary Malignant Tumours of Bone: Risk of Fracture and Treatment Options
Metastatic lesions affecting bone are more common than primary bone tumours, with typical tumours that spread to bone including breast, bronchus, renal, thyroid, and prostate. These tumours are more likely to affect those over the age of 50, with the commonest bone sites affected being the vertebrae, proximal femur, ribs, sternum, pelvis, and skull. The greatest risk for pathological fracture is osteolytic lesions, and bones with lesions that occupy 50% or less are prone to fracture under loading. The Mirel scoring system is used to determine the risk of fracture, with a score of 9 or greater indicating an impending fracture and requiring prophylactic fixation. Non-operative treatments for hypercalcaemia include rehydration and bisphosphonates, while pain can be managed with opiate analgesics and radiotherapy. Some tumours, such as breast and prostate, may benefit from chemotherapy and/or hormonal agents. In cases where the lesion is an isolated metastatic deposit, excision and reconstruction may be considered for better outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 25-year-old male suffers a fracture in his left tibia during a sports activity. During which stage of the healing process is the fracture callus expected to be visible on radiographs?
Your Answer: 3 weeks
Explanation:The formation of fracture callus involves the production of fibroblasts and chondroblasts, which then synthesize fibrocartilage. This process can usually be observed on X-rays after a certain period of time.
Fracture Healing: Factors and Process
When a bone is fractured, bleeding vessels in the bone and periosteum cause clot and haematoma formation. Over a week, the clot organizes and improves in structure and collagen. Osteoblasts in the periosteum produce new bone, while mesenchymal cells produce cartilage in the soft tissue around the fracture. The connective tissue and hyaline cartilage form a callus, which is bridged by endochondral ossification as new bone approaches. Trabecular bone forms, which is then resorbed by osteoclasts and replaced with compact bone.
Several factors can affect fracture healing, including age, malnutrition, bone disorders like osteoporosis, systemic disorders like diabetes, and drugs like steroids and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. The type of bone, degree of trauma, vascular injury, degree of immobilization, intra-articular fractures, separation of bone ends, and infection can also impact healing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 82-year-old female experiences a fall and is brought to the emergency department. X-rays reveal a displaced fracture above the greater and lesser trochanter of the proximal femur on the right side. What would be the best surgical approach for this patient?
Your Answer: Hemiarthroplasty
Explanation:When a hip fracture occurs within the joint capsule, there is a higher chance of the femoral head experiencing avascular necrosis. This type of fracture is considered displaced and requires treatment with hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement, especially for older patients. However, younger patients may opt for hip fixation instead of replacement as prosthetic joints have a limited lifespan.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.
Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 75-year-old man is seen on the geriatrics ward 3 days after a hip replacement surgery for a fractured hip. The doctor decides to initiate a RANK ligand inhibitor for the secondary prevention of osteoporosis.
What medication will be started?Your Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Denosumab is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting the development of osteoclasts through RANKL inhibition. It is administered via subcutaneous injection every six months and can also be given in larger doses to prevent pathological fractures in patients with bone metastases. However, denosumab may cause hypocalcaemia, so patients should have their vitamin D levels checked and replaced if necessary before starting treatment. Raloxifene, a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, is another option for osteoporosis management, but it carries an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate or risedronate, are typically the first-line treatment for osteoporosis.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl falls and suffers a growth plate fracture in her left wrist. What system is utilized to categorize the injury?
Your Answer: Weber system
Correct Answer: Salter - Harris system
Explanation:The Salter-Harris system is widely utilized, but it can be problematic as Type 1 and Type 5 injuries may exhibit similar radiological indications. This is unfortunate because Type 5 injuries have poor outcomes and may go undetected.
Genetic Conditions Causing Pathological Fractures
Osteogenesis imperfecta and osteopetrosis are genetic conditions that can cause pathological fractures. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital condition that results in defective osteoid formation, leading to a lack of intercellular substances like collagen and dentine. This can cause translucent bones, multiple fractures, particularly of the long bones, wormian bones, and a trefoil pelvis. There are four subtypes of osteogenesis imperfecta, each with varying levels of collagen quantity and quality.
Osteopetrosis, on the other hand, causes bones to become harder and more dense. It is an autosomal recessive condition that is most common in young adults. Radiology can reveal a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, which is described as marble bone.
It is important to consider these genetic conditions when evaluating paediatric fractures, especially if there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between the proposed and actual mechanism of injury, or injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma. Prompt diagnosis and management can help prevent further fractures and complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman has fallen off her horse and landed on the side of her neck. Despite having a glasgow coma scale of 15 and being able to move all her limbs, she has been taken to the emergency department for examination. Upon examination, it was discovered that she has a medially rotated arm with an extended and pronated forearm, along with a flexion of the wrist. What type of injury has she sustained?
Your Answer: Dislocation of the glenohumeral joint
Correct Answer: Erb's Palsy
Explanation:What is the location of an erb’s palsy? This condition is a nerve disorder in the arm that results from damage to the upper group of the brachial plexus, primarily affecting the C5-C6 nerves in the upper trunk. It is often caused by trauma to the head and neck, which can stretch the nerves in the plexus and cause more damage to the upper trunk.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer experiences severe groin pain upon getting out of bed due to an oestolytic deposit in the proximal femur. X-rays reveal an avulsed lesser trochanter. What muscle is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoas major
Explanation:The lesser trochanter is the insertion point for the psoas major, which contracts during the act of raising the trunk from a supine position. In cases where there are oestolytic lesions in the femur, the lesser trochanter may become avulsed.
The Psoas Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Innervation, and Action
The psoas muscle is a deep-seated muscle that originates from the transverse processes of the five lumbar vertebrae and the superficial part originates from T12 and the first four lumbar vertebrae. It inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur and is innervated by the anterior rami of L1 to L3.
The main action of the psoas muscle is flexion and external rotation of the hip. When both sides of the muscle contract, it can raise the trunk from the supine position. The psoas muscle is an important muscle for maintaining proper posture and movement, and it is often targeted in exercises such as lunges and leg lifts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A patient in his 50s has undergone a muscle biopsy for progressive muscle weakness. During his clinic visit, the doctor presents a histological specimen and indicates the sarcomere. What is the doctor referring to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The region between two Z-lines on the myofibril
Explanation:The area between Z lines is known as the sarcomere. The skeletal muscle is composed of the following elements, as shown in the diagram.
The Process of Muscle Contraction
Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.
The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.
There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old man is undergoing a block dissection of the groin for a malignant melanoma. During the surgery, the femoral triangle is being explored to control intraoperative bleeding. What structure forms the medial border of the femoral triangle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adductor longus
Explanation:The adductor canal is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis and its roof is formed by the sartorius muscle. The adductor longus muscle forms the medial boundary of the femoral triangle.
The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents
The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.
The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.
In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A teenage boy comes to the clinic with a winged scapula on his right side after sustaining an injury while playing rugby. The physician informs him that a nerve has been affected. Which specific nerve is responsible for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve
Explanation:A mastectomy patient experiences winged scapula due to paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. This nerve is often affected by rib injuries. The other nerves mentioned do not play a role in this disorder as they do not innervate this muscle. Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve would affect arm flexion, while damage to the axillary nerve would affect arm abduction. Damage to the thoracodorsal nerve would affect raising the trunk with the upper limb, and damage to the accessory nerve would affect neck movement.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who is worried about her daughter's hearing loss. The girl has a history of frequent bone fractures. During the examination, the doctor observes that the external ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal and there is no discharge or swelling. However, the girl's sclera has a bluish tint. What type of collagen is most likely affected in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in type 1 collagen, which is found in the skin, tendons, vasculature, and bones. This abnormality results in fragile bones, leading to multiple fractures, as seen in a child with deafness, blue sclera, and fractures. Type 2 collagen is present in cartilage and is not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta. Type 3 collagen is the primary component of reticular fibers, which are also not typically affected in this condition. Type 4 collagen makes up basement membranes, which are also not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta.
Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.
This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female patient presents to a rheumatology clinic with complaints of pain and stiffness in the small joints of her hands. After diagnosis, she is prescribed methotrexate for her rheumatoid arthritis. How does the addition of a folate supplement reduce the risk of which side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myelosuppression
Explanation:The risk of myelosuppression can be reduced by prescribing folate along with methotrexate, as folate supplements can counteract the inhibition of folate caused by methotrexate. This is important because methotrexate targets fast-dividing cells by preventing DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis, and the cells in the bone marrow are heavily reliant on folate due to their rapid division.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of worsening bone pain in her left hip over the past few days. She mentions feeling ill and feverish, but attributes it to a recent cold. The patient is a known IV drug user and has not traveled recently.
During the examination, the left hip appears red and tender, and multiple track marks are visible.
Which organism is most likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus in both adults and children. IV drug use is a known risk factor for this condition as it can introduce microorganisms directly into the bloodstream. While Escherichia coli can also cause osteomyelitis, it is more prevalent in children than adults. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also lead to osteomyelitis, but it is less common than Staphylococcus aureus. Bone introduction typically occurs via the circulatory system from pulmonary tuberculosis. However, antitubercular therapy has reduced the incidence of tuberculosis, making bone introduction less likely than with Staphylococcus aureus, which is part of the normal skin flora. Salmonella enterica is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in individuals with sickle cell disease. As the patient is not known to have sickle cell, Staphylococcus aureus remains the most probable cause.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.
The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents with symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome and requires surgical exploration of the carpal tunnel. What structure will be closest to the hamate bone within the carpal tunnel during the procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The tendons of flexor digitorum profundus
Explanation:The nine flexor tendons found in the carpal tunnel include the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus. Among these tendons, the flexor digitorum profundus is situated deepest in the tunnel and is therefore closest to the hamate bone.
Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks
The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.
In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with an infectious episode that caused a sore throat. The illness was found to be caused by a gram-positive cocci in chains. Two weeks later, he developed teardrop erythematous lesions on his trunk and arms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:Guttate psoriasis is frequently seen after a streptococcal infection, with group-A streptococcus being the likely culprit. The condition is characterized by the appearance of small, teardrop shaped red lesions. Scarlet fever, which is also caused by group-A streptococcus, presents with a rough rash, fever, swollen lymph nodes, and a red tongue. Pityriasis rosea, on the other hand, typically follows a viral infection and is identified by a single scaly patch followed by a widespread salmon-pink rash. Acne vulgaris and impetigo are not commonly associated with a streptococcal sore throat.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency department after falling onto outstretched hands. An x-ray confirms a fracture in one of the bones in his forearm. Based on the mechanism of injury, which bone is most likely affected by this fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Distal shaft of the radius
Explanation:The forearm has two weight-bearing bones, the scaphoid at the wrist and the radius within the forearm. If someone falls onto outstretched hands, there is a risk of fracturing both of these bones. The shaft of the radius is particularly vulnerable as it carries the weight and takes the full compression of the fall. The ulna is more likely to fracture from stress applied to the side of the arm rather than down its length. The lunate bone at the wrist is not involved in weight-bearing.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of shoulder pain. He denies any history of shoulder dislocation and regularly attends the gym for five days a week, performing overhead pressing movements. He is a first-year physiotherapy student and has a good understanding of shoulder anatomy.
During the examination, the patient exhibits a positive 'empty can' test, indicating supraspinatus tendonitis. A focused ultrasound scan of the shoulder joint confirms inflammation at the point of insertion of the supraspinatus tendon.
What is the precise location of the inflammation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus
Explanation:The insertion site of the supraspinatus tendon is the superior facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus, while the teres major and coracobrachialis muscles insert into the medial border. The subscapularis muscle inserts into the lesser tubercle, and the infraspinatus muscle inserts into the middle facet of the greater tubercle. The teres minor muscle’s insertion site is not specified.
The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
In Froment's test, what muscle function is being evaluated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis
Explanation:Nerve signs are used to assess the function of specific nerves in the body. One such sign is Froment’s sign, which is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy. During this test, the adductor pollicis muscle function is tested by having the patient hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The object is then pulled away, and if the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it may indicate ulnar nerve palsy.
Another nerve sign used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome is Phalen’s test. This test is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign and involves holding the wrist in maximum flexion. If there is numbness in the median nerve distribution, the test is considered positive.
Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. During this test, the median nerve at the wrist is tapped, and if the patient experiences tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve, the test is considered positive. These nerve signs are important tools in diagnosing and assessing nerve function in patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man has been experiencing mechanical back pain for a few years. Upon waking up one morning, he experiences a sudden onset of pain in his back that travels down his left leg. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolapse of nucleus pulposus
Explanation:The cause of the symptoms is likely to be intervertebral disk prolapse, which occurs when the nucleus pulposus herniates.
Intervertebral Discs
Intervertebral discs are composed of two main parts: the outer annulus fibrosus and the inner nucleus pulposus. The annulus fibrosus is made up of multiple layers of fibrocartilage, while the nucleus pulposus contains loose fibers suspended in a mucoprotein gel with a jelly-like consistency. The nucleus of the disc acts as a shock absorber, and pressure on the disc can cause the posterior protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. This is most commonly seen in the lumbrosacral and lower cervical areas.
The discs are separated by hyaline cartilage, and there is one disc between each pair of vertebrae, except for C1/2 and the sacrococcygeal vertebrae. Understanding the structure and function of intervertebral discs is important in the diagnosis and treatment of spinal conditions. By providing support and cushioning to the spine, these discs play a crucial role in maintaining spinal health and mobility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 65 years old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of stiffness in both hands lasting for several hours. She has also observed that her fingers turn white when exposed to cold but denies any other related symptoms. X-rays of the affected metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints of the hands reveal periarticular osteopenia and bony erosions.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by longer morning stiffness lasting more than 30-60 minutes. It typically affects three or more joints symmetrically, but spares the distal interphalangeal joints. Diagnosis is based on clinical features and can be supported by positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) or rheumatoid factor (RF) serological testing. X-rays may show periarticular osteopenia, marginal bony erosions, and joint space narrowing. Additionally, Raynaud’s phenomenon can be an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis.
Comparison of Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are two types of arthritis that affect the joints. Osteoarthritis is caused by mechanical wear and tear, resulting in the localized loss of cartilage, remodelling of adjacent bone, and associated inflammation. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects women more commonly than men and can occur in adults of all ages. It typically affects the MCP and PIP joints, causing bilateral symptoms and systemic upset, while osteoarthritis affects large weight-bearing joints such as the hip and knee, as well as the carpometacarpal joint and DIP and PIP joints, causing unilateral symptoms and no systemic upset.
The typical history of osteoarthritis involves pain following use, which improves with rest, while rheumatoid arthritis involves morning stiffness that improves with use. X-ray findings for osteoarthritis include loss of joint space, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, and osteophytes forming at joint margins. For rheumatoid arthritis, X-ray findings include loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, periarticular erosions, and subluxation.
In summary, while both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis affect the joints, they have different causes, affected joints, symptoms, and X-ray findings. Understanding these differences can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has swelling and tenderness in the middle part of his left forearm and is refusing to move it. The family seems uncooperative and difficult to engage with. Upon questioning, the mother claims the injury occurred from falling off the couch, while the father claims it happened while playing outside. Given the suspicious circumstances, you suspect a non-accidental injury.
What X-ray findings are commonly associated with this type of injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greenstick fracture of the radius and ulna
Explanation:Greenstick fractures are a type of bone injury that is frequently seen in children. While spiral fractures of the humerus are often linked to non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider NAI as a possible cause for greenstick fractures as well.
Greenstick fractures typically occur in infants and children and can result from various causes, such as falling on an outstretched hand or experiencing a direct perpendicular impact.
In a greenstick fracture, one side of the bone’s cortex is disrupted, while the opposite cortex remains intact. This type of fracture is more common in younger individuals whose bones are not yet fully mineralized and are more likely to bend than break.
Adolescents and adults may experience Monteggia and Galeazzi fractures, which are common forearm injuries. These fractures involve a displaced fracture in one forearm bone and a dislocation of the other.
Paediatric Orthopaedics: Common Conditions and Treatments
Developmental dysplasia of the hip is a condition that is usually diagnosed in infancy through screening tests. It may be bilateral, and when it is unilateral, there may be leg length inequality. As the disease progresses, the child may limp and experience early onset arthritis. This condition is more common in extended breech babies. Treatment options include splints and harnesses or traction, and in later years, osteotomy and hip realignment procedures may be needed. In cases of arthritis, a joint replacement may be necessary, but it is best to defer this if possible as it will likely require revision. Initially, there may be no obvious changes on plain films, and ultrasound gives the best resolution until three months of age. On plain films, Shenton’s line should form a smooth arc.
Perthes Disease is characterized by hip pain, which may be referred to the knee, and usually occurs between the ages of 5 and 12. Bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves removing pressure from the joint to allow for normal development and physiotherapy. If diagnosed and treated promptly, the condition is usually self-limiting. X-rays will show a flattened femoral head, and in untreated cases, the femoral head will eventually fragment.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is typically seen in obese male adolescents. Pain is often referred to the knee, and limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present two months prior to hip slipping, and bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves bed rest and non-weight bearing to avoid avascular necrosis. If severe slippage or risk of it occurring is present, percutaneous pinning of the hip may be required. X-rays will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally, resembling a melting ice cream cone. The Southwick angle gives an indication of disease severity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is the position of the hyoid bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C3
Explanation:Surface Anatomy of the Neck: Identifying Structures and Corresponding Levels
The neck is a complex region of the body that contains numerous structures and landmarks. By understanding the surface anatomy of the neck, healthcare professionals can accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.
In the midline of the neck, several structures can be felt from top to bottom. These include the hyoid at the level of C3, the notch of the thyroid cartilage at C4, and the cricoid cartilage at C6. The lower border of the cricoid cartilage is particularly significant as it corresponds to several important structures, including the junction of the larynx and trachea, the junction of the pharynx and esophagus, and the level at which the inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland. Additionally, the vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen in the 6th cervical vertebrae at this level, and the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle crosses the carotid sheath. The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion is also located at this level, as well as the carotid tubercle, which can be used to compress the carotid artery.
Overall, understanding the surface anatomy of the neck is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He has no visible wounds or head trauma, but he is experiencing left lower limb pain and is unable to walk. Upon examination, he displays a high stepping gait and there is swelling and deformity below the knee. An X-ray confirms a fractured neck of the fibula.
Which function is most likely impacted in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsiflexion of foot
Explanation:A fibular neck fracture can result in foot drop due to common peroneal nerve injury. The nerve is often injured because it winds around the neck of the fibula. The common peroneal nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, and an injury to this nerve can cause foot drop, which is characterized by a high stepping gait. In foot drop, the foot appears floppy, and the toes point downward, scraping the ground while walking. The patient tends to lift their foot very high to avoid dragging it on the ground. Eversion of the foot is not the correct answer, as it is controlled by the superficial peroneal nerve. Flexion of toes is also an incorrect answer, as it is controlled by the medial plantar nerve.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteal lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Mr. Johnson is a 65-year-old man who has had rheumatoid arthritis for 20 years. During his yearly check-up, he mentions experiencing difficulty while eating as his food feels very dry. Additionally, he has received comments about his cheeks appearing larger. Mr. Johnson has also developed a dry cough and a CT scan of his chest reveals early signs of bronchiectasis.
What could be the possible reason for these new symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sjogren's syndrome
Explanation:Sjogren’s syndrome is the most appropriate answer as it can affect multiple systems of the body, including the lacrimal and salivary glands, which can lead to xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Additionally, it can predispose individuals to conditions such as COPD and bronchiectasis due to mucosal dryness. Early stages of bronchiectasis, early COPD, and parotitis are not the most appropriate answers as they do not fully explain the oral symptoms and other systemic manifestations associated with Sjogren’s syndrome.
Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.
The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.
Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is not closely related to the capitate bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The pisiform bone is in close proximity to both the ulnar nerve and artery. Additionally, the capitate bone is in articulation with the lunate, scaphoid, hamate, and trapezoid bones, indicating a close relationship between them.
The Capitate Bone: Largest of the Carpal Bones
The capitate bone is the largest of the carpal bones and is located centrally in the wrist. It has a rounded head that fits into the cavities of the lunate and scaphoid bones. The bone also has flatter articular surfaces for the hamate medially and the trapezoid laterally. At the distal end, the capitate bone primarily articulates with the middle metacarpal. Overall, the capitate bone plays an important role in the structure and function of the wrist joint.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with a recent diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. She is prescribed a brief course of steroids and a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug. Which joint is predominantly impacted by rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synovial
Explanation:There are three main types of joints: synovial, cartilaginous, and fibrous. Synovial joints have a fibrous capsule with ligaments that check excessive movements. Some synovial joints have an intra-articular disc made of fibrocartilage. Cartilaginous joints can grow while resisting forces and eventually become synostoses. Fibrous joints include sutures, which slowly become rigid synostoses, syndesmoses, which allow some movement, and gomphoses, which anchor teeth into alveolar sockets.
Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman is scheduled to have an axillary lymph node dissection as a component of her breast cancer treatment. During the surgical approach to the axilla, which fascial layer will be cut?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:The clavipectoral fascia is located beneath the clavicular part of the pectoralis major muscle and serves as a protective barrier for the axillary vessels and nodes. In cases of breast cancer requiring axillary node clearance, the clavipectoral fascia is incised to allow access to the nodal stations. These stations include level 1 nodes located below the pectoralis minor muscle, level 2 nodes situated behind it, and level 3 nodes above it. In some cases, such as during a Patey Mastectomy, surgeons may need to divide the pectoralis minor muscle to access level 3 nodes. However, with the use of sentinel node biopsy and improved techniques, this procedure is becoming less common.
Anatomy of the Axilla
The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.
One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.
The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling off her bike and landing on her outstretched hand. She experiences tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox and is treated conservatively before being discharged. However, when she returns for outpatient follow-up several weeks later, she reports ongoing wrist pain. What is the probable complication that has arisen from her initial injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:A scaphoid fracture can result in avascular necrosis due to the bone’s limited blood supply through the tubercle. This complication is often seen in patients who have fallen on an outstretched hand and may not be immediately visible on X-ray. Carpal tunnel syndrome, compartment syndrome, and Guyon canal syndrome are not typically associated with a scaphoid fracture and present with different symptoms and causes.
The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male is admitted to the renal ward after presenting with lethargy, swelling and two episodes of haematuria. Bloods revealed the following:
Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 11.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neuts 4.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Lymphs 3.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
Eosin 4.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)
ESR 130 mm/hr Men: < (age / 2)
Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)
He was found to have high circulating levels for perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA).
What is the main target of this antibody within the cell?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myeloperoxidase (MPO)
Explanation:The primary focus of pANCA is on myeloperoxidase (MPO), although it also targets lysosome, cathepsin G, and elastase to a lesser extent. Meanwhile, cANCA primarily targets PR3. All of these targets are located within the azurophilic granules of neutrophils.
ANCA testing can be done through ELISA or immunofluorescence, which can detect anti-MPO or anti-PR3 antibodies in the blood. The pattern of immunostaining would vary depending on the specific condition.
ANCA testing is useful in diagnosing and monitoring the disease activity of certain conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegner’s granulomatosis), eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), and microscopic polyangiitis. MPO antibodies are more sensitive in detecting microscopic polyangiitis compared to EGPA.
ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.
To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.
Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)