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Question 1
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A 4-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports that she has had a slight cold for a few days and her voice had been hoarse. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.1°C, heart rate 135, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Her chest examination is unremarkable, but you observe the presence of stridor at rest.
What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?Your Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.
A distinctive feature of croup is a barking cough, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed. If a child is experiencing vomiting, nebulized budesonide can be used as an alternative. However, it is important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.
Hospitalization for croup is uncommon and typically reserved for children who are experiencing worsening respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness or agitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease two years ago has experienced a sudden decline in her functioning and is experiencing significant issues with balance. She is at a high risk of falling and recently fractured her wrist. She complains of severe dryness in her eyes and struggles to look downwards. Her husband reports that she is currently feeling very down and has been displaying uncharacteristic episodes of anger. Additionally, you observe that her speech is slurred today.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
Explanation:The Parkinson-plus syndromes are a group of neurodegenerative disorders that share similar features with Parkinson’s disease but also have additional clinical characteristics that set them apart from idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (iPD). These syndromes include Multiple System Atrophy (MSA), Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP), Corticobasal degeneration (CBD), and Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB).
Multiple System Atrophy (MSA) is a less common condition than iPD and PSP. It is characterized by the loss of cells in multiple areas of the nervous system. MSA progresses rapidly, often leading to wheelchair dependence within 3-4 years of diagnosis. Some distinguishing features of MSA include autonomic dysfunction, bladder control problems, erectile dysfunction, blood pressure changes, early-onset balance problems, neck or facial dystonia, and a high-pitched voice.
To summarize the distinguishing features of the Parkinson-plus syndromes compared to iPD, the following table provides a comparison:
iPD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Typically starts at rest on one side of the body
– Levodopa response: Excellent response
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Late in the disease
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingMSA:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingPSP:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Less common, if present affects both sides
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Personality changes, depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1 year
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, difficulty in looking downwardsCBD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with pain in his left buttock, hip, and thigh. The pain started suddenly a few weeks ago, and he cannot recall any previous injury. During the examination, he shows wasting of his left quadriceps, struggles to stand up from a seated position, and has an absent knee jerk on the left side. Muscle fasciculations are observed in his left thigh. His BMI is 30, and he is a smoker.
What is the SINGLE most beneficial management measure for this patient?Your Answer: Good glycaemic control
Explanation:Diabetic amyotrophy, also referred to as proximal diabetic neuropathy, is the second most prevalent form of diabetic neuropathy. It typically manifests with pain in the buttocks, hips, or thighs and is often initially experienced on one side of the body. The pain may start off as mild and gradually progress or it can suddenly appear, as seen in this particular case. Subsequently, weakness and wasting of the proximal muscles in the lower limbs occur, potentially leading to the patient requiring assistance when transitioning from a seated to a standing position. Reflexes in the affected areas can also be impacted. Fortunately, diabetic amyotrophy can be reversed through effective management of blood sugar levels, physiotherapy, and adopting a healthy lifestyle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A young woman with a previous case of urethritis has a urethral swab sent to the laboratory for examination. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is identified in the sample, confirming a diagnosis of gonorrhea.
Which ONE statement about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is accurate?Your Answer: It adheres to the genitourinary epithelium via pili
Explanation:Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that causes the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. It is a Gram-negative diplococcus, meaning it appears as pairs of bacteria under a microscope. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is its ability to undergo antigenic variation, which means that recovering from an infection does not provide immunity and reinfection is possible.
When Neisseria gonorrhoeae infects the body, it first attaches to the genitourinary epithelium using pili, which are hair-like structures on the surface of the bacteria. It then invades the epithelial layer and triggers a local acute inflammatory response. In men, the clinical features of gonorrhoea often include urethritis (inflammation of the urethra) in about 80% of cases, dysuria (painful urination) in around 50% of cases, and mucopurulent discharge. Rectal infection may also occur, usually without symptoms, but it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is usually asymptomatic in men.
In women, the clinical features of gonorrhoea commonly include vaginal discharge in about 50% of cases, lower abdominal pain in around 25% of cases, dysuria in 10-15% of cases, and pelvic/lower abdominal tenderness in less than 5% of cases. Endocervical discharge and/or bleeding may also be present. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic but can cause anal discharge, and pharyngitis is usually asymptomatic in women as well.
Complications of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection can be serious and include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, epididymo-orchitis or prostatitis in men, arthritis, dermatitis, pericarditis and/or myocarditis, hepatitis, and meningitis.
To diagnose gonorrhoea, samples of pus from the urethra, cervix, rectum, or throat should be collected and promptly sent to the laboratory in specialized transport medium. Traditionally, diagnosis has been made using Gram-stain and culture techniques, but newer PCR testing methods are becoming more commonly used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sexual intercourse 3 days ago. On direct questioning it was approximately 80 hours ago. She is hesitant to have a coil inserted due to a negative past experience and is curious about alternative options that may be available to her.
What is the MOST appropriate choice for her?Your Answer: Ulipristal acetate
Explanation:Women have three options when requesting emergency contraception. The first option is Levonelle 1.5 mg, which contains levonorgestrel and can be used up to 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking the tablet, another one should be given. Levonelle mainly works by preventing ovulation.
The second option is ulipristal acetate, the newest treatment available. It can be used up to 120 hours after UPSI. If vomiting occurs within 3 hours of ingestion, another tablet should be given. Ulipristal acetate also works by inhibiting ovulation. However, it should be avoided in patients taking enzyme-inducing drugs, those with severe hepatic impairment, or those with severe asthma requiring oral steroids.
The third option is the copper IUD, which can be fitted up to 5 days after UPSI or ovulation, whichever is longer. The failure rate of the copper IUD is less than 1 in 1000, making it 10-20 times more effective than oral emergency contraceptive options. It is important to note that Levonelle and ulipristal may be less effective in women with higher BMIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man receives a blood transfusion due to ongoing rectal bleeding and a hemoglobin level of 6 mg/dL. Shortly after starting the transfusion, he experiences discomfort and a burning sensation at the site of his IV, along with complaints of nausea, intense lower back pain, and a sense of impending catastrophe. His temperature is measured and found to be 39.2°C.
What is the most suitable course of action for treatment in this case?Your Answer: Administer adrenaline and IV fluids
Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer IV fluids
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion usage, errors and adverse reactions still occur.
One serious complication is acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, which happen when incompatible red cells are transfused and react with the patient’s own antibodies. This usually occurs due to human error, such as mislabelling sample tubes or request forms. Symptoms of this reaction include a feeling of impending doom, fever, chills, pain and warmth at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and back, joint, and chest pain. Immediate action should be taken to stop the transfusion, replace the donor blood with normal saline or another suitable crystalloid, and check the blood to confirm the intended recipient. IV diuretics may be administered to increase renal blood flow, and urine output should be maintained.
Another common complication is febrile transfusion reaction, which presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise. This reaction is usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in the transfused blood components. Supportive treatment is typically sufficient, and paracetamol can be helpful.
Allergic reactions can also occur, usually due to foreign plasma proteins or anti-IgA. These reactions often present with urticaria, pruritus, and hives, and in severe cases, laryngeal edema or bronchospasm may occur. Symptomatic treatment with antihistamines is usually enough, and there is usually no need to stop the transfusion. However, if anaphylaxis occurs, the transfusion should be stopped, and the patient should be administered adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a severe complication characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion. It is associated with antibodies in the donor blood reacting with recipient leukocyte antigens. This is the most common cause of death related to transfusion reactions. Treatment involves stopping the transfusion, administering oxygen, and providing aggressive respiratory support in approximately 75% of patients. Diuretic usage should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a bout of hemoptysis. She feels generally unwell and has experienced recent weight loss. Additionally, she has developed a rash. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of asthma last year and allergic rhinitis. On examination, she has a normal body temperature, her blood pressure is 180/95, and she has a purpuric rash primarily on her legs. During chest examination, a few scattered wheezes are heard.
Recently, she had a blood test, and the results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
- White blood cell count (WCC): 23.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
- Neutrophils: 8.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
- Lymphocytes: 2.1 x 109/l (normal range: 1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
- Eosinophils: 15.7 x 109/l (normal range: 0.04-0.44 x 109/l)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 107 mg/l (normal range: <5 mg/l)
- Sodium (Na): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K): 4.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine (Creat): 255 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
- Urea: 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation:This individual has presented with haemoptysis and a purpuric rash, alongside a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. Blood tests have revealed elevated inflammatory markers, pronounced eosinophilia, and acute renal failure. The most likely diagnosis in this case is Churg-Strauss syndrome.
Churg-Strauss syndrome is a rare autoimmune vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. The American College of Rheumatology has established six criteria for diagnosing Churg-Strauss syndrome. The presence of at least four of these criteria is highly indicative of the condition:
1. Asthma (wheezing, expiratory rhonchi)
2. Eosinophilia of more than 10% in peripheral blood
3. Paranasal sinusitis
4. Pulmonary infiltrates (which may be transient)
5. Histological confirmation of vasculitis with extravascular eosinophils
6. Mononeuritis multiplex or polyneuropathyChurg-Strauss syndrome can affect various organ systems, with the most common clinical features including:
– Constitutional symptoms: fever, fatigue, weight loss, and arthralgia
– Respiratory symptoms: asthma, haemoptysis, allergic rhinitis, and sinusitis
– Cardiovascular symptoms: heart failure, myocarditis, and myocardial infarction
– Gastrointestinal symptoms: gastrointestinal bleeding, bowel ischaemia, and appendicitis
– Dermatological symptoms: purpura, livedo reticularis, and skin nodules
– Renal symptoms: glomerulonephritis, renal failure, and hypertension
– Neurological symptoms: mononeuritis multiplexInvestigations often reveal eosinophilia, anaemia, elevated CRP and ESR, elevated creatinine, and elevated serum IgE levels. Approximately 70% of patients test positive for p-ANCA.
The mainstay of treatment for Churg-Strauss syndrome is high-dose steroids. In cases with life-threatening complications, cyclophosphamide and azathioprine are often administered.
Polyarteritis nodosa is another vasculitic disorder that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It can impact the gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, skin, and joints, but it is not typically associated with rhinitis or asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 62 year old man is brought into the emergency department by his daughter. The patient had been dozing on the beach chair for a few hours during the scorching weather but then became increasingly disoriented and started vomiting. The patient takes furosemide for swollen ankles. The patients observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 118/68 mmHg
Pulse 108 bpm
Respiratory rate 24 bpm
Temperature 41.4ºC
Oxygen sats 96% on air
The patient's skin is hot and dry to the touch. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Intracerebral haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Heat stroke
Explanation:Anhydrosis, or the inability to sweat, is frequently observed in individuals who experience heat stroke. This patient exhibits the main characteristics of heat stroke, including a core body temperature exceeding 40ºC and encephalopathy, which is evident through significant confusion. Additionally, the patient’s use of diuretics and advanced age are risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing severe heat-related illness. It is important to note that in the UK, most fatalities resulting from heat stroke occur in individuals aged 70 or older, typically within the initial days of a heat wave.
Further Reading:
Heat Stroke:
– Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
– Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
– Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
– Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
– Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
– Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
– Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
– Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°CHeat Exhaustion:
– Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
– Core temperature elevated but <40°C
– Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
– Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
– Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and restOther Heat-Related Illnesses:
– Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
– Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
– Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydrationRisk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
– Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factorsManagement:
– Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
– Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
– Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
– Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
– Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
– Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You review a 16-year-old girl who is seeking advice on emergency contraception. The ‘Fraser guidelines’ are used to clarify the legal position of treating individuals under the age of 17 without parental consent.
Which of the following statements does not form part of the Fraser guidelines?Your Answer: That the girl (although under the age of 16 years of age) will understand the advice
Correct Answer: That the patient must not have a learning disability or mental illness
Explanation:The Fraser guidelines pertain to the guidelines established by Lord Fraser during the Gillick case in 1985. These guidelines specifically address the provision of contraceptive advice to individuals under the age of 16. According to the Fraser guidelines, a doctor may proceed with providing advice and treatment if they are satisfied with the following criteria:
1. The individual (despite being under 16 years old) possesses a sufficient understanding of the advice being given.
2. The doctor is unable to convince the individual to inform their parents or allow the doctor to inform the parents about seeking contraceptive advice.
3. The individual is likely to engage in sexual intercourse, regardless of whether they receive contraceptive treatment.
4. Without contraceptive advice or treatment, the individual’s physical and/or mental health is likely to deteriorate.
5. The doctor deems it in the individual’s best interests to provide contraceptive advice, treatment, or both without parental consent.In summary, the Fraser guidelines outline the conditions under which a doctor can offer contraceptive advice to individuals under 16 years old, ensuring their well-being and best interests are taken into account.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of palpitations. During an ECG, it is found that she has newly developed QT prolongation. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication and wonders if that could be the reason.
Which of the following medications is LEAST likely to cause QT interval prolongation?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.
Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.
The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.
If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.
A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.
Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:
Antimicrobials:
– Erythromycin
– Clarithromycin
– Moxifloxacin
– Fluconazole
– KetoconazoleAntiarrhythmics:
– Dronedarone
– Sotalol
– Quinidine
– Amiodarone
– FlecainideAntipsychotics:
– Risperidone
– Fluphenazine
– Haloperidol
– Pimozide
– Chlorpromazine
– Quetiapine
– ClozapineAntidepressants:
– Citalopram/escitalopram
– Amitriptyline
– Clomipramine
– Dosulepin
– Doxepin
– Imipramine
– LofepramineAntiemetics:
– Domperidone
– Droperidol
– Ondansetron/GranisetronOthers:
– Methadone
– Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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