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  • Question 1 - A mother brings her 9-month old to her General Practitioner (GP) worried about...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 9-month old to her General Practitioner (GP) worried about a raised red mark on the baby's cheek. The mark is now 7 mm in diameter, has a smooth outline, and is a regular circular shape with consistent color all over. It appeared about four months ago and has been gradually increasing in size. The baby was born at full term via normal vaginal delivery and has been generally healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infantile haemangioma (strawberry mark)

      Explanation:

      Types of Birthmarks in Children: Characteristics and Considerations

      Birthmarks are common in children and can vary in appearance and location on the body. Understanding the characteristics of different types of birthmarks can help parents and healthcare providers determine if further evaluation or treatment is necessary.

      Infantile haemangiomas, also known as strawberry marks, are raised and red in color. They typically grow for the first six months of life and then shrink, disappearing by age 7. Treatment is usually not necessary unless they affect vision or feeding.

      Café-au-lait spots are flat, coffee-colored patches on the skin. While one or two are common, more than six by age 5 may indicate neurofibromatosis.

      Capillary malformations, or port wine stains, are dark red or purple and not raised. They tend to affect the face, chest, or back and may increase in size during puberty, pregnancy, or menopause.

      Malignant melanoma is rare in children but should be considered if a lesion exhibits the ABCD rules.

      Salmon patches, or stork marks, are flat and red or pink and commonly occur on the forehead, eyelids, or neck. They typically fade after a few months.

      By understanding the characteristics and considerations of different types of birthmarks, parents and healthcare providers can ensure appropriate evaluation and treatment if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic ulcer on his left forearm. On enquiry by the consultant, he revealed that he suffered full-thickness burn at the site of the ulcer nearly 20 years ago. The consultant told the patient he had a Marjolin’s ulcer.
      Which of the following statements best describes a Marjolin’s ulcer?

      Your Answer: It is a sarcoma which develops in a scar

      Correct Answer: It is often painless

      Explanation:

      Understanding Marjolin’s Ulcer: A Squamous Cell Carcinoma in Scar Tissue

      Marjolin’s ulcer is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that develops in scar tissue. This condition is often associated with chronic wounds and scar tissues, which are prone to an increased risk for skin cancer. While it most frequently occurs in old burn scars, it can also develop in relation to other types of injuries and wounds.

      One of the unique characteristics of Marjolin’s ulcer is that it grows slowly due to the scar tissue being relatively avascular. Additionally, it is painless because the tissue contains no nerves. While it typically appears in adults around 53-59 years of age, the latency period between the initial injury and the appearance of cancer can be 25-40 years.

      Contrary to popular belief, Marjolin’s ulcer is not a sarcoma. Instead, it is a squamous cell carcinoma that can invade normal tissue surrounding the scar and extend at a normal rate. While secondary deposits do not occur in the regional lymph nodes due to the destruction of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes can become involved if the ulcer invades normal tissue.

      In conclusion, understanding Marjolin’s ulcer is crucial for individuals who have experienced chronic wounds or scar tissue. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old swimming instructor presents with an abrupt onset of diffuse inflamed, red,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old swimming instructor presents with an abrupt onset of diffuse inflamed, red, scaly skin changes that developed within 2 days. The medical team suspects erythroderma and initiates treatment with oral steroids. What is the most probable dermatological disorder that can lead to erythroderma?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions and Their Relationship to Erythroderma

      Erythroderma is a condition that causes inflammation, redness, and scaling of over 90% of the skin surface. It can be caused by various dermatological conditions, including eczema, psoriasis, cutaneous T cell lymphoma, drug reactions, blistering conditions, and pityriasis rubra pilaris. Complications of erythroderma include hypothermia, dehydration, infection, and high-output heart failure. Treatment involves identifying and stopping any causative drugs, nursing in a warm room, and systemic steroids.

      Livedo reticularis is another skin condition that causes a mottled discoloration of the skin in a reticular pattern due to a disturbance of blood flow to the skin. However, it does not cause erythroderma.

      Lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that presents with a pruritic, papular eruption characterized by its violaceous color and polygonal shape, sometimes with a fine scale. It does not commonly cause erythroderma.

      Norwegian scabies is a severe form of scabies caused by a mite infestation, but it does not cause erythroderma.

      Pityriasis rosea is a viral rash characterized by a herald patch followed by smaller oval, red patches located on the torso. It does not cause erythroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right scalp, forehead and periorbital region. The affected area is swollen and causing him pain. Additionally, there are some vesicles present at the tip of his nose. He reports experiencing a headache in that area several days prior to the onset of the rash. What is the most probable causative organism for this rash?

      Your Answer: Varicella-zoster virus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

      Skin infections can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses, fungi, and bacteria. Here are some common skin infections and their causes:

      Varicella-zoster virus: This virus causes shingles, which is a reactivation of the virus that has been dormant in the dorsal root ganglia after the patient’s initial exposure to the virus in the form of chickenpox. A live attenuated vaccine is now available that is effective in preventing shingles.

      Herpes simplex virus infection: This virus can occasionally appear in a dermatomal distribution, mimicking shingles. It presents with erythema and vesicles, but the area of skin involved is usually much less than in shingles and pain is not as prominent.

      Malassezia furfur: This fungus causes tinea versicolor, a common benign, superficial cutaneous fungal infection characterized by hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules and patches on the chest and back.

      Trichophyton verrucosum: This dermatophyte fungus of animal origin (zoophilic) causes a kerion, a severely painful inflammatory reaction with deep suppurative lesions on the scalp or beard area.

      Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium causes impetigo, sycosis, ecthyma, and boils.

      Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to Dermatology

      Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily

      Explanation:

      Management of Psoriasis: Next Steps and Referral Considerations

      Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidance. For a patient who has already received eight weeks of once-daily potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue, the next step is to stop the steroid and start twice-daily vitamin D analogue. Steroids should not be applied at the same site for more than eight weeks, after which patients require a 4-week ‘treatment break’. If there is still no improvement in symptoms at the end of the 4-week steroid-free break, twice-daily steroids can be trialled or a coal tar preparation can be started.

      Referral to Dermatology may be necessary if the patient is severely affected by psoriasis or struggling to manage the condition. However, starting the next stage of treatment, which is twice-daily vitamin D analogue, would be the most appropriate while awaiting secondary care review.

      Continuing steroids for a further four weeks would result in an excessively long duration of steroid treatment and risk side-effects such as skin thinning. Patients should have a minimum of four weeks steroid-free after an 8-week treatment course.

      While some patients with severe psoriasis may require an ultra-potent steroid, this patient has already received eight weeks of a potent steroid and requires a 4-week steroid-free break. Following this, it may be appropriate to trial a short course of an ultra-potent steroid or to retrial the potent steroid twice daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.

      What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?

      Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Antibodies against hemidesmosomes

      Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops an uncomfortable raised rash on the anterior aspects of both her lower legs. She has prided herself with her remarkably good health over the years. She has recently visited Nigeria, Guyana and Vietnam for her work.
      What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to conduct?

      Your Answer: Blood film

      Correct Answer: Chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with erythema nodosum, which may have an unknown cause or could be related to their extensive travel history. While a skin biopsy may provide a definitive diagnosis, the best initial investigation is a chest X-ray to rule out tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. A blood film is not necessary as there is no indication of malaria. An ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful in this case, as the skin lesions are the primary concern. Stool microbiology is not necessary as there is no mention of diarrhea. While a skin biopsy may provide information on the lesions themselves, it does not aid in identifying the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a skin lesion on her forearm. On examination, the lesion is a 4-mm red, raised lesion with multiple scratch marks surrounding it. The GP wishes to refer Mrs Green to a local dermatologist.
      Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes this lesion?

      Your Answer: erythematosus papule with excoriation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

      Accurately describing skin lesions is crucial in diagnosing skin conditions. Dermatological terms can help healthcare professionals communicate effectively about skin lesions. Here are some common terms:

      – Bulla: A fluid-filled lesion (blister) that may be single or multiloculated.
      – Crust: Dried serum, pus, or blood.
      – Erythema: Vascular dilation and inflammation producing redness on the skin.
      – Excoriation: Scratch marks, often self-induced and secondary to itching.
      – Lichenification: Chronic thickening and increased marking of the skin caused by scratching.
      – Macule: A change in color or texture of the skin without any change in elevation. When >1 cm in diameter, it is called a ‘patch.’
      – Nodule: A raised lesion with a rounded surface greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.
      – Papule: A solid, raised lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Plaque: An elevated plateau of the skin, often greater than 0.5 cm.
      – Pustule: A pus-filled lesion.
      – Scale: Flakes arising from an abnormal stratum corneum.
      – Telangiectasia: Small dilated blood vessels near the skin surface.
      – Vesicle: A fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Weal: A raised compressible area of dermal edema.

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: Oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.

      The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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Dermatology (5/10) 50%
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