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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica. He is started on prednisolone 15 mg od. What is the most suitable method for bone protection?
Your Answer: Do a FRAX assessment
Correct Answer: Start oral alendronate + ensure calcium and vitamin D replete
Explanation:Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with stiffness and decreased mobility over the past eight months. He also has painful wrist joints with nodules at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints which have developed slowly over the past two years.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis (OA)
Explanation:Differentiating between types of arthritis: A case study
In this case study, a patient presents with bony swelling at the DIP and PIP joints of the hands. It is important to differentiate between various types of arthritis to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
Osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by loss of articular cartilage and overgrowth of underlying bone, commonly affecting the hips, knees, and small hand joints. Pain and swelling are common presenting features, along with crepitus on examination. Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may also be present.
Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a condition of reduced bone density and increased fragility, often diagnosed following a low-impact fracture or screening of high-risk patients. Pain and bony swelling are not typical features of osteoporosis.
Psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory seronegative spondyloarthropathy associated with psoriasis, commonly affecting the hands but not causing the changes described in this case. Dactylitis is a usual examination finding with psoriatic arthritis.
Reactive arthritis is characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following an infection. It typically presents as an acute, asymmetrical lower-limb arthritis, occurring a few days to weeks after the initial infection.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents most often in women between the ages of 35 and 55 with symmetrical polyarticular arthritis, most often in the small joints of the hands or feet. Swelling is present at the metacarpophalangeal and PIP joints of the hands, along with other signs such as swan neck and Boutonnière deformities of the fingers, ulnar deviation of fingers, and Z deformity of the thumb.
In conclusion, careful examination and consideration of various types of arthritis are necessary for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for the last month without any apparent cause. During examination, she experiences pain when resisting wrist extension while the elbow is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Explanation:Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of pain in his right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He reports dysuria, conjunctivitis, and fever, and recently returned from a trip to the Far East where he had unprotected sex. He has also developed macules and pustules on his hands. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Syphilitic arthritis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It affects 1-2% of patients who have had these infections, with Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia causing diarrheal illness that can lead to reactive arthritis, and Chlamydia trichomonas and Ureaplasma urealyticum causing STDs. Those who are HLA-B27-positive are at a higher risk of developing reactive arthritis. Symptoms include acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, enthesitis causing plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendinosis, and back pain from sacroiliitis and spondylosis. Other symptoms may include acute anterior uveitis, circinate balanitis, keratoderma blenorrhagia, nail dystrophy, mouth ulcers, and bilateral conjunctivitis. The classic triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis may also be present. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms and history of unprotected sexual intercourse suggest reactive arthritis as the correct diagnosis. Other potential diagnoses, such as UTI, HIV, psoriatic arthritis, and syphilitic arthritis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least likely to be associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Achilles tendonitis
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with several features that can be remembered using the acronym ‘A’s. These include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, and amyloidosis. However, achalasia is not a known association with ankylosing spondylitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is recuperating after experiencing his initial bout of gout. He continues to experience some persistent discomfort in his big toe. He has no predisposing factors for gout and no signs of gouty tophi upon examination. At what point would it be appropriate to initiate uric acid-lowering treatment?
Your Answer: Once his symptoms of acute gout have resolved
Explanation:It is now recommended to offer allopurinol to all patients after their first gout attack, without delay. However, it is advised to wait until the inflammation has subsided before discussing urate-lowering therapy with the patient. If the attacks are too frequent, allopurinol can be considered even before the inflammation has completely settled. These recommendations are provided by the 2017 British Society for Rheumatology and NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of worsening painless muscle weakness of six months’ duration. She reports difficulty rising from a chair, climbing stairs, and combing her hair. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in her upper arms and thighs. Her thyroid function tests, full blood count, and glycosylated haemoglobin are normal. Serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and rheumatoid factor (RF) are positive, and her creatine kinase (CK) is markedly raised. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:Autoimmune Conditions: Differentiating Polymyositis from Other Disorders
Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes gradual, symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, which is rarely painful. However, other autoimmune conditions can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Here are some key differences:
Systemic sclerosis: This condition causes abnormal growth of connective tissue, leading to vascular damage and fibrosis. Proximal muscle weakness is not a feature of systemic sclerosis, but patients may experience calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia.
Polymyalgia rheumatica: This inflammatory condition causes bilateral pain and stiffness of proximal muscles, particularly the shoulders and pelvic girdle. However, painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical of polymyalgia rheumatica, and positive RF or ANA are not seen in this condition.
Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune condition is characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands, leading to dry eyes and dry mouth. While ANAs and RF may be positive in this condition, proximal myopathy is not a feature.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): This multi-system autoimmune condition usually presents in women of childbearing age with remitting and relapsing symptoms. While ANA antibodies are often positive in SLE, CK is not usually raised, and painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical. The presence of anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies or low complement levels are more specific markers of SLE.
In summary, while these autoimmune conditions may share some symptoms, careful evaluation can help differentiate between them and lead to appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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During a routine medication review, you observe your patient, a 50 year-old male, displaying some skin changes. The knuckles of both hands have purplish plaques, and the patient's eyelids also appear purple. There is no history of skin problems in the patient's medical records. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dermatomyositis
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with skin changes such as plaques on the knuckles and eyelids, scaling of the scalp, and changes to the nail beds and cuticles. It is often accompanied by inflammation of the proximal muscles causing weakness. It can be an autoimmune condition or a paraneoplastic syndrome and is treated with immunosuppressants.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 27-year-old man complains of back pain. What symptom may indicate a possible diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Pain at night
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is discovered to have hypocalcaemia during routine blood tests for his chronic kidney disease. He has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease, and it is anticipated that the low calcium result is a complication of this. What abnormalities would you anticipate in his other laboratory values?
Your Answer: Normal serum phosphate, normal ALP and normal PTH
Correct Answer: ↑ serum phosphate, ↑ ALP and ↑ PTH
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease can lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, high ALP, and high PTH levels. The kidneys are unable to activate vitamin D and excrete phosphate, resulting in calcium being used up in calcium phosphate. This leads to hypocalcemia, which triggers an increase in PTH levels to try and raise calcium levels. PTH stimulates osteoclast activity, causing a rise in ALP found in bone. Normal serum phosphate, normal ALP, and normal PTH levels are associated with osteoporosis or osteopetrosis, but in this case, the patient’s hypocalcemia and chronic kidney disease suggest other abnormal results. High serum phosphate, normal ALP, and low PTH levels are found in hypoparathyroidism, which is not consistent with chronic kidney disease. Low serum phosphate, normal ALP, and normal PTH levels suggest an isolated phosphate deficiency, which is also not consistent with the patient’s clinical picture.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.
Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.
Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.
Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with a swollen second toe and ankle pain associated with a history of generalised fatigue. He has no other symptoms and no previous medical history. His brother suffers from psoriasis. He had the following blood test results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 132 g/l 135–175 g/l
White blood cells 7.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Rheumatoid factor Negative Negative
Antinuclear antibody Negative Negative
Estimated sedimentation rate (ESR) 78 mm/h 0–10 mm/h
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Psoriatic Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and can present in various ways, including symmetric polyarthritis, asymmetrical oligo-arthritis, sacroiliitis, distal interphalangeal joint disease, and arthritis mutilans. It affects both men and women equally, and around 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop psoriatic arthritis.
When considering a differential diagnosis, osteoarthritis is unlikely in this age group, and the presence of a raised estimated sedimentation rate and fatigue in the absence of trauma suggests an inflammatory process. Gout often affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe, while rheumatoid arthritis can also affect women of this age group, but psoriatic arthritis is more likely if the patient has dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Systemic lupus erythematosus can also affect women of this age group, but again, psoriatic arthritis is more likely if dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis are present.
In conclusion, understanding the presentation and differential diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain. She has previously sought medical attention for this issue, but her high BMI of 30 kg/m² was deemed to be the cause and weight loss was recommended. Upon examination, the doctor notes a significant effusion in her left knee and limited range of motion. The metacarpophalangeal joints in her right hand appear swollen and her fingers have a sausage-like appearance. Her left hand does not show any obvious deformities. The patient has tested positive for HLA-B27 and has a blood pressure of 138/87 mmHg and a temperature of 36.7ºC. Based on this information, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that can occur without prior psoriatic skin lesions and is often associated with dactylitis, also known as ‘sausage fingers’. HLA-B27 is commonly found in patients with psoriatic arthritis. Gout is unlikely in a woman under 60 and typically affects the big toe joint. Rheumatoid arthritis is also unlikely as it causes symmetrical polyarthritis and is associated with HLA-DRB1 rather than HLA-B27. Therefore, given the patient’s age, sex, dactylitis, and nail changes, psoriatic arthritis is a more likely diagnosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 7 year-old girl from Sierra Leone presents with a 2 week history of painful left leg. She is homozygous for sickle cell disease. On examination the child is febrile at 39.8ºC and there is bony tenderness over the left tibial shaft. Investigations are:
Hb 6.9 g/dL
Blood culture Gram positive cocci
X-ray left tibia: Osteomyelitis - destruction of bony cortex with periosteal reaction.
What is the most likely responsible pathogen?Your Answer: Staphylococcus Aureus
Correct Answer: Non-typhi Salmonella
Explanation:Non-typhi salmonella (NTS) is known to cause blood and bone infections, particularly in children with sickle cell disease and malaria. The exact reason for this susceptibility is not fully understood, but it may be due to the bacteria’s affinity for iron, which is made available through haemolysis. Other bacteria such as E.coli and P. aeruginosa are not commonly associated with sickle cell disease, and Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive coccus. Aplastic anaemia and parvovirus can be ruled out as causes, as the child’s haemoglobin level is normal and parvovirus does not cause osteomyelitis.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man, who lives alone, complains of pain in his right knee. He finds it difficult to walk long distances. A recent knee radiograph showed signs of osteoarthritis (OA). Examination revealed mild medial joint line tenderness and stable ligaments. His body mass index (BMI) is 25.
What would be the treatment of choice for this patient?Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs with gastric protection
Correct Answer: Paracetamol with topical NSAIDs
Explanation:Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. There are various management strategies for OA, including pharmacological and non-pharmacological approaches.
Paracetamol with Topical NSAIDs
The first-line management strategy for knee and hand OA is to use paracetamol with topical NSAIDs, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.Oral NSAIDs
Oral NSAIDs should be used with caution in the elderly and those with renal disease. Topical NSAIDs are preferred in the first instance. If they are ineffective, oral NSAIDs may be used at the lowest effective dose, for the shortest period of time, and with a protein pump inhibitor co-prescribed.Oral NSAIDs with Gastric Protection
Oral NSAIDs can be given with gastric protection if topical NSAIDs plus paracetamol provide insufficient analgesia. However, it is not the first-line recommendation for relief of pain in osteoarthritis.Arthrodesis of the Knee Joint
Surgical management of OA is typically with joint replacement. Surgery may only be considered in those patients in whom non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures have proved ineffective and there is severe pain with functional limitation.Weight Loss and Physiotherapy
Weight loss and physiotherapy are part of the non-pharmacological management for OA. However, weight loss is only appropriate in those with a BMI of over 25 (overweight or obese). Physiotherapy and gentle exercise should be recommended to all patients with OA, regardless of age, pain severity, co-morbidity, or disability.Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman who has undergone a total hip replacement (THR) comes for evaluation because of discomfort on the side of her prosthesis. What is the primary cause for a revision surgery in a patient who has had a THR?
Your Answer: Aseptic loosening of the implant
Explanation:The primary cause for the revision of total hip replacements is aseptic loosening, followed by pain and dislocation.
Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.
If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.
Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph confirms mild osteoarthritis. What is the best initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Topical ibuprofen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Osteoarthritis: A Guide to Medications and Lifestyle Changes
When it comes to managing osteoarthritis (OA), there are a variety of treatment options available. However, not all treatments are created equal. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for OA to hands and knees is with a topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or oral paracetamol. Oral NSAIDs are considered the second-line treatment choice, to be used only after inadequate response to oral paracetamol or topical NSAIDs.
It’s important to note that nutraceuticals, including oral glucosamine and chondroitin, should not be offered for OA management. Instead, other treatment options initially include weight loss and exercise encouragement.
If medication is necessary, topical ibuprofen and paracetamol should be considered first line, ahead of oral NSAIDs or opioids. Oral NSAIDs, such as diclofenac with omeprazole, ibuprofen, and naproxen, are second line and should be given at the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) cover may be indicated for oral NSAIDs.
In summary, managing OA requires a multifaceted approach that includes lifestyle changes and medication when necessary. By following NICE guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals with OA can find relief and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man complains of pain and redness around his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Causes of Gout: Medications and Other Factors
Gout is a type of joint inflammation that occurs due to the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricemia, which is characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood (above 0.45 mmol/l).
Several medications and other factors can contribute to the development of gout. Diuretics such as thiazides and furosemide, as well as immunosuppressant drugs like ciclosporin, can increase the risk of gout. Alcohol consumption, cytotoxic agents, and pyrazinamide are also known to be associated with gout.
In addition, low-dose aspirin has been found to increase the risk of gout attacks, according to a systematic review. However, this risk needs to be weighed against the cardiovascular benefits of aspirin. Patients who are prescribed allopurinol, a medication used to treat gout, are not at an increased risk of gout attacks when taking low-dose aspirin.
Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential causes of gout, including medications and lifestyle factors, in order to prevent and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old male presents with inner elbow and forearm pain that started after building a bookcase at home three days ago. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. During the examination, you notice tenderness in the medial elbow joint and the patient reports discomfort when resisting wrist pronation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Golfer's elbow
Explanation:Epicondylitis results from repetitive stress that leads to inflammation of the common extensor tendon located at the epicondyle. Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfer’s elbow, causes tenderness at the medial epicondyle and results in wrist pain on resisted pronation. Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, causes tenderness at the lateral epicondyle and results in elbow pain on resisted extension of the wrist.
Common Causes of Elbow Pain
Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.
Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.
Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.
Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her left wrist, persisting for the past week. She also notices that her left wrist seems more swollen than her right. During the examination, she experiences discomfort over her radial styloid when her thumb is forcefully flexed.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is positive for Finkelstein test, indicating De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid when the thumb is forcefully abducted or flexed. Unlike De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, rheumatoid arthritis affects both sides of the body. Mallet thumb is an injury that causes the thumb to bend towards the palm. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that primarily affects the elderly due to mechanical wear and tear.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are asked to evaluate a 60-year-old man who has been experiencing increasing dryness in his eyes and mouth for several years but has not sought medical attention for it. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, as well as ongoing arthralgia in his large joints. At the age of 42, he underwent an ileocaecal resection due to Crohn's disease. Which of his risk factors is most closely linked to Sjogren's syndrome?
Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease.
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis cases are often accompanied by Sjogren’s syndrome, which primarily affects women aged 40 to 60. This condition is characterized by arthralgia and sicca symptoms such as dry mouth and dry eyes. Other connective tissue disorders, as well as SLE, are also linked to Sjogren’s syndrome.
Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It is an autoimmune disorder that can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The onset of the condition usually occurs around ten years after the initial onset of the primary disease. Sjogren’s syndrome is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with this condition have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely.
The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, check for hypergammaglobulinaemia, and low C4. Nearly 50% of patients with Sjogren’s syndrome test positive for rheumatoid factor, while 70% test positive for ANA. Additionally, 70% of patients with primary Sjogren’s syndrome have anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and 30% have anti-La (SSB) antibodies.
The management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears to alleviate dryness. Pilocarpine may also be used to stimulate saliva production. Understanding the symptoms and management of Sjogren’s syndrome is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure proper treatment and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with ankle pain following a football injury. He is able to bear weight, experiences pain below his lateral malleolus, and has no tenderness in the bone. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Request an ankle radiograph
Correct Answer: Give analgesia and review in 1 hour before discharge with advice
Explanation:Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules: Managing Foot and Ankle Injuries
Foot and ankle injuries are common, but it can be difficult to determine whether a patient has sustained a sprain or a fracture. The Ottawa ankle rules are a set of guidelines that can help clinicians decide whether a patient with foot or ankle pain requires radiographs to diagnose a possible fracture. By following these rules, unnecessary radiographs can be reduced by 25%.
When managing foot and ankle injuries, it is important to understand the Ottawa ankle rules and how they apply to each patient. If a patient does not meet the criteria for an ankle radiograph, simple analgesia and advice on managing a soft tissue injury may be sufficient. However, if a patient does meet the criteria, a radiograph may be necessary to diagnose a possible fracture.
By understanding and applying the Ottawa ankle rules, clinicians can provide appropriate and effective management for foot and ankle injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.
Hb 125 g/l
Platelets 390 * 109/l
WBC 9.5 * 109/l
ESR 78 mm/h
Rheumatoid Factor Negative
Antinuclear Antibody Negative
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinucleur antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinucleur antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with a 3-week history of shoulder pain in both shoulders. A shoulder X-ray taken 2 weeks ago did not reveal any signs of osteoarthritis. Her blood tests show an elevated ESR of 50mm/hour. What is the most appropriate course of action for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prescribe a trial of oral prednisolone 15mg daily and arrange follow up after 1 week to assess clinical response
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this patient strongly indicate the presence of polymyalgia rheumatica, and thus, a one-week course of steroids should be administered to produce a significant improvement. Prescribing paracetamol for a month is unlikely to yield any noticeable relief. An MRI scan is not likely to aid in the diagnosis. Administering a prolonged course of steroids without periodic review is not recommended.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is being examined for persistent back pain. What symptom would strongly indicate a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Pain on straight leg raising
Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by an early reduction in lateral flexion of the lumbar spine. Patients with this condition often experience a decrease in lumbar lordosis and an increase in thoracic kyphosis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with wrist pain after slipping in ill-fitting shoes. He reports having experienced progressive lumbar and hip pain over the past few years, which he attributed to old age. However, he denies any weight loss, night sweats, and feels otherwise well. A hand and wrist x-ray shows a hairline radial fracture. The patient's blood tests reveal Hb of 144 g/L, platelets of 340 * 109/L, WBC of 9.0 * 109/L, bilirubin of 14 µmol/L, ALP of 240 u/L, ALT of 30 u/L, γGT of 20 u/L, and albumin of 48 g/L. What is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Calcium supplementation
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are the preferred treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone, as illustrated by the case of an elderly man presenting with bone pain, isolated elevated ALP, and a fragility fracture. While calcitonin may be used in some cases, it is less effective and has a shorter duration of action. Calcium supplementation is not indicated unless the patient is experiencing hypocalcemia. DEXA scans are not necessary for diagnosis in this case, as the patient will already be started on bisphosphonates. While orthotics may be helpful for ill-fitting footwear, they do not address the underlying issue of Paget’s disease and the fragility fracture.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman is seen in the rheumatology clinic after being diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis 6 months ago. She was initially started on methotrexate, however, was unable to tolerate its side effects. The consultant is considering starting the patient on hydroxychloroquine.
What should happen before the patient begins treatment?Your Answer: Examination by an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Patients who will be on long-term hydroxychloroquine treatment must now undergo an initial ophthalmologic examination. Recent studies indicate that hydroxychloroquine-induced retinopathy is more prevalent than previously believed. The latest guidelines from RCOphth (March 2018) recommend color retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula for patients who are expected to take the medication for more than five years. While it is recommended to conduct a complete blood count and assess renal and liver function when starting hydroxychloroquine, other options are unnecessary.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman presents to gastroenterology clinic with severe ulcerative colitis. Before starting azathioprine to improve her symptoms, what potential contraindications should be ruled out?
Your Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency (TPMT)
Explanation:Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Correct
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A 68-year-old complains of tingling and numbness in his left little and ring finger. He states that the pain used to be intermittent but is now persistent. The pain intensifies when he puts pressure on his elbow, and he remembers fracturing his elbow as a child. Based on the provided medical history, what is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome results from the ulnar nerve being compressed, leading to tingling and numbness in the 4th and 5th fingers. This condition is often aggravated by leaning on the affected elbow and may be associated with osteoarthritis or prior injury. Medial epicondylitis causes pain in the medial elbow, not distal hand symptoms. Radial tunnel syndrome causes aching and paraesthesia in the hand and forearm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve and presents with pain and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and medial half of the ring finger. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically affects the base of the thumb.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Correct
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A highly active 12-year-old boy who plays football for his local team reports knee pain for several months. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the tibial tuberosity.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Young Patients
Knee pain is a common complaint among young patients, especially those who are active in sports. Here are some of the most common causes of knee pain in this population:
1. Osgood-Schlatter disease: This condition is caused by overuse of quadriceps, putting strain on the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia, which is not yet fully developed. The key clinical examination finding is tenderness over the tibial tuberosity, and there may well be a bony lump over the area as well.
2. Patellar subluxation: This describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella. Patients may describe the knee ‘giving way’ or feeling it move out of place, most commonly during activity such as running or jumping.
3. Chondromalacia patellae: This is caused by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. Patients will describe anterior knee pain, which is worse after sitting for a prolonged length of time, or for activities including walking down the stairs, jumping, running or climbing.
4. Osteoarthritis: This is a disease of older age, owing to degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in the weight-bearing areas, including the knee and hip, as well as in the hands.
5. Osteochondritis dissecans: This is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface, and affects the knee in 75% of cases. It tends to present in teenagers and young adults, with a vague and achy joint pain that is made worse by activity, and may be accompanied by swelling.
It is important to note that knee pain in children could also be due to hip pathology, such as SUFE (slipped upper femoral epiphysis). Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for the long-term health of the joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Correct
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A 65-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with complaints of pain behind her right eye and pain across her right forehead and scalp whenever she brushes her hair. She also mentions experiencing increased difficulty while eating.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Explanation:Temporal arteritis should be considered in an older patient experiencing a sudden onset of unilateral headache accompanied by jaw claudication and elevated ESR. Trigeminal neuralgia typically does not cause jaw stiffness, while acute angle-closure glaucoma presents with a red eye and does not involve jaw claudication. Although TMJ dysfunction can cause pain during chewing and extend to the scalp and headache, there is no additional information to suggest this as the cause. Therefore, temporal arteritis is the more probable diagnosis.
Understanding Temporal Arteritis
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). It is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. This condition typically affects individuals who are over 60 years old and has a rapid onset, usually occurring in less than a month. The most common symptoms include headache and jaw claudication, while vision testing is a crucial investigation for all patients.
Temporal arteritis can lead to various ocular complications, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common. This results from the occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Patients may experience temporary visual loss or even permanent visual loss, which is the most feared complication of this condition. Other symptoms may include diplopia, tender and palpable temporal artery, and features of PMR such as aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers such as an ESR of over 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to check for skip lesions. Urgent high-dose glucocorticoids should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected, and an ophthalmologist should review patients with visual symptoms on the same day. Treatment may also involve bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
In summary, temporal arteritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible visual damage. Patients who experience symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances should seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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