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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man with a medical history of hyperlipidaemia and hypertension arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a medical history of hyperlipidaemia and hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cough and difficulty breathing that has been getting worse over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, he is not running a fever, has a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and an oxygen saturation level of 95% on room air. During chest auscultation, the patient displays fine crackles in both lung bases. Additionally, a new audible systolic murmur is detected at the apex.

      What is the most likely cause of the patient's pulmonary symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pleural effusion

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pulmonary Oedema

      The patient in question is likely suffering from flash pulmonary oedema, which can be caused by mitral valve regurgitation due to mitral valve disease. This is supported by the patient’s advanced age, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and the presence of a new systolic murmur at the apex. The backup of blood into the left atrium and pulmonary vasculature can lead to transudation of fluid into the pulmonary alveolar space, causing pulmonary oedema.

      While pericardial effusion could also lead to pulmonary congestion, it would likely manifest with Beck’s triad of distant heart sounds, hypotension, and distended neck veins. Pleural effusion, on the other hand, would result in quieter sounds on auscultation and dullness to percussion. Lobar pneumonia would be accompanied by a fever and crackles on auscultation, but would not explain the new systolic murmur. Finally, left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, such as aortic stenosis, would cause a different type of murmur at the right upper sternal border, which is not present in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old woman with known asthma presents to the Emergency Department with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with known asthma presents to the Emergency Department with severe breathlessness and wheeze.
      Which of the following is the most concerning finding on examination and initial investigations?

      Your Answer: Heart rate 140 bpm

      Correct Answer: PaCO2 5.5 kPa

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Severity of an Acute Asthma Exacerbation

      When assessing the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation, several factors must be considered. A PaCO2 level of 5.5 kPa in an acutely exacerbating asthmatic is a worrying sign and is a marker of a life-threatening exacerbation. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute or higher is a sign of acute severe asthma, while poor respiratory effort is a sign of life-threatening asthma. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can also be used to help assess the severity of an acute exacerbation of asthma. A PEFR of 33-35% best or predicted is a sign of acute severe asthma, while a PEFR < 33% best or predicted is a sign of life-threatening asthma. A heart rate of 140 bpm or higher is a feature of acute severe asthma, while arrhythmia and/or hypotension are signs of life-threatening asthma. Inability to complete sentences in one breath is a sign of acute severe asthma, while an altered conscious level is a sign of life-threatening asthma. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory symptoms and is subsequently diagnosed with aspergillus infection. What is a common pulmonary manifestation of Aspergillus infection?

      Your Answer: Prominent mediastinal lymphadenopathy

      Correct Answer: Allergic asthma

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis

      Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus. It can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs. The pulmonary manifestations of aspergillosis include allergic reactions, bronchocentric granulomatosis, necrotising aspergillosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, aspergilloma, and bronchial stump infection.

      Allergic reactions can manifest as allergic asthma or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). Patients may experience recurrent wheezing, fever, and transient opacities on chest X-ray. In later stages, bronchiectasis may develop.

      Bronchocentric granulomatosis is characterised by granuloma of bronchial mucosa with eosinophilic infiltrates. Chest X-ray shows a focal upper lobe lesion, and there may be haemoptysis.

      Necrotising aspergillosis is usually found in immunocompromised patients. Chest X-ray shows spreading infiltrates, and there is invasion of blood vessels.

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis, may occur in certain professions like malt workers. Four to 8 hours after exposure, there is an allergic reaction characterised by fever, chill, malaise, and dyspnoea. Serum IgE concentrations are normal.

      Aspergilloma is saprophytic colonisation in pre-existing cavities. Haemoptysis is the most frequent symptom. Chest X-ray shows Monod’s sign, and gravitational change of position of the mass can be demonstrated.

      Bronchial stump infection is usually found in post-surgery cases when silk suture is used. If nylon suture is used, this problem is eliminated. This can also occur in lung transplants at the site of anastomosis of bronchi.

      Understanding the Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      110.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
      Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?

      Your Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients

      COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is admitted to hospital with sudden-onset shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation levels are 82%, respiratory rate (RR) 25 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min), his trachea is central, he has reduced breath sounds in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm translucent border at the base of the right lung.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Intubation

      Correct Answer: Intrapleural chest drain

      Explanation:

      Management of Spontaneous Pneumothorax in a Patient with COPD

      When a patient with COPD presents with a spontaneous pneumothorax, prompt intervention is necessary. Smoking is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax, and recurrence rates are high for secondary pneumothorax. In deciding between needle aspiration and intrapleural chest drain, the size of the pneumothorax is crucial. In this case, the patient’s pneumothorax was >2 cm, requiring an intrapleural chest drain. Intubation and NIV are not necessary interventions at this time. Observation alone is not sufficient, and the patient requires urgent intervention due to low oxygen saturation, high respiratory rate, shortness of breath, and reduced breath sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.
      Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?

      Your Answer: Pulse rate 105 bpm

      Correct Answer: Normal PaCO2

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Severity in Acute Asthma Attacks

      Acute asthma is a serious medical emergency that can lead to fatalities. To assess the severity of an asthma attack, several factors must be considered. Severe asthma is characterized by a peak flow of 33-50% of predicted or best, a respiratory rate of over 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a peak flow of less than 33% of predicted or best, a silent chest, cyanosis, and arterial blood gas showing high or normal PaCO2, which reflects reduced respiratory effort. Additionally, arterial blood gas showing hypoxia (PaO2 <8 kPa) or acidosis is also a sign of life-threatening asthma. Any life-threatening features require immediate critical care and senior medical review. A peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% of predicted or best is a feature of an acute severe asthma attack. However, a pulse rate of 105 bpm is not a marker of severity in asthma due to its lack of specificity. Respiratory alkalosis, which is a condition characterized by low carbon dioxide levels, is actually a reassuring picture on the blood gas. In contrast, a normal carbon dioxide level would be a concern if the person is working that hard. Finally, the inability to complete full sentences is another feature of acute severe asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness after being exposed to smoke during a house fire. He reports vomiting twice and experiencing a headache and dizziness.
      Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachypnoeic with good air entry, and his oxygen saturations are at 100% on air. He appears drowsy, but his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, and there are no signs of head injury on his neurological examination.
      What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Correct Answer: High-flow oxygen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Smoke Inhalation Injury

      Smoke inhalation injury can lead to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and vomiting. It is important to note that normal oxygen saturation may be present despite respiratory distress due to the inability of a pulse oximeter to differentiate between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, any conscious patient with suspected CO poisoning should be immediately treated with high-flow oxygen, which can reduce the half-life of carboxyhaemoglobin from up to four hours to 90 minutes.

      Cyanide poisoning, which is comparatively rare, can also be caused by smoke inhalation. The treatment of choice for cyanide poisoning is a combination of hydroxocobalamin and sodium thiosulphate.

      Hyperbaric oxygen may be beneficial for managing patients with CO poisoning, but high-flow oxygen should be provided immediately while waiting for initiation. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen include an unconscious patient, COHb > 25%, pH < 7.1, and evidence of end-organ damage due to CO poisoning. Bronchodilators such as nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium may be useful as supportive care in cases of inhalation injury where signs of bronchospasm occur. However, in this case, compatible signs such as wheeze and reduced air entry are not present. Metoclopramide may provide symptomatic relief of nausea, but it does not replace the need for immediate high-flow oxygen. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of high-flow oxygen in patients with suspected smoke inhalation injury. Managing Smoke Inhalation Injury: Treatment Options and Priorities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man was in a car accident and was taken to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was in a car accident and was taken to the Emergency Department where a chest tube was inserted to drain fluid. The thoracic wall is composed of several structures, including the skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, parietal pleura, and visceral pleura. What is the correct order of structures that the tube would pass through during the procedure?

      Your Answer: 4-5-1-3-2

      Correct Answer: 2-5-1-3-4

      Explanation:

      Correct Order of Structures Traversed in Chest Drain Insertion

      When inserting a chest drain, it is important to know the correct order of structures that will be traversed. The order is as follows: skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, and parietal pleura.

      The external intercostal muscles are encountered first in chest drain insertion before the internal and innermost intercostal muscles, as suggested by their names. The skin is the first structure to be traversed by the tube. The parietal pleura lines the inner surface of the thoracic cavity and is the outer boundary of the pleural cavity. The chest drain tip should enter the pleural cavity which is bound by the parietal and visceral pleura. The parietal pleura is therefore encountered before reaching the visceral pleura. The visceral pleura should not be penetrated in chest drain insertion.

      Knowing the correct order of structures to be traversed during chest drain insertion is crucial to ensure the procedure is done safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He has recently developed a red/purple nodular rash on both shins. He has a history of mild asthma and continues to smoke ten cigarettes per day. On examination, he has mild wheezing and red/purple nodules on both shins. His blood pressure is 135/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 75/min and regular. The following investigations were performed: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, sodium, potassium, creatinine, and corrected calcium. His chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Chest Symptoms, Erythema Nodosum, and Hypercalcaemia: Sarcoidosis vs. Other Conditions

      When a patient presents with chest symptoms, erythema nodosum, hypercalcaemia, and signs of systemic inflammation, sarcoidosis is a likely diagnosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a transbronchial biopsy is usually performed to demonstrate the presence of non-caseating granulomata. Alternatively, skin lesions or lymph nodes may provide a source of tissue for biopsy. Corticosteroids are the main treatment for sarcoidosis.

      Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include asthma, bronchial carcinoma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and primary hyperparathyroidism. However, the presence of erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are more suggestive of sarcoidosis than these other conditions. While hypercalcaemia may be a symptom of primary hyperparathyroidism, the additional symptoms and findings in this patient suggest a more complex diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old female with a 10 year history of asthma presents with increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female with a 10 year history of asthma presents with increasing dyspnoea after returning from a trip to Australia. She has not had a period in three months. On examination, she has a fever of 37.5°C, a pulse rate of 110/min, a blood pressure of 106/74 mmHg, and saturations of 93% on room air. Her respiratory rate is 24/min and auscultation of the chest reveals vesicular breath sounds. Peak flow is 500 L/min and her ECG shows no abnormalities except for a heart rate of 110 bpm. A chest x-ray is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors and Symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism

      This patient presents with multiple risk factors for pulmonary embolism, including air travel and likely pregnancy. She is experiencing tachycardia and hypoxia, which require further explanation. However, there are no indications of a respiratory tract infection or acute asthma. It is important to note that an ECG and CXR may appear normal in cases of pulmonary embolism or may only show baseline tachycardia on the ECG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the patient’s risk factors and symptoms when evaluating for pulmonary embolism. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      55.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (1/10) 10%
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