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  • Question 1 - John, a 16-year-old boy, needs to undergo a medical procedure. He wants to...

    Incorrect

    • John, a 16-year-old boy, needs to undergo a medical procedure. He wants to make the decision himself without involving his parents. What is the age of consent in the UK for a young person to make their own medical decisions?

      Your Answer: 18-years-old

      Correct Answer: 12-years-old

      Explanation:

      Children’s Competence in Medical Decision-Making

      When children turn 16 years old, they are considered legally competent to make their own decisions regarding medical treatment. However, for children under the age of 16, an assessment of their competence must be conducted before they can make their own decisions. Once deemed competent, they can provide consent for medical examinations and treatments without requiring parental consent. This means that if a child agrees to a specific treatment, healthcare professionals do not need to seek permission from their parents. It is important to note that this only applies to medical decisions and not other legal matters, such as signing contracts or voting.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old gentleman comes in seeking benefits due to his poor vision. He...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old gentleman comes in seeking benefits due to his poor vision. He has been experiencing this for quite some time and had to give up driving a few months ago as he felt it was no longer safe.

      Regarding the registration of sight impairment, who is authorized to issue a certificate of vision impairment?

      Your Answer: Consultant ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Registration for People with Sight Impairment

      Registration for people with sight impairment is not mandatory, but it provides access to benefits and low vision services. To complete the registration process, a consultant ophthalmologist must fill out a certificate of vision impairment. There are two categories for registration: severely sight-impaired (blind) and sight-impaired/partially sighted. The severely sight-impaired category includes people with corrected visual acuity worse than 3/60 or corrected visual acuity of 3/60 to 6/60 with a contracted field of vision. It also includes people with corrected visual acuity of 6/60 or better who have a contracted field of vision, especially if it is in the lower part of the field. The sight-impaired/partially sighted category includes any person who is substantially and permanently handicapped by defective vision caused by a congenital defect, illness, or injury.

      For more information on registering for sight impairment as a disability, visit the .Gov website or the RNIB website. Additionally, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists has published a guide on low vision that may be of general interest to healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old gentleman presents to you with a recent diagnosis of mild obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old gentleman presents to you with a recent diagnosis of mild obstructive sleep apnoea (AHI<15). He holds a group 1 driving licence and is seeking advice regarding driving. Upon reviewing the specialist's letter, you note that the patient has been prescribed night time continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation. What recommendations should you provide to the patient regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He can only drive once satisfactory control of his symptoms has been attained

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that is often overlooked, but it can have serious consequences for driving safety. Excessive daytime sleepiness caused by OSA has been linked to numerous road traffic accidents. Both group 1 and group 2 license holders have restrictions on driving if OSA continues to cause excessive awake time sleepiness. For group 1 drivers, they can resume driving once their symptoms are under control.

      The main issue is not treatment compliance, but rather the control of symptoms to eliminate excessive awake time sleepiness. Group 1 license holders do not require specialist approval to drive, and the method of treatment is not a determining factor. The DVLA uses the Apnea Hypopnea Index (AHI) to assess OSA, which may be unfamiliar to some. However, it is important to be familiar with it and interpret the latest DVLA guidance accordingly.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 4 - A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the receptionists. Who is accountable for arranging a different primary healthcare provider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The local clinical commissioning group

      Explanation:

      The responsibility of arranging alternative care falls on the local clinical commissioning group. To cater to aggressive or violent patients, several clinical commissioning groups may arrange primary care services that are tailored to their needs.

      Guidelines for Removing Patients from a Practice List

      Removing a patient from a practice list is a serious decision that should not be taken lightly. The Royal College guidelines provide clear examples of situations that may justify removal, such as unacceptable behavior like violence or deception like stealing from the practice. However, clinical matters like patient choice or critical questioning and complaints do not normally justify removal. It is important to note that removal is never justified based on age, gender, ethnic origin, religion, or sexual orientation.

      In exceptional situations where there is an ‘irretrievable breakdown’ in the doctor-patient relationship, a formal process should be agreed upon to try and rectify the problem. It is crucial to give reasons to the patient rather than unilaterally declaring an irretrievable breakdown.

      If removal is necessary, the following steps should be taken: give warning to the patient, inform the clinical commissioning group in writing, and write to the patient. It is important to note that the patient’s family should not be automatically removed, although in some cases, it may be necessary.

      Overall, removing a patient from a practice list should be a last resort and should only be done in accordance with the Royal College guidelines.

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  • Question 5 - A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure a few days after completing her final exams. The discharge summary and follow-up letter from the neurologist both indicate that this was an alcohol-related seizure. Despite having normal CT and EEG results, the student admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol before the seizure. She denies any previous alcohol misuse and has normal liver function tests. She has not consumed alcohol since the episode and has been advised to inform the DVLA. As a motorcyclist, she is concerned about any potential restrictions. How long should she refrain from using her motorcycle after experiencing a single alcohol-induced seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Fitness to Drive

      The DVLA provides guidance on fitness to drive, which takes into account different types of seizures, including those caused by alcohol. In this case scenario, the seizure is solitary and alcohol-induced, and the driver holds a Group one entitlement for cars and motorcycles.

      The DVLA distinguishes between different types of seizures, and provides specific conditions for the return or issue of a driving licence when there is a background of substance misuse or dependence. Independent medical assessment and consultant reports are usually necessary in these cases.

      It is important to note that the driving restrictions for Group one entitlement drivers, such as the student in this scenario, are the same as those for car drivers. However, if the student held a Group two entitlement for heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles, their licence would have been revoked for a minimum of five years.

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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man who has had epilepsy since his teens has not had...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man who has had epilepsy since his teens has not had a seizure for over 10 years. He has been on regular medication since diagnosis.

      He is interested in attempting to discontinue his medication and wishes to discuss the implications for his ability to drive if he were to experience a seizure while awake after reducing his medication.

      What is the duration of time that a patient with epilepsy who reduces and discontinues medication and subsequently experiences a seizure must abstain from driving a motor vehicle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Driving Regulations for Epileptic Patients

      If a person with epilepsy experiences a seizure, they must adhere to driving licence regulations before resuming driving. This includes counselling and meeting certain requirements. The current regulations state that the patient must be free of any epileptic seizures or attacks for at least one year from the date of their last attack. However, if the seizures only occur during sleep, the patient may be able to resume driving after a period of 6 months seizure-free following the reinstatement of treatment. It is important for individuals with epilepsy to understand and follow these regulations to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 7 - You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the...

    Incorrect

    • You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the treatment that she takes for her asthma. You think that this is largely because she has impaired hearing.

      In general terms, which of the following strategies is most likely to help?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minimising background noise

      Explanation:

      Communicating with Deaf and Hard-of-Hearing Patients

      When communicating with deaf and hard-of-hearing patients, it is important to minimise background noise and speak clearly at a normal or near normal rate. Non-verbal communication can also be helpful, as well as decreasing the pitch of your voice. Shouting should never be used, as it can be unpleasant and appear rude. Instead, use the patient’s name to get their attention and ask if they can hear you. Face them when speaking, as many deaf people use lip-reading to supplement their hearing aid(s) and what hearing they have. Remember that clear and polite communication is appreciated by the deaf and hard of hearing community.

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  • Question 8 - You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients with dermatologic problems and need to refer some of them to hospital. Unfortunately this is a long way away and many elderly patients find it difficult to travel.

      You think about setting up an audiovisual telemedicine clinic. Which one of the following statements is correct about audiovisual telemedicine clinics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There will need to be important organisational changes to the way in which you and your colleagues in secondary care work to make telemedicine work

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Implementing Telemedicine in Secondary Care

      There are several important organizational changes that need to be made in order for telemedicine to work effectively in secondary care. However, it is important to note that telemedicine clinics may not necessarily have economic benefits, as the costs of implementing the necessary technology can be expensive. Additionally, while patients may appreciate the convenience of not having to travel to see a specialist, they may still prefer face-to-face consultations. It is also unclear whether clinical outcomes will improve with the use of telemedicine. Finally, it is important to obtain explicit consent from patients before using any video consultations for teaching purposes. These considerations should be taken into account when considering the implementation of telemedicine in secondary care.

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  • Question 9 - In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas,...

    Incorrect

    • In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas, Concerns, and Expectation).
      Why do teachers use this phrase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To meet the criteria on the MRCGP marking schedule

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Patient Agenda with ICE

      Patients attend medical appointments for various reasons, and it is crucial for doctors to address their concerns and expectations to be effective communicators. This is known as the Patient Agenda, which can be explored using the Ideas, Concerns, and Expectations (ICE) instrument.

      For instance, a patient with a sore throat may have different reasons for attending. It could be due to their belief that any illness should be brought to the doctor’s attention or a worry that the sore throat is a symptom of a more severe condition.

      As doctors, it is essential to understand the patient’s agenda to provide appropriate care. However, asking patients what they think is wrong may not always yield helpful responses. Some patients may respond with You’re the doctor, you tell me, which can be uncomfortable.

      In conclusion, understanding the patient agenda and using ICE can help doctors address patients’ concerns and expectations effectively.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements regarding Local Medical Committees (LMC) is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Local Medical Committees (LMC) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LMC members include GP Registrars

      Explanation:

      Local Medical Committees: Representing the Interests of GPs

      Local Medical Committees (LMCs) were established in 1911 as part of Lloyd George’s National Insurance Act to ensure that GPs had a say in the government’s health insurance scheme. LMCs represent the interests of GPs on a local level, while a committee within the British Medical Association (BMA) represents GPs on a national level to the government. This committee, now called the General Practitioners Committee (GPC), has the authority to negotiate with the government on matters such as pay and contracts and is recognised by the Department of Health as the GP’s sole negotiating body.

      LMCs are funded by a statutory levy on GPs and may cover the area which corresponds to one or more Clinical Commissioning Groups. LMC members are elected and include partners, salaried doctors, and GP Registrars from both GMS and PMS practices. The GPC meets annually with the representatives of the LMCs, who may submit motions for the conference. These motions may then go on to form GPC policy.

      Overall, LMCs play an important role in representing the interests of GPs on a local level and ensuring that their voices are heard in the government’s decision-making processes.

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  • Question 11 - What is a Roger Neighbour 'checkpoint'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a Roger Neighbour 'checkpoint'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Safety Netting

      Explanation:

      Neighbour’s Consultation Model for Telehealth

      Roger Neighbour’s consultation model for doctors has been adapted for telehealth consultations. The model breaks down the consultation into five checkpoints that doctors should consider during the consultation.

      The first checkpoint is connecting, which involves building rapport with the patient. This is especially important in telehealth consultations where the doctor and patient may not have met before. The second checkpoint is summarising, which involves listening and eliciting information from the patient. This is important in all consultations, but particularly in telehealth where non-verbal cues may be missed.

      The third checkpoint is handing over, which involves explaining and negotiating with the patient. This is important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may need to explain complex medical information to the patient. The fourth checkpoint is safety netting, which involves anticipating potential issues and dealing with uncertainty. This is particularly important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may not have access to all the patient’s medical information.

      The final checkpoint is housekeeping, which involves addressing the doctor’s own needs. This is important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may be working from home and need to ensure they have a suitable environment for the consultation. By following these checkpoints, doctors can ensure that their telehealth consultations are effective and provide the best possible care for their patients.

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  • Question 12 - In what instances is it appropriate to use abbreviations for causes of death...

    Incorrect

    • In what instances is it appropriate to use abbreviations for causes of death on a death certificate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MI

      Explanation:

      Avoid Abbreviations on Death Certificates

      Abbreviations should be avoided on death certificates as they may not be easily understood by others and could lead to confusion in interpreting the certificate. This could result in errors in medical research or legal proceedings. The only exceptions to this rule are HIV for human immunodeficiency virus infection and AIDS for acquired immune deficiency syndrome, which the registrar can accept. It is important to ensure that death certificates are clear and concise to accurately reflect the cause of death and provide important information for public health purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use full words instead of abbreviations on death certificates.

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  • Question 13 - A patient has passed away at home.
    The pediatrician knows that the cause of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has passed away at home.
      The pediatrician knows that the cause of death is pneumonia, but she has not seen the patient for a while and is worried that she has not seen the patient within the legal timeframe that permits her to write on the death certificate.
      What is the duration of this legal timeframe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance on Death Certification in England and Wales

      The guidance on death certification in England and Wales was recently updated in March 2022. One significant change was the extension of the period of time for seeing a patient before death from 14 days to 28 days. While this may be an important learning point for doctors, it is uncertain whether it will be tested in the RCGP exam as candidates are expected to know guidance that applies to all parts of the UK, including Scotland. Nonetheless, this information is still useful for doctors working in England and Wales. The UK government has provided guidance for doctors completing medical certificates of cause of death in these regions.

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  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon examination, you observe several bruises on her arms. She confides in you that there have been issues at home, but she is hesitant to involve law enforcement. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give her the details of a domestic violence support group

      Explanation:

      Dealing with scenarios involving domestic violence can be challenging. It is important to seek advice from domestic violence support groups as they have specific knowledge and resources to offer practical advice on housing and financial issues. General counseling services may not be equipped to provide such support and may inadvertently blame the victim. While it is still good practice to document injuries, drawing a diagram may not be necessary if the victim is not ready to involve the police. Checking the victim’s bloods is unlikely to be relevant as the bruises are likely a result of violence by their partner. Breaking confidentiality should only be considered if there is a fear for the victim’s life, as it may put them at further risk. Phoning the partner directly is not recommended as it violates confidentiality and may lead to retribution against the victim.

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  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon reviewing his records, you discover that he was recently admitted to the hospital due to a possible seizure. His wife witnessed unusual jerking movements while he was asleep, and he is currently undergoing investigations to rule out epilepsy. The consultant neurologist has advised him not to drive, but you saw him driving his bus just three days ago. When confronted, he admits to still driving and refuses to inform DVLA as he has not received a definite diagnosis and believes there is no issue. Despite informing him of his legal duty to inform DVLA, he still refuses. As a doctor, what is your duty in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should contact DVLA immediately disclosing the situation to them in confidence situation without the patient's knowledge

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance and Doctor’s Duties in Cases of Seizures

      This case highlights the importance of following DVLA guidance when it comes to seizures. If a driver experiences a seizure, they have a duty to inform DVLA and refrain from driving until a diagnosis is made. Depending on the diagnosis, they may be required to not drive for a further period.

      According to GMC guidance, if a doctor advises a patient that they may not drive, they should suggest and arrange a second opinion for the patient. In this case, the doctor is the second opinion and a third opinion is not necessary.

      If the patient refuses to inform DVLA of their condition, the doctor has a duty to disclose the information. However, they must inform the patient prior to the disclosure and confirm in writing that the disclosure has been made. It is important for doctors to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.

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  • Question 16 - What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recirculation

      Explanation:

      The Cycle of Change: Understanding the Stages of Personal Transformation

      The Cycle of Change is a model that illustrates the different stages individuals go through when making changes in their lives. The first stage is precontemplation, where the person is not yet aware that a problem exists. The next stage is contemplation, where the person begins to recognize the issue and considers making a change. The third stage is action, where the person takes steps towards making the change. The fourth stage is maintenance, where the person works to sustain the change. However, it is important to note that relapse can occur, which is a full return to the old behavior.

      Understanding the Cycle of Change can be helpful in personal transformation, as it allows individuals to recognize where they are in the process and what steps they need to take to move forward. By acknowledging the different stages and potential setbacks, individuals can better prepare themselves for the challenges that come with making significant changes in their lives.

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  • Question 17 - Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting to discuss any problems and there are many questions from all members of staff.
      Which one of the following statements about confidentiality is correct?

      Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting to discuss any problems and there are many questions from all members of staff.
      Which one of the following statements about confidentiality is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rules about the confidentiality of data do not legally apply to emails

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Data: Applicable to All Storage and Transmission Methods

      The confidentiality of data is a crucial aspect of information security. It is important to note that the rules regarding data confidentiality apply to all means of storage and transmission, whether it is done manually or electronically. This means that regardless of how data is stored or sent, it must be kept confidential and protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. Therefore, it is essential to implement appropriate security measures to ensure the confidentiality of data, such as encryption, access controls, and secure transmission protocols.

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  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of amenorrhoea. On examination you diagnose a mid trimester pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a single live foetus of approximately 24 weeks gestation with multiple congenital defects including left ventricular hypoplasia.

      She comes to you for further discussion, having talked to the gynaecologist and neonatal paediatrician. She decides that she wishes to be referred for a termination of pregnancy.

      Who must sign the HSA 1 Form before a termination of pregnancy may proceed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A gynaecologist and any other registered doctor

      Explanation:

      Abortion Laws in the UK

      Under the UK Abortion Act 1967, a registered medical practitioner may terminate a pregnancy if two other registered medical practitioners agree and sign in good faith that certain conditions relating to the woman or her unborn foetus apply. These conditions were updated in 1990, but the requirement for two signatures remains unchanged. It is important to note that this requirement applies regardless of the stage of the pregnancy.

      To comply with these laws, healthcare providers must complete the HSA1 and HSA2 abortion forms. These forms require detailed information about the woman’s medical history and the reasons for seeking an abortion. The forms must also include the signatures of the two medical practitioners who have agreed that the conditions for a legal abortion have been met.

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  • Question 19 - A 75-year-old gentleman was confirmed to have mild dementia after a review in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman was confirmed to have mild dementia after a review in the local memory clinic. He wants more information on whether he can continue to drive his car to the nearby shops.

      According to DVLA guidance, which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate advice about continuing to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should inform the DVLA of his new diagnosis for further potential assessment

      Explanation:

      Importance of Informing DVLA about Mild Dementia

      Although the patient’s dementia is classified as mild, it is crucial for him to inform the DVLA to determine if he can still drive safely.

      It is important to note that individuals with mild cognitive impairment, not mild dementia, may still be able to drive without any impairment and do not need to notify the DVLA.

      However, in this case, the patient should liaise with the DVLA to determine the next appropriate steps, which may include driving restrictions or cessation.

      It is essential to prioritize safety on the road, and informing the DVLA is a crucial step in ensuring this.

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  • Question 20 - You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's...

    Incorrect

    • You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's family. This year, you receive a deluxe collection from an expensive retailer from the family and you are astonished to see that it costs £110.

      What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thank the patient and accept the gifts

      Explanation:

      Registering Gifts as a GP

      As a GP, it is important to register any gifts received from patients or their relatives that are worth £100 or more, unless the gift is unrelated to the provision of services. This applies to all GPs, including locums, and equivalent regulations operate throughout the UK. The register should include the name of the donor, nature of the gift, and its estimated value. CCGs may request to see these registers. GPs may also need to seek tax advice for declaring large gifts. It is recommended to contact your trade union or indemnity provider if unsure about any gift policy. Most practices have their own gift policy, so it is worth asking about this when joining a new practice.

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  • Question 21 - Michael Balint wrote a book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Illness, on...

    Incorrect

    • Michael Balint wrote a book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Illness, on the doctor-patient relationship, in which he coined a number of phrases.

      Which one of the following can be attributed to him and was written in his book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Sickness, when he was in his thirties?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Drug Doctor

      Explanation:

      Balint’s Contributions to the Sociological Model of Consultation

      Balint, a Hungarian psychologist who worked at the Tavistock clinic in London, made significant contributions to the sociological model of consultation. In his book, he introduced the term drug doctor to describe the therapeutic effect of doctors themselves, which is essentially effective reassurance.

      The sociological model of consultation includes three key elements: Charismatic Authority, Sapiential Authority, and Values and Norms. Charismatic Authority refers to the doctor’s ability to inspire trust and confidence in their patients. Sapiential Authority, on the other hand, is the doctor’s knowledge and expertise in their field. Lastly, Values and Norms pertain to the shared beliefs and expectations between the doctor and patient.

      Balint’s work highlights the importance of the doctor-patient relationship in the healing process. By recognizing the therapeutic effect of doctors themselves, doctors can better understand their role in the consultation and provide more effective reassurance to their patients.

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  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He recently experienced acute mechanical lower back pain after twisting his back while working in the garden two weeks ago. He self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note and then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last one week.

      Upon reviewing the notes, you notice that your colleague marked the fit note as you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice and has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked, I will not need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.

      He works in a factory and some of his duties involve heavy lifting, but he is still able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. He informs you that his back has fully recovered, but his employer has requested a fit note stating that he is fit to resume his full work activities.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You do not need to sign a 'return to work' note - he may return to full duties without any further input or paperwork from yourself

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note: What You Need to Know

      When you’re on sick leave, your employer may ask you to sign a return to work note. However, you should know that you are not obligated to sign it. Employers may ask for this note to protect themselves or for insurance purposes, but you have the right to return to work at any time, even before the end of your sick note.

      It’s important to inform your employer that you can return to work without seeing your doctor again, even if the doctor has indicated that they need to assess you again. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) has provided guidance for employers and managers, which states that as long as a suitable risk assessment has taken place, returning to work early will not breach your Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance.

      In summary, if you’re asked to sign a return to work note, remember that you have the right to return to work at any time and that you don’t need to sign the note. Refer your employer to the DWP guidance for employers and managers to ensure that they understand their obligations and your rights.

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  • Question 23 - A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother from cancer of the colon. She is anxious to know the risks of familial tendency, and would like access to her mother's records.

      You know this young woman was fathered by someone else (not her mother's husband) who still lives in the village, but this fact is unknown to her. Her mother stipulated before death that her records should be confidential.

      In accordance with the access to medical records act of 1990, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You may not charge a fee for access

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Deceased Person’s Information

      When dealing with the records of a deceased person, it is important to respect their wishes regarding the disclosure of information. If the deceased person had explicitly stated that certain information should remain confidential, or if the record contains sensitive information that the deceased person expected to remain private, then it must be kept confidential.

      However, if the mother of the deceased person requests that certain information be kept confidential, then the rest of the records can be released. It is up to the record holder to make a judgement call on whether the information could be harmful to the applicant or if it would identify a third party. In any case, it is crucial to handle the information with care and respect the wishes of the deceased person and their family.

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  • Question 24 - A seasoned General Practice (GP) manager observes that GP consultations appear to have...

    Incorrect

    • A seasoned General Practice (GP) manager observes that GP consultations appear to have evolved, particularly in terms of the types of consultation and the age groups that consult the most frequently. She conducts an audit of the number and types of consultations that occurred in the past three years and compares these findings to a previous audit conducted in 2000. It is observed that there have been some significant changes, which are consistent with similar national analyses.
      What is the most probable recent trend in GP consultations concerning age groups?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frequent attenders consult, on average, five times more than the rest of the Practice population

      Explanation:

      Changes in General Practice Consultation Trends: A Retrospective Cohort Study

      A retrospective cohort study has revealed significant changes in General Practice (GP) consultation trends, particularly in the type of consultations offered. The COVID-19 pandemic has led to a shift away from face-to-face consultations towards other means of consulting. Frequent attenders are now consulting proportionally more over time, accounting for almost half of all GP consultations and five times more than the rest of the Practice population. This trend is evident across all consultation modalities, including face-to-face. However, the proportion of consultations with frequent attenders has dropped since 2000, despite GP consultations with frequent attenders increasing from a median of 13% to 21% over the same period. Currently, one in ten GP consultations (of any type) are with frequent attenders, and these have proportionally increased in the last 20 years. Although there has been a reduction in face-to-face consultations and a significant increase in online/telephone consultations, overall appointments have continued to increase. Face-to-face consultations have reduced in number, both for GPs and other clinical staff.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being a victim of domestic abuse by his partner.
      Which of the following choices is LEAST PROBABLE to corroborate his statement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He had to strike the partner because she 'wound him up'

      Explanation:

      Understanding Domestic Violence: Identifying Victims and Perpetrators

      Domestic violence is a form of abusive and controlling behavior that gives the abuser power over the victim. It is not limited to heterosexual relationships and can occur in any kind of relationship. According to a survey conducted in 2012-2013, 7.1% of women and 4.4% of men reported experiencing domestic violence.

      It is crucial to correctly identify whether the patient is a victim or a perpetrator as incorrect identification can have severe consequences for the patient, their partner, and any children involved. Striking out at a partner is an action of a perpetrator, and no matter how annoying they find their partner, they are not legally allowed to hurt them. The other four options could be examples of abuse against the perpetrator.

      For those interested in learning more about the issues surrounding male victims of domestic violence, the Respect Toolkit for Work with Male Victims of Domestic Violence (2019) provides an excellent overview.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man is admitted to hospital after an episode of mildly impaired...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is admitted to hospital after an episode of mildly impaired speech and left leg weakness.

      An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and a CT scan shows a small area of infarction in the territory of the middle cerebral artery on the right. He is started on warfarin and simvastatin and makes a full recovery within two days.

      For how long should he refrain from driving his car?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One month

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Drivers with Cerebrovascular Disease

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for drivers who have experienced cerebrovascular disease. If the driver holds a Group one entitlement, they may continue driving after a one-month period of recovery, provided there are no residual neurological deficits. However, if the patient had been a lorry driver, their licence would be refused or revoked for a year.

      If the driver has made a full recovery and has not suffered a seizure during or after the cerebral event, they do not need to notify the DVLA unless there is a residual neurological deficit one month after the episode. If there is a residual deficit, the driver must notify the DVLA and be subject to further checks.

      It is important to note that the DVLA guidelines state that the driver must not drive for one month after experiencing occlusive cerebrovascular disease. After this period, they may resume driving if their clinical recovery is satisfactory. Overall, it is crucial for drivers to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 27 - What is the fundamental nature of the Personal Medical Services agreement? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the fundamental nature of the Personal Medical Services agreement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Local contract which reflects local patient needs

      Explanation:

      A standard agreement for healthcare providers who have not met the requirements outlined in the General Medical Services (GMS) contract.

      The PMS contract is a contract that is agreed and managed locally. Its original objectives were to provide greater freedom for GPs to address the needs of their patients, encourage innovative and flexible ways of working, and address under-doctored areas. The contract includes core and additional services, similar to the GMS contract, but with additional services that may include community endoscopy. SPMS contracts can be customized to meet the needs of specific communities, such as refugees. Historically, GPs working under the PMS contract have earned more than those under the GMS contract, but this may change in the near future.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 28 - What are the three ego states that patients operate in according to the...

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    • What are the three ego states that patients operate in according to the transactional analysis approach to consultation, and which one of these states is included?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Humanist

      Explanation:

      Transactional Approach to Doctor-Patient Relations

      The transactional approach to doctor-patient relations involves three ego states: parent, adult, and child. During a consultation, each person assumes one of these positions, and problems can arise when these positions cross. This model emphasizes the importance of clear communication and understanding between the doctor and patient. By recognizing and addressing these ego states, doctors can better understand their patients’ needs and provide effective care.

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  • Question 29 - A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a holiday company. He developed a moderately severe depressive illness 12 months ago, presenting with poor memory, poor concentration and suicidal thoughts. He has been off work since then.

      He has responded well to a selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and feels that the medication doesn't impair him in any way. He feels ready to return to work.

      What is the recommended duration of stability on medication for a patient with moderate depression before driving with a Group 2 licence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Driving with Anxiety and Depression: DVLA Guidelines

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with anxiety and depressive illnesses who wish to drive. If the illness is more than just mild, meaning it includes significant memory or concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts, the DVLA must be informed. However, if the person is well and stable for a period of six months, driving may be permitted. It is important to note that medication must not cause side effects that interfere with alertness or concentration. If the anxiety or depression is long-standing and maintained symptom-free on doses of psychotropic medication that do not impair, driving is usually permitted. In some cases, the DVLA may require psychiatric reports. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 30 - A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed...

    Incorrect

    • A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed fracture of the tibia following a playground accident and is expected to wear a cast for 8 weeks.

      The child's father says that he will need help with bathing and transport to school and wonders about financial assistance because domestic finances are tight.

      Regarding the Disability Living Allowance (DLA) for under 16s, what advice would you give him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The child must have needed care for the preceding month to be eligible

      Explanation:

      Disability Living Allowance (DLA) and Personal Independence Payment (PIP)

      Disability Living Allowance (DLA) is a tax-free benefit that assists with the additional expenses of caring for a child who requires assistance due to a disability or health condition. The benefit is paid to the child’s parent or caregiver, such as a step-parent, guardian, grandparent, foster parent, or older sibling over the age of 18. To qualify for DLA, the child must require more day-to-day assistance than other children of the same age without a disability, and the assistance must have been necessary for at least three months and expected to continue for at least six months. DLA is made up of a care component and a mobility component, with varying rates for each.

      Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is gradually replacing DLA for individuals aged 16 or older who have not yet reached State Pension age. PIP is designed to assist with the additional expenses of living with a disability or health condition and is based on an individual’s ability to carry out daily living activities and mobility. PIP is also tax-free and is made up of two components: daily living and mobility. The daily living component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate, while the mobility component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate.

      Overall, both DLA and PIP are essential benefits that provide financial assistance to those who require additional support due to a disability or health condition.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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