-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 32 year old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough and an enlarged cervical lymph node. Examination reveals a caseating granuloma in the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: TB adenitis
Explanation:Tuberculous lymphadenitis is a chronic, specific granulomatous inflammation of the lymph node with caseation necrosis, caused by infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis or a related bacteria. The characteristic morphological element is the tuberculous granuloma (caseating tubercle).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she be treated?
Your Answer: Acyclovir
Explanation:Acyclovir is the correct answer. There has been no documented evidence of harm in pregnancy yet. Chickenpox can cause fetal abnormalities, and varicella zoster Immunoglobulin should be given to the infant immediately after birth (not the mother, won’t help). Steroids will actually make the chicken pox worse. Painkillers only, is obviously the wrong answer and pose severe risk to foetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Is a risk factor for later conductive deafness
Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele
Explanation:The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Which of the following procedures does not require antibiotic prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Dental procedure for a patient with an atrial septal defect
Explanation:According to latest NICE guidelines, patients with isolated atrial septal defects do not require prophylactic antibiotics originally used in prevention of infective endocarditis in dental procedures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male presented with a history of bloody and mucoid diarrhoea since that morning. He is also complaining of abdominal spasm and bloating. Which of the following investigations is the most suitable one in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stool culture and sensitivity
Explanation:In a case of sudden bloody and mucoid diarrhoea, stool culture and sensitivity are required to access which organism is causing the problem and to discuss appropriate antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on IV ceftriaxone after undergoing a lumber puncture. The CSF culture shows listeria monocytogenes. What is the treatment of choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Change to IV amoxicillin + gentamicin
Explanation:The best option would be the combination of ampicillin and gentamycin. Changing to IV amoxicillin+gentamycin is however the best among the given choices here.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ig
Explanation:After the exposure to chickenpox while pregnant, even if the patient is negative for antibodies she requires immunoglobulin to prevent further issues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Tetracycline is not recommended in pregnancy because of the risk to fetal development (bones, teeth!). Metronidazole in pregnancy: currently not thought to be an increased risk in pregnancy; however this is not effective against chlamydia. Amoxicillin is shown to be an adequate treatment for chlamydia, so this is the correct answer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CSF analysis
Explanation:This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
