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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman attends an ultrasound scan at 36 weeks due to gestational hypertension. This shows a breech presentation. She has a successful external cephalic version (ECV) at 37 weeks and her baby is born vaginally at 40+5 weeks. On the initial postnatal check, both Ortolani's and Barlow's tests are negative. Mums' blood pressure returns to normal after birth.
What investigations will be necessary?Your Answer: Ultrasound hips of baby at 6 weeks
Explanation:At 6 weeks, the mother will undergo a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with a glucose load of 75g.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl presents with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension and has been constipated since birth and did not pass meconium until she was 3 days old. Height and weight are at the fifth percentile. On examination, the abdomen is distended and a PR examination causes stool ejection. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hirschsprung disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung disease is a bowel disease that is present at birth and is more common in boys than girls, occurring five times more frequently. The typical symptoms include vomiting of bile, swelling of the abdomen, difficulty passing stool, and failure to pass meconium within the first two days of life. However, in some cases, the disease may not become apparent until later in childhood or adolescence. A colon biopsy is used to diagnose the condition, which reveals a segment of bowel that lacks nerve cells.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his mother. He is known to have haemophilia B and has fallen while playing basketball. His ankle is very swollen and bruised.
Which of the following would be the best treatment option for this patient?Your Answer: Recombinant factor IX
Explanation:Treatment Options for Haemophilia B: Recombinant Factor IX and Cryoprecipitate
Haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is a rare genetic disorder caused by a deficiency in factor IX. While it shares similar inheritance patterns and clinical features with haemophilia A, its incidence is much lower. Treatment for haemophilia B involves factor IX concentrates, with recombinant factor IX being the most commonly used. Prophylactic doses may be given twice a week for patients with severe disease or a history of significant bleeding, but there is a risk of developing inhibitors against the factor.
Cryoprecipitate, on the other hand, does not contain factor IX but rather fibrinogen, von Willebrand’s factor, and factors VIII and XIII. It may be used in certain situations, but it is not a primary treatment for haemophilia B.
It is important to note that recombinant factor VIII is not indicated for haemophilia B, as it is specific to haemophilia A. Similarly, factor XI is not a treatment option for haemophilia B.
While factor IX is a vitamin K-dependent clotting factor, the deficiency in haemophilia B is not caused by a lack of vitamin K. Understanding the appropriate treatment options for haemophilia B is crucial for managing this rare disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the GP. The father reports that he has been struggling to manage his daughter's behaviour. He describes instances of her not following instructions, arguing frequently, and even getting into physical altercations. The GP refers the daughter to a paediatrician who may consider starting her on methylphenidate. What is a potential side effect of this medication?
Your Answer: Tremor
Correct Answer: Stunted growth
Explanation:Methylphenidate may cause stunted growth as a side effect.
A small percentage of patients taking methylphenidate may experience restricted growth, which is believed to be caused by a decrease in appetite. It is recommended that patients under the age of 10 have their weight and height monitored regularly. Other potential side effects of this medication include insomnia, weight loss, anxiety, nausea, and pain.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A teenager attends the GP with his mother who is concerned about his height. The GP charts the teenager's height on a growth chart and finds him to be in the 5th percentile. At birth, he was in the 50th percentile. However, the teenager's developmental milestones are normal, and he appears to be content with himself. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this teenager?
Your Answer: Reassure the father that this can be normal and do not arrange a review
Correct Answer: Make a referral to the the paediatric outpatients clinic
Explanation:A paediatrician should review children who fall below the 0.4th centile for height. Referral is the appropriate course of action as it is not an urgent matter. While waiting for the review, it is advisable to conduct thyroid function tests and insulin-like growth factor tests on the child.
Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It
Growth is a significant aspect that distinguishes children from adults. It occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.
During infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. Insulin plays a significant role in fetal growth, as high levels of insulin in a mother with poorly controlled diabetes can result in hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. In childhood, growth hormone and thyroxine drive growth, while in puberty, growth hormone and sex steroids are the primary drivers. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.
It is essential to monitor growth regularly to ensure that children are growing at a healthy rate. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician. Understanding growth and the factors that affect it is crucial for ensuring healthy development in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 6-month-old girl is not gaining weight and has had repeated chest infections since birth. During examination, she appears weak and undernourished. A continuous murmur is heard most prominently under the left clavicle upon auscultation of the precordium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The conditions that can cause poor weight gain and recurrent infections have similar symptoms, but the type of murmur heard can help differentiate between them. A continuous murmur is associated with Patent ductus, while Pulmonary stenosis presents with a systolic murmur. The symptoms described rule out an innocent murmur, which is a normal sound heard during circulation and disappears with age. ASD’s have a fixed split S2 sound due to increased venous return overloading the right ventricle during inspiration, delaying closure of the pulmonary valve. VSD is associated with a pansystolic murmur.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A newborn is delivered via elective Caesarean section at 37 weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension. At two hours of age, the male infant is exhibiting mild intercostal recession and grunting. Oxygen saturations are 95-96% on room air. What is the probable reason for the respiratory distress?
Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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You are scheduled to see a 12-year-old girl in your clinic. The booking notes indicate that her mother is worried about her daughter's growth compared to her peers. Before the appointment, you quickly review the patient's medical records. The patient's past medical history includes asthma, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and being born prematurely at 35 weeks. The patient is taking methylphenidate, a beclomethasone inhaler during the winter months, and a salbutamol inhaler. The patient's family history shows that both parents are of average height, and a blood test conducted a year ago revealed borderline low ferritin levels. What is the most relevant information for this presentation?
Your Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:The most important information in the patient’s records is that he is taking methylphenidate for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, which can lead to stunted growth. Therefore, his height and weight should be monitored every six months. Although corticosteroid inhalers like beclomethasone can also cause growth reduction in children who use them regularly, this is less likely to be relevant in this case since the patient only uses it intermittently. The patient’s blood test results indicating borderline low ferritin levels may suggest a poor diet, which could potentially affect growth, but this was a while ago and limits any conclusions that can be drawn. While familial height can be helpful, it is not as significant as the patient’s medication history, especially since both parents have average heights.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A mother brings her child to the pediatrician's office concerned about her child's development. Her child is 20 months old and has been slow to meet all developmental milestones. Her health visitor advised that she come to see you. You learn that the child has experienced feeding difficulties throughout her life.
During the examination of the child, you observe that she is drooling and is making lots of slow, writhing movements of her hands and feet. The mother tells you that this is common and that her daughter struggles to hold onto objects such as toys.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Spastic cerebral palsy
Correct Answer: Dyskinetic cerebral palsy
Explanation:The child in the stem is displaying symptoms of dyskinetic cerebral palsy, which is a subtype of cerebral palsy characterized by athetoid movements and oro-motor problems. The slow writhing movements of the child’s hands and feet and difficulty in holding objects are indicative of athetoid movements, while drooling is a sign of oro-motor problems. Ataxic cerebral palsy, Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, and hydrocephalus are incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the symptoms presented in the stem.
Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are in a genetics clinic and explaining to a couple the reason why their daughter has Prader-Willi syndrome. What is the term used to describe the mode of inheritance for Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: Imprinting
Explanation:Prader-Willi is an instance of imprinting, where the patient does not inherit the gene from their father. Although the mother’s gene may be normal, the phenotype can still occur, resulting in learning difficulties, hypotonia, obesity, and an insatiable appetite.
Autosomal recessive occurs when a person inherits a defective gene from both parents, leading to the development of a particular condition. Cystic fibrosis is an example of this.
Autosomal dominant only requires the inheritance of one defective gene from either parent to develop a condition. Huntington’s disease is an example of this.
Pleiotropy refers to a single gene causing multiple clinical effects that may seem unrelated when defective.
Variable expressivity occurs when an inherited genetic defect results in varying levels of clinical effects.
Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Imprinting Disorder
Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype of the individual depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.
There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome: microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases, and maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibit a range of symptoms, including hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence.
In summary, Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that results from the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. It is an example of genetic imprinting, and the phenotype of the individual depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibit a range of symptoms, and the disorder can be caused by microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 or maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 14-year-old high school student comes to your office with symptoms of depression. During the consultation, she reveals that she has been bullied for having sex with an 18-year-old boy in the same school. The sexual encounter was consensual and occurred only once, without the influence of drugs or alcohol.
What is the best immediate step to take?Your Answer: You should disclose that this girl has been sexually active to the relevant authority
Explanation:When it comes to sexual issues involving young people, the topics of consent and confidentiality can be challenging. However, in this particular case, there is no ambiguity. Legally, individuals under the age of 13 are incapable of giving consent for sexual activity. Therefore, it is typically necessary to disclose this information. If there is a decision to withhold this information, it should be discussed with a designated doctor for child protection and documented appropriately. This is an uncommon occurrence. As the patient is under 13, she is unable to provide consent for sexual activity. While it may be necessary to discuss the situation with the patient’s mother, this is not the most urgent responsibility. The primary duty is to report the incident to the appropriate authority, and it cannot be left in the hands of the patient.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35 year old pregnant woman undergoes routine pregnancy screening blood tests and is found to have an elevated alpha-fetoprotein level. This prompts investigation with ultrasound scanning. The scan reveals a fetus with an anterior abdominal wall defect and mass protruding through, which appears to still be covered with an amniotic sac. What is the standard course of action for managing this condition, based on the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Caesarian section and staged repair
Explanation:If a fetus is diagnosed with exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to lower the risk of sac rupture. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein may indicate abdominal wall defects. The appropriate course of action is a caesarian section with staged repair, as this reduces the risk of sac rupture and surgery is not urgent. Immediate repair during caesarian section would only be necessary if the sac had ruptured. Vaginal delivery with immediate repair is only recommended for gastroschisis, as immediate surgery is required due to the lack of a protective sac. Therefore, the other two options are incorrect.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 10-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department by her mother. She has had a barking cough for the past 2 days and her mother says she has been eating poorly for the past 3 days. During examination, the infant appears calm and is easily entertained by her toys. The barking cough is audible even at rest and there is slight sternal retraction. Vital signs are stable. The diagnosis is croup and treatment is initiated. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this infant?
Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:The infant’s condition is stable.
If oral administration is not possible, IV hydrocortisone may be required, but it is not the preferred option.
Antibiotics are not the primary treatment for croup as it is mostly caused by a viral infection.Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old girl is brought to the hospital and placed under the care of the paediatric surgeons due to her parents' concern about her symptoms. She has been experiencing projectile vomiting, weight loss, and constant hunger. The doctors have made a preliminary diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is the probable biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Hyperkalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis
Explanation:Pyloric Stenosis: Characteristics and Biochemical Abnormalities
Pyloric stenosis is a condition commonly observed in male infants at around 5 weeks old, with an incidence rate of approximately 4 per 1000. It is often seen in first-born babies. The condition is characterized by the narrowing of the pylorus, the opening between the stomach and the small intestine, which causes difficulty in food passage.
One of the typical biochemical abnormalities observed in patients with pyloric stenosis is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis, which is caused by the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit. This results in an acidic urine. The imbalance of electrolytes in the body can lead to dehydration, weakness, and other complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old primigravida is scheduled for induction at 38 weeks due to intrauterine growth restriction. Following a brief labor, a baby girl is born vaginally. The infant has a low birth weight and is diagnosed with microcephaly, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, and a petechial rash upon examination. She experiences a seizure shortly after being admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy, has no medical history, takes no medications, and has received all of her vaccinations. What infection is the baby likely to have been exposed to in utero?
Your Answer: Herpes Simplex
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Hepatomegaly is a possible but uncommon finding in infants with haemolytic anaemia, but microcephaly and seizures would not be expected. Congenital rubella syndrome can occur if the mother contracts rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy, and may present with low birth weight, microcephaly, seizures, and a purpuric rash. However, the classic triad of symptoms includes sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities, and congenital heart disease, which are not present in this case. Additionally, if the mother has been fully vaccinated against rubella, CMV is a more likely diagnosis. Congenital varicella syndrome can occur if the mother is not immune to varicella-zoster and is infected during the first or second trimester, and may present with microcephaly and seizures, as well as hypertrophic scars, limb defects, and ocular defects. However, there is no history of the mother developing chickenpox during pregnancy, making this diagnosis unlikely.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three major congenital infections that are commonly encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections has characteristic features that can help with diagnosis. Rubella can cause congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease, among other things. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, cerebral palsy, and visual impairment, among other things. Cytomegalovirus can cause microcephaly, cerebral calcification, and chorioretinitis, among other things.
It is important to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent or minimize health problems for the newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 3-day-old neonate was discovered to be cyanosed with a PaO2 of 2 kPa on umbilical artery blood sampling. Upon auscultation of the chest, a murmur with a loud S2 was detected, and a chest X-ray revealed a narrow upper mediastinum with an ‘egg-on-side’ appearance of the cardiac shadow. To save the infant's life, a balloon atrial septostomy was performed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
Explanation:Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a congenital heart condition where the aorta and pulmonary arteries are switched, resulting in central cyanosis and a loud single S2 on cardiac auscultation. Diagnosis is made with echocardiography and management involves keeping the ductus arteriosus patent with intravenous prostaglandin E1, followed by balloon atrial septostomy and reparative surgery. Patent ductus arteriosus is the failure of closure of the fetal connection between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery, which can be treated with intravenous indomethacin, cardiac catheterisation, or ligation. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is a rare condition where the left side of the heart and aorta are underdeveloped, requiring a patent ductus arteriosus for survival. Interruption of the aortic arch is a very rare defect requiring prostaglandin E1 and surgical anastomosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by four heart lesions and symptoms such as progressive cyanosis, difficulty feeding, and Tet spells. Diagnosis is made with echocardiography and surgical correction is usually done in the first 2 years of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 2-month-old baby, born at 38 weeks, is brought in due to increasing fussiness around 30-60 minutes after feeds, frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhea. The baby has not experienced fever, urticaria, angioedema, or wheezing. The baby is exclusively formula-fed and has mild eczema in the flexural areas. The baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's symptoms?
Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula trial
Explanation:Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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The ward doctor is requested to assess a 24-hour-old neonate, born at 35 weeks gestation to a healthy mother via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. Upon examination, the neonate appears comfortable. Auscultation of the heart reveals a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left-sided thrill. The apex beat is palpable and appears to be heaving. A widened pulse pressure is observed, but there is no visible cyanosis. An echocardiogram is performed and confirms the diagnosis while ruling out other cardiac issues.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management at this stage, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Indomethacin given to the neonate
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis based on the findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To prompt duct closure in the majority of cases, the appropriate action is to administer indomethacin to the neonate in the postnatal period, not to the mother during the antenatal period. If another defect was present, prostaglandin E1 may be preferred to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Referral for surgery is not necessary at this time. While percutaneous closure may be an option for older children, it is not suitable for neonates.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have noticed swelling of the foreskin during urination and inability to retract it. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer: Referral to paediatric surgeons
Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 6-months
Explanation:Forcible retraction should be avoided in younger children with phimosis, as it can lead to scar formation. It is important to note that phimosis is normal in children under the age of 2 and typically resolves on its own over time. Therefore, there is no urgent need for referral to paediatrics or paediatric surgeons. While lubricant is not helpful in managing phimosis, topical steroids have been found to be beneficial.
Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment
Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment can be considered.
It is important to note that parents should not attempt to forcibly retract the foreskin in young children. This can cause pain and scarring, and may not even be necessary. Instead, parents should focus on teaching their child good hygiene habits to prevent infections. If the child is experiencing recurrent infections or other symptoms, it may be time to seek medical treatment. By following these guidelines, parents can help their child manage phimosis and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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Sarah is a 3-month-old baby who was brought in by her father. He is extremely worried as his baby is generally unwell. Sarah has not been feeding well over the past 24 hours and has been very irritable. Her father had noted a fever of 38.5ºC this morning and this prompted him to seek medical attention. Her nappies continued to appear wet over this time and her father noted she had vomited once at home. No other symptoms were noted without cough.
On examination, Sarah's general tone is maintained and she does not appear to display any signs of hypotonia. She is moving all 4 limbs equally. The chest remains clear. An area of non-blanching petechiae was noted.
A lumbar puncture was performed with the following results:
Parameter Value Normal range
White cell count 200 cells <3
Neutrophils 180 cells 0
Lymphocytes 20 cells <22
Protein 1.8g/L <1g/L
CSF: serum glucose ratio 0.3 >=0.6
What is the appropriate treatment for Sarah's likely diagnosis?Your Answer: IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin
Explanation:Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A five-year-old boy has been brought to the clinic by his worried mother due to an unusual walking pattern and lower limb weakness. After conducting a thorough medical history, physical examination, and further tests, the child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What is the prevailing cardiac pathology linked to this disorder?
Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common heart condition linked to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, while acute myocardial infarctions, atrioventricular septal defects, and coronary aneurysms are not associated with this condition. Atrioventricular septal defects are, however, associated with Down syndrome, while coronary aneurysms are a complication of Kawasaki disease. Dilated cardiomyopathy is a rapidly progressive complication that typically starts in adolescence for individuals with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive condition characterized by progressive muscle wasting and weakness.
Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.
The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. She has been complaining of nausea for the past few days along with dysuria and increased frequency. Her father is worried that she might have a urinary tract infection. Upon examination, the girl seems healthy and her vital signs are stable. There are no notable findings during abdominal examination. A clean catch sample is collected and shows positive results for leucocytes and nitrites. What should be the next course of action in managing this case?
Your Answer: 5 day course antibiotics as per local policy
Correct Answer: 3 day course antibiotics as per local policy
Explanation:The scenario describes a child showing symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection, which is common in girls of her age. To confirm the diagnosis, a clean catch urine sample should be obtained for testing. However, given the child’s positive test results for leucocytes and nitrites, along with her history of dysuria and frequency, treatment should be initiated immediately. As per local guidelines, a 3-day course of antibiotics is recommended for children of her age with lower urinary tract infections. The child’s mother should be advised to return if the symptoms persist beyond 48 hours. It’s important to note that a 10-day course of co-amoxiclav is only prescribed if the infection is in the upper urinary tract.
Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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The mother of a 7-week-old baby boy born at 33 weeks gestation is seeking guidance on immunisation. What is the recommended course of action for his first round of vaccinations?
Your Answer: Give as per normal timetable
Explanation:The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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As an FY2 doctor in the Paediatric Emergency Department, you encounter an 8-month-old girl who has been brought in after experiencing rectal bleeding. According to her parents, she has been suffering from abdominal pain since this morning, drawing her legs up into the fetal position, and has had little appetite, which is unusual for her. She vomited three times and then passed bloody stools, which were described as jelly-like red and slimy. The child has been weaned for the past 2 months and only given baby food. Upon examination, you notice right lower abdominal tenderness, dehydrated mucous membranes, and a vague mass in her right lower abdomen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Common Causes of Gastrointestinal Issues in Toddlers
Gastrointestinal issues in toddlers can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common causes and their symptoms:
1. Intussusception: This condition is characterized by slimy or jelly-like red stools, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass or fullness. It is most common in toddlers aged around 9-12 months old and is diagnosed with an ultrasound scan. Treatment usually involves an air enema, but surgery may be required in complicated cases.
2. Campylobacter-related gastroenteritis: This bacterial infection is rare in toddlers and is even more unlikely if the child only consumes baby food.
3. Colon cancer: Colorectal cancer is almost unheard of in this age group.
4. Hirschsprung’s disease: This congenital condition causes bowel obstruction, with the child vomiting and not passing stools. It usually occurs in very young neonates and is diagnosed with a rectal biopsy. Treatment involves surgically removing the affected part of the bowel.
5. Pyloric stenosis: This condition causes forceful projectile vomiting immediately after feeds and usually occurs within the first 4 weeks of birth. It is diagnosed with ultrasound imaging and is treated surgically with a pyloromyotomy.
It is important to seek medical attention if your toddler is experiencing any gastrointestinal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 5-month-old baby girl is admitted under the paediatric team with a suspicion of possible neglect and non-accidental injury. Both parents have a history of intravenous (IV) drug misuse, and the baby’s older sibling had been taken into care two years previously. The baby girl and her parents have been under regular review by Social Services. When the social worker visited today, she was concerned that the child seemed unkempt and distressed. She also noted some bruising on the child’s arms and left thigh and decided to act on her concerns by calling an ambulance.
Which of the conditions below would be most likely to lead to a suspicion of non-accidental injury?Your Answer: Mid-clavicular fracture in a 10-day-old neonate
Correct Answer: Torn frenulum labii superioris in a 4-month-old infant
Explanation:Recognizing Signs of Possible Child Abuse
Child abuse can take many forms, and healthcare professionals must be vigilant in recognizing signs of possible abuse. Some common signs include bite marks, torn frenulum from forced bottle-feeding, ligature marks, burns, and scalds. However, it is important to note that some harmless conditions, such as dermal melanocytosis, can be mistaken for abuse. Other signs to watch for include mid-clavicular fractures in neonates, bruises of different ages on young children, and widespread petechial rashes. It is crucial for healthcare providers to document any suspicious findings and report them to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and reporting signs of possible abuse, healthcare professionals can help protect vulnerable children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 3-month-old baby was brought to the emergency department three days ago with a purpuric rash, fever, vomiting, and reduced wet nappies. During the assessment, the baby had a seizure which resolved on its own. The baby was admitted and tested for meningitis. A lumbar puncture was done and the laboratory results showed elevated protein levels, increased white cells, and a gram-positive organism. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this infant?
Your Answer: IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime
Explanation:In the case of suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis in children under 3 months old, corticosteroids should not be used. For an infant with lumbar puncture results indicating bacterial meningitis, a combination of IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime is the appropriate antibiotic choice to cover both gram positive and gram negative bacteria until a specific pathogen is identified. Prescribing only amoxicillin would not provide sufficient coverage. It is crucial to administer antibiotics in this situation and not withhold treatment.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought in by ambulance. Her parents explain that she has had cold symptoms for the last 24 hours but is generally well. They describe her walking towards them in the park when she suddenly went floppy and all four limbs started shaking. This lasted for around 1 minute, during which time she did not respond to her name and her eyes were rolled back. She remained drowsy for the next 30 minutes or so in the ambulance but is now well, alert and active, moving all limbs normally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Febrile convulsion
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a seizure in a young child
Febrile convulsion, reflex anoxic seizure, meningitis, epilepsy, and hypoglycaemia are among the possible causes of a seizure in a young child. Febrile convulsions are the most common type of seizure in this age group, occurring during a febrile illness and lasting less than 15 minutes. They are usually benign and do not require long-term treatment, but there is a risk of recurrence and a small risk of developing epilepsy later in life. Reflex anoxic seizures are syncopal episodes triggered by a minor head injury, resulting in a brief loss of consciousness and some convulsive activity. Meningitis is a serious infection of the central nervous system that presents with fever, headache, neck stiffness, and a non-blanching rash. Epilepsy is a chronic neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, but it cannot be diagnosed based on a single episode. Hypoglycaemia is a metabolic condition that can cause seizures in diabetic patients, typically accompanied by symptoms like sweating, shakiness, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting. A careful history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A mother is worried about her child's motor skills and wonders when most children develop a strong pincer grip. At what age do children typically acquire this skill?
Your Answer: 7-8 months
Correct Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Fine Motor and Vision Skills
Fine motor and vision skills are important developmental milestones for infants and young children. These skills are crucial for their physical and cognitive development. The following tables provide a summary of the major milestones for fine motor and vision skills.
At three months, infants can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow objects up to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They are visually insatiable, looking around in every direction.
At nine months, infants can point with their finger and demonstrate an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have developed a good pincer grip and can bang toys together and stack bricks.
As children grow older, their fine motor skills continue to develop. By 15 months, they can build a tower of two blocks, and by 18 months, they can build a tower of three blocks. By two years old, they can build a tower of six blocks, and by three years old, they can build a tower of nine blocks. They also begin to draw, starting with circular scribbles at 18 months and progressing to copying vertical lines at two years old, circles at three years old, crosses at four years old, and squares and triangles at five years old.
In addition to fine motor skills, children’s vision skills also develop over time. At 15 months, they can look at a book and pat the pages. By 18 months, they can turn several pages at a time, and by two years old, they can turn one page at a time.
It is important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. Overall, these developmental milestones for fine motor and vision skills are important indicators of a child’s growth and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her menstrual cycle yet. Apart from that, she feels healthy. During the examination, she appears to be of average height and has developed breasts, but has minimal pubic hair growth. The doctor can feel two lumps in her groin area upon examination of her abdomen. Her external genitalia seem normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kallmann syndrome
Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s presentation is consistent with androgen insensitivity, which is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have female physical characteristics due to a lack of testosterone receptors in their tissues. This disorder is X-linked and often results in undescended testes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is unlikely as it typically causes early puberty and virilization, while Kallmann syndrome does not explain the presence of groin masses. Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually results in secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea and is accompanied by other symptoms such as acne and hirsutism. Turner’s syndrome, which causes primary amenorrhea, is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, heart defects, and abnormal breast development, and does not involve undescended testes.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with bruising after a fall. During assessment, it is noted that she has a global developmental delay. She walks with difficulty, has some fine motor skills, and is playing with toys during the consultation. There are bruises on her back, right elbow, and right thigh, at different stages of healing.
Her father reports that these bruises are from her being clumsy for the past few months and he himself once had bruising which required oral steroids and thinks she has developed the same condition.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Immediately contact safeguarding lead
Explanation:The presence of multiple bruises at different stages of healing in an infant who has been brought a few months after the injuries occurred should raise suspicion of non-accidental injury. This is because it is unlikely for a child to have so many bruises from clumsiness alone. A delayed presentation may also suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately contact the safeguarding lead. While coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, they are not the first priority. Similarly, oral prednisolone is not the first-line treatment for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is not relevant in this case. The priority is to assess the infant for non-accidental injury.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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