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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists in the Emergency Department, but he is not short of breath. There is no past medical history of note. Observations are recorded:
      temperature 36.6 °C
      heart rate (HR) 90 bpm
      blood pressure (BP) 115/80 mmHg
      respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths/minute
      oxygen saturation (SaO2) 99%.
      A chest X-ray reveals a 1.5 cm sliver of air in the pleural space of the right lung.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Consider prescribing analgesia and discharge home with information and advice

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Primary Pneumothorax

      Primary pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Here are some management options for primary pneumothorax:

      Prescribe analgesia and discharge home with information and advice: This option can be considered if the patient is not breathless and has only a small defect. The patient can be discharged with pain relief medication and given information and advice on how to manage the condition at home.

      Admit for a trial of nebulised salbutamol and observation: This option is not indicated for a patient with primary pneumothorax, as a trial of salbutamol is not effective in treating this condition.

      Aspirate the air with a needle and syringe: This option should only be attempted if the patient has a rim of air of >2 cm on the chest X-ray or is breathless. Aspiration can be attempted twice at a maximum, after which a chest drain should be inserted.

      Insert a chest drain: This option should be done if the second attempt of aspiration is unsuccessful. Once air has stopped leaking, the drain should be left in for a further 24 hours prior to removal and discharge.

      Insert a 16G cannula into the second intercostal space: This option is used for tension pneumothoraces and is not indicated for primary pneumothorax.

      In conclusion, the management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. It is important to choose the appropriate management option to ensure the best outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In which joint is recurrent dislocation most frequently observed? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which joint is recurrent dislocation most frequently observed?

      Your Answer: Patella

      Correct Answer: Shoulder

      Explanation:

      The Shoulder Joint: Flexible and Unstable

      The shoulder joint is known for its remarkable flexibility, allowing for a wide range of motion. This is due to the small area of contact between the upper arm bone and the socket on the scapula, which is also shallow. However, this same feature also makes the shoulder joint unstable, making it the most susceptible to dislocation.

      In summary, the shoulder joint flexibility is due to its small contact area and shallow socket, but this also makes it unstable and prone to dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What are the common symptoms exhibited by a child with recurring upper urinary...

    Incorrect

    • What are the common symptoms exhibited by a child with recurring upper urinary tract infections?

      Your Answer: Loss of appetite

      Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral Reflux

      Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a medical condition where urine flows backwards from the bladder to the kidneys. If left untreated, it can lead to serious health complications such as pyelonephritis, hypertension, and progressive renal failure. In children, VUR is usually caused by a congenital abnormality and is referred to as primary VUR. On the other hand, secondary VUR is commonly caused by recurrent urinary tract infections. While horseshoe kidney can increase the risk of UTIs, it is a much rarer condition compared to VUR. It is important to understand the causes and risks associated with VUR to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (pANCA) are most commonly associated with which medical condition?...

    Incorrect

    • Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (pANCA) are most commonly associated with which medical condition?

      Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome

      Explanation:

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man on palliative chemotherapy for advanced lung cancer is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man on palliative chemotherapy for advanced lung cancer is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife as he has been feeling increasingly weak and lethargic over the past few days. His arterial blood gas results are below:

      Investigation Result Normal range
      pH 7.51 7.35–7.45
      Partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) 11.7 kPa > 11 kPa
      Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) 5.5 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
      Bicarbonate (HCO3−) 29 mEq/l 22–26 mEq/l
      Base excess +3 -2 to +2
      Which of the following is most likely to cause this result?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acid-Base Imbalances: Explanation and Examples

      Vomiting: When a patient’s arterial blood gas shows an uncompensated metabolic alkalosis, it suggests an acute cause such as vomiting. Vomiting causes a loss of stomach acid, resulting in fewer H+ ions to bind to HCO3-, leading to more free HCO3- and resulting in a metabolic alkalosis.

      Aspirin Overdose: An aspirin overdose typically causes an initial respiratory alkalosis followed by a metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap. The respiratory alkalosis is the result of direct stimulation of the medulla, while the metabolic acidosis is caused by an accumulation of lactic acid due to an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation.

      Anxiety: Hyperventilation associated with anxiety would cause a respiratory alkalosis. This is due to ‘blowing off’ carbon dioxide through hyperventilation, resulting in a decreased PaCO2 in the blood and an increased ratio of HCO3− to PaCO2, raising the pH and resulting in alkalosis.

      Pulmonary Embolism: A pulmonary embolism would cause a respiratory alkalosis, usually accompanied by hypoxia or type I respiratory failure.

      Respiratory Depression: Respiratory depression would cause a respiratory acidosis. Hypoventilation means that less carbon dioxide is blown off, resulting in an increase in PaCO2 in the blood, which decreases the pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old woman is experiencing gradual onset of epigastric pain that worsens during...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman is experiencing gradual onset of epigastric pain that worsens during and after meals. The pain began about a month ago and is moderate in intensity, without radiation to the back. Occasionally, the pain is severe enough to wake her up at night. She reports no regurgitation, dysphagia, or weight loss. Abdominal palpation reveals no tenderness, and there are no signs of lymphadenopathy. A negative stool guaiac test is noted.
      What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Elevated serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Abnormal Lab Results in a Patient with Dyspepsia

      The patient in question is experiencing dyspepsia, likely due to peptic ulcer disease. One potential cause of this condition is primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to excess gastric acid secretion by causing hypercalcemia (elevated serum calcium). However, reduced plasma glucose, decreased serum sodium, and elevated serum potassium are not associated with dyspepsia.

      On the other hand, long-standing diabetes mellitus can cause autonomic neuropathy and gastroparesis with delayed gastric emptying, leading to dyspepsia. Decreased serum ferritin is often seen in iron deficiency anemia, which can be caused by a chronically bleeding gastric ulcer or gastric cancer. However, this patient’s symptoms do not suggest malignancy, as they began only a month ago and there is no weight loss or lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, abnormal lab results should be interpreted in the context of the patient’s symptoms and medical history to arrive at an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman reports experiencing numbness and tingling in her hands during the...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman reports experiencing numbness and tingling in her hands during the early morning hours. She has noticed difficulty holding small tools for her hobby of model making. During a clinic examination, Tinel's sign is positive and there is a loss of sensation over the palmar aspect of the lateral three and a half digits. What nerve injury is most likely present?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve enters the hand through the carpal tunnel, which is deep to the flexor retinaculum. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by inflammation of synovial sheaths that reduce the size of the carpal tunnel, affecting the median nerve the most. Symptoms include weakness in the thumb and sensory changes in the forearm and axilla. Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests can recreate these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals first-degree heart block, tall P-waves, and flattened T-waves. Upon arterial blood gas analysis, her results are as follows: pH 7.55 (normal range 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 30 mmol/L (normal range 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 5.8kPa (normal range 4.5-6kPa), p02 11kPa (normal range 10-14kPa), and Chloride 85mmol/L (normal range 95-108mmol/L). What is the underlying cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The palpitations experienced by this patient are likely due to hypokalaemia, as indicated by their ECG. The ABG results reveal a metabolic alkalosis, with low chloride levels suggesting that the cause is likely due to prolonged vomiting resulting in the loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. This could also explain the hypokalaemia observed on the ECG. The absence of acute nausea and vomiting suggests that this may be a chronic issue, possibly indicating bulimia nervosa as the underlying condition, unless there is a previous medical history that could account for persistent vomiting.

      Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging

      Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.

      Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
      What should this woman avoid?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Injectable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.

      If this woman is concerned about weight gain, it is best to avoid depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. Depo-provera can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.

      While some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review does not support a causal relationship. There are no reasons for this woman to avoid the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      The progesterone-only pill has not been associated with weight gain and is safe for use in this woman.

      The intra-uterine system (IUS) does not cause weight gain in users and is a viable option for this woman.

      The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progesterone-related side effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it is not typically associated with weight gain and is not contraindicated for use in this situation.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with new back pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with new back pain. She describes the pain radiating down the back of her right leg into her little toe and she has an associated weakness of her right leg which is stopping her from walking. She reports not having been able to pass urine all day despite feeling as though she needs to go.

      On examination, she has a 4/5 weakness of the left leg throughout and a 3/5 weakness of the right leg throughout. Her reflexes are absent on her right and reduced on her left. She has a loss of pin prick sensation throughout the L4, L5, and S1 dermatomes on the right as well as in her perineum. On digital rectal examination, she has a loss of perianal sensation with normal anal tone but a reduced anal squeeze.

      What investigation is most appropriate for this suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI scan of the lumbar-sacral spine within 6 hours

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with back pain and leg pain along with a new neurological deficit, it is likely that they are suffering from spinal nerve impingement. If they also experience urinary symptoms and saddle anaesthesia, and have an abnormal rectal examination, it is highly probable that they have cauda equina syndrome. This condition can lead to irreversible complications such as incontinence and paralysis of the lower limbs if left untreated. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct urgent imaging to confirm the diagnosis. The most effective imaging modality is an MRI of the lumbar-sacral spine, as it provides detailed information about soft tissues. Plain x-rays and CT scans are not recommended as they do not provide sufficient information about nerve injury. Ideally, the scan should be conducted immediately, but due to operational constraints, a target of 6 hours is more feasible. Waiting for 72 hours is not acceptable, as it can result in permanent paralysis or incontinence.

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      63.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In the field of pharmacology, what is the term used to describe a...

    Correct

    • In the field of pharmacology, what is the term used to describe a ligand that binds to a receptor and results in a decrease or complete halt in receptor activity?

      Your Answer: Antagonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists and Antagonists in Drug-Receptor Interactions

      An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and causes an increase in receptor activity, resulting in a biological response. The drug-receptor interaction is usually reversible, and the agonist can bind to the receptor using various mechanisms. The effects of an agonist are determined by its efficacy of agonism and the degree of receptor occupancy. A full agonist can provoke maximal receptor activity, while a partial agonist can provoke sub-maximal receptor activity. The degree of occupancy is determined by the affinity of the drug for the receptor and the concentration. Even relatively low degrees of receptor occupancy are adequate to achieve a biological response for agonists.

      On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and reduces or inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response. The effects of an antagonist are determined by its degree of receptor occupancy, affinity to the receptor, and efficacy. A relatively high degree of receptor occupancy is needed for an antagonist to work, and technically, the efficacy of an antagonist to prompt a biological response is zero.

      There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and will bind to the same site on the same receptor, reducing the binding sites available to the agonist for binding. A non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and may bind to the same receptor, but they will each have a different binding site on the receptor. When the antagonist binds to the receptor, it may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell. An agonist molecule is able to bind, but the normal consequences of agonist binding do not occur due to the presence of the antagonist, and biological actions are prevented.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What test is utilized to examine for primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as...

    Correct

    • What test is utilized to examine for primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison's disease?

      Your Answer: Short ACTH stimulation (Synacthen®) test

      Explanation:

      Medical Tests for Hormonal Disorders

      There are several medical tests used to diagnose hormonal disorders. One such test is the Synacthen test, which measures serum cortisol levels before and after administering synthetic ACTH. If cortisol levels rise appropriately, Addison’s disease can be excluded. However, an insufficient response may indicate adrenal gland atrophy or destruction.

      Another test used to investigate hormonal disorders is the dexamethasone suppression test, which is used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome. Additionally, the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is used to screen for diabetes mellitus. In the UK, the OGTT involves administering 75 g of oral anhydrous glucose and measuring plasma glucose levels at 0 minutes (fasting) and 120 minutes. This test is also used to investigate suspected acromegaly by measuring the suppression of growth hormone following an oral glucose load.

      Lastly, a glucose challenge is used during pregnancy to screen for gestational diabetes. This test involves administering 50 g of oral glucose and measuring plasma glucose levels after 30 minutes. By utilizing these medical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat hormonal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with multiple...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with multiple stab wounds. During clinical examination, eight stab wounds are identified on his abdomen and one on the front of his chest. His airway has been secured, and he is receiving oxygen at a rate of 15 L/min while IV fluid resuscitation has been initiated.

      Following CT scans of his abdomen, the patient has been transferred to the operating room for an emergency laparotomy. The surgeons are assessing the condition of his spleen based on the CT and laparotomy findings to determine the next steps in his treatment.

      What is one reason that may indicate the need for a splenectomy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemodynamic instability and complete devascularisation of the spleen

      Explanation:

      When trauma patients experience uncontrollable bleeding in the spleen, a splenectomy may be necessary. CT imaging can be used to grade the severity of the splenic injury, with grades 1-3 typically managed conservatively if the patient is stable, and grades 4-5 often requiring surgical intervention. During emergency laparotomy, if certain findings such as uncontrollable bleeding, hilar vascular injuries, or a devascularized spleen are present, a splenectomy may be indicated.

      Managing Splenic Trauma

      The spleen is a commonly injured intra-abdominal organ, but in most cases, it can be conserved. The management of splenic trauma depends on several factors, including associated injuries, haemodynamic status, and the extent of direct splenic injury.

      Conservative management is appropriate for small subcapsular haematomas, minimal intra-abdominal blood, and no hilar disruption. However, if there are increased amounts of intra-abdominal blood, moderate haemodynamic compromise, or tears or lacerations affecting less than 50%, laparotomy with conservation may be necessary.

      In cases of hilar injuries, major haemorrhage, or major associated injuries, resection is the preferred management option. It is important to note that the management approach should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and circumstances. Proper management of splenic trauma can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      161.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman is seeking a consultation before undergoing breast reconstruction following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is seeking a consultation before undergoing breast reconstruction following a mastectomy due to breast cancer. She is worried about potential adverse effects. Which nerves should you caution her about potential harm?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve is at risk during breast surgery due to its location and susceptibility to injury. Damage to this nerve causes paralysis of the serratus anterior, resulting in the scapula appearing like a wing and limited arm abduction. The axillary and radial nerves are less likely to be damaged in breast surgery as they arise from the posterior cord and continue down the upper arm. The intercostal nerves run along the intercostal spaces and are initially protected from damage, passing between the internal intercostal membrane and muscle near the middle of the intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old woman without medical history presents to the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman without medical history presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and vomiting that has been ongoing for 12 hours. Upon examination, she is found to be tender in the epigastrium and has a low-grade fever. An abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of gallstones, but no signs of cholecystitis. Blood tests are ordered and show the following results:

      - Hb: 121 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
      - Platelets: 450 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
      - WBC: 15.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
      - Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
      - Amylase: 1056 U/L (normal range: 70 - 300)
      - Bilirubin: 5 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 92 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 33 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - γGT: 41 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 32 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      As she awaits transfer to the ward, the patient's condition worsens. She becomes increasingly short of breath and tachypnoeic, and eventually develops central cyanosis. What is the most likely cause of her deterioration?

      Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s initial presentation is most likely due to acute pancreatitis, as evidenced by the elevated serum amylase levels. Her age (>55), low serum calcium levels (<2 mmol/L), and high white cell count (>15 x 109/L) indicate a Modified Glasgow Score of >3, putting her at risk of severe pancreatitis and its complications. Although the other options could also cause shortness of breath and cyanosis, the most probable explanation in this case is acute respiratory distress syndrome, a known complication of acute pancreatitis.

      Acute pancreatitis can lead to various complications, both locally and systemically. Local complications include peripancreatic fluid collections, which occur in about 25% of cases and may develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis, which involves both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, can also occur and is directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses may result from infected pseudocysts and can be treated with drainage methods. Haemorrhage may also occur, particularly in cases of infected necrosis.

      Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which has a high mortality rate of around 20%. Local complications such as peripancreatic fluid collections and pancreatic necrosis can also lead to systemic complications if left untreated. It is important to manage these complications appropriately, with conservative management being preferred for sterile necrosis and early necrosectomy being avoided unless necessary. Treatment options for local complications include endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy, aspiration, and drainage methods. Overall, prompt recognition and management of complications is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for an elective total hip...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for an elective total hip replacement. Thromboprophylaxis with dalteparin is administered before the surgery. After eight days, the patient complains of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. The full blood count results reveal a pulmonary embolism. The following are the patient's blood count results: Hb 124 g/L (Female: 115-160; Male: 135-180), Platelets 76 * 109/L (150-400), and WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0-11.0). What is the most probable cause of the pulmonary embolism?

      Your Answer: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a possible side effect of heparin. HIT occurs when heparin binds to platelet factor 4 (PF-4) on inactivated platelets, forming a heparin-PF4 complex that triggers an immune response. Some individuals develop IgG antibodies that recognize the heparin-PF4 complex and destroy it in the spleen. This process activates platelets, leading to clot formation and a decrease in platelet count. HIT can cause serious conditions such as pulmonary embolism, stroke, and myocardial infarction. Treatment involves discontinuing heparin and starting a non-heparin anticoagulant.

      DIC is a severe condition where blood clots form throughout the body, blocking small blood vessels. It can be caused by sepsis, trauma, or malignancy and presents with multiple petechiae, ecchymosis, hypoxia, and hypotension. The patient would be severely unwell and present acutely.

      Hypersplenism is characterized by splenomegaly, which is not present in this scenario.

      ITP is a condition that is more common in children and typically occurs 1-2 weeks after an infection. It is the least likely diagnosis for this patient.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This type of thrombocytopenia is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that can cause this condition include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate, and heparin.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will develop drug-induced thrombocytopenia. However, those who do may experience symptoms such as easy bruising, bleeding gums, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding from cuts. In severe cases, the condition can lead to life-threatening bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old ex-footballer undergoes a right hip hemi-arthroplasty. He is an ex-smoker. He...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old ex-footballer undergoes a right hip hemi-arthroplasty. He is an ex-smoker. He is admitted to the ward.
      Which of the following statements is correct regarding his deep venous thrombosis (DVT) thromboprophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and compression stockings should be prescribed as standard

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Surgical Patients

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a common complication in patients undergoing major orthopaedic surgery, particularly in the pelvis and lower limbs. To prevent DVT formation, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and compression stockings should be prescribed as standard for all surgical patients. Aspirin is not recommended for DVT prophylaxis, but may be prescribed for cardiac risk factor modification. LMWH should be prescribed routinely, regardless of the patient’s risk of immobility. Heparin infusion is not recommended as first-line therapy, with LMWH being the preferred option. There is no indication to start formal anticoagulation with warfarin postoperatively. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively prevent DVT formation in surgical patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      156
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental...

    Correct

    • You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental state examination on one of the patients on the inpatient psychiatry ward, a 22-year-old man who was admitted 2 days ago.

      Whenever you ask him a question, you notice that he repeats the question back to you. You notice that he is also repeating some of the phrases you use.

      What form of thought disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the questions being asked. Clang association is when someone uses words that rhyme with each other or sound similar. Neologism is the formation of new words. Perseveration is when ideas or words are repeated several times.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11
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  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant and epigastric pain and associated vomiting. This is his third attack in the past 9 months. He has a past history of obesity, hypertension and hypertriglyceridaemia. Medications include ramipril, amlodipine, fenofibrate, aspirin and indapamide. On examination, he is obese with a body mass index (BMI) of 31; his blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg, and he has jaundiced sclerae. There is right upper quadrant tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 140 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 10.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 239 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Alanine aminotransferase 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 99 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 285 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Ultrasound of abdomen: gallstones clearly visualised within a thick-walled gallbladder, dilated duct consistent with further stones.
      Which of his medications is most likely to be responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Drugs and their association with gallstone formation

      Explanation:

      Gallstones are a common medical condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. Certain drugs have been found to increase the risk of gallstone formation, while others do not have any association.

      Fenofibrate, a drug used to increase cholesterol excretion by the liver, is known to increase the risk of cholesterol gallstone formation. Oestrogens are also known to increase the risk of gallstones. Somatostatin analogues, which decrease gallbladder emptying, can contribute to stone formation. Pigment gallstones are associated with high haem turnover, such as in sickle-cell anaemia.

      On the other hand, drugs like indapamide, ramipril, amlodipine, and aspirin are not associated with increased gallstone formation. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      68.8
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  • Question 20 - A 46-year-old man, who had been working abroad in the hard metal industry,...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man, who had been working abroad in the hard metal industry, presented with progressive dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed diffuse interstitial fibrosis bilaterally. What is the typical cellular component found in a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) of this patient?

      Your Answer: Eosinophils

      Correct Answer: Giant cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Giant Cell Interstitial Pneumonia in Hard Metal Lung Disease

      Hard metal lung disease is a condition that affects individuals working in the hard metal industry, particularly those exposed to cobalt dust. Prolonged exposure can lead to fibrosis and the development of giant cell interstitial pneumonia (GIP), characterized by bizarre multinucleated giant cells in the alveoli. These cannibalistic cells are formed by alveolar macrophages and type II pneumocytes and can contain ingested macrophages. While cobalt exposure can also cause other respiratory conditions, GIP is a rare but serious complication that may require lung transplantation in severe cases. Understanding the significance of different cell types found in bronchoalveolar lavage can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      35.8
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  • Question 21 - A 22-year-old woman comes to your clinic at 14 weeks into her second...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to your clinic at 14 weeks into her second pregnancy. Her pregnancy has been going smoothly thus far, with a regular dating scan at 10 weeks. She came in 24 hours ago due to severe nausea and vomiting and was prescribed oral cyclizine 50 mg TDS. However, she is still unable to consume any oral intake, including fluids. Her urine dip shows ketones.
      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Arrange admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      Referral to gynaecology for urgent assessment and intravenous fluids is necessary if a pregnant woman experiences severe nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and positive ketones in her urine. This is especially important if the woman has a pre-existing condition that may be affected by prolonged nausea and vomiting, such as diabetes. Caution should be exercised when prescribing metoclopramide to young women due to the risk of extrapyramidal side effects. In this case, hospital management and assessment for intravenous fluids are necessary, and it would not be appropriate to simply reassure the patient and discharge her.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      84.3
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  • Question 22 - A pair of individuals in their mid-thirties visit their GP seeking guidance on...

    Incorrect

    • A pair of individuals in their mid-thirties visit their GP seeking guidance on fertility. They have been engaging in unprotected sexual activity thrice a week for a year. The GP recommends conducting a semen analysis and measuring serum progesterone levels. What is the optimal time to measure serum progesterone levels?

      Your Answer: 14 days prior to the expected next period

      Correct Answer: 7 days prior to the expected next period

      Explanation:

      To confirm ovulation, it is recommended to take a serum progesterone level 7 days before the expected next period. If the level is above 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation and other causes of infertility should be considered. However, if the level is below 30 nmol/l, it does not necessarily exclude the possibility of ovulation, but repeat testing is required. If the level remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. It is important to note that the length of a menstrual cycle can vary, so 7 days prior to the next period is a more accurate time to take the test than relying on day 21 of a 28-day cycle.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.9
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice regarding her current contraceptive method,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice regarding her current contraceptive method, microgynon 30. She recently went on a short trip and forgot to bring her pill pack, causing her to miss some pills. She last took a pill 76 hours ago and is uncertain about what to do next. The missed pills were from the third week of her pack, and she has not missed any other pills this month. She had unprotected sex in the past week. What guidance should you provide her?

      Your Answer: Take 2 pills today, then finish the current pack, omit the pill-free interval and start the new pack immediately

      Explanation:

      If a woman misses 2 pills in week 3 of taking the COCP, she should finish the remaining pills in the current pack and start a new pack immediately without taking the pill-free interval. Missing 2 pills means that it has been 72 hours since the last pill was taken, and the standard rule is to take 2 pills on the same day and continue taking one pill each day until the end of the pack. It is important not to take more than 2 pills in one day, and emergency contraception is only necessary if more than 7 consecutive pills are missed. In this case, the woman has not taken the required 7 consecutive pills to be protected during the pill-free interval, so she should start the new pack immediately. However, the chances of pregnancy are low if she has taken 7 pills consecutively the prior week.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his father due to...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his father due to a loud, harsh cough that has persisted for the past 2 weeks. The child has also been more lethargic than usual. Although he appears to be in good health, you observe 2 coughing fits during the consultation, which cause the child distress and difficulty breathing, resulting in a loud, harsh inspiratory noise between coughing fits. The patient has no known allergies or medical history, but his vaccination record is unclear since he moved to the UK from another country 3 years ago. The patient's temperature is 37.5ºC.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe azithromycin and report to Public Health England

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough must be reported to Public Health England as it is a notifiable disease. According to NICE guidelines, oral azithromycin can be used to treat the disease within the first 21 days of symptoms. If the patient presents later than this, antibiotic therapy is not necessary. Salbutamol nebulisers are not a suitable treatment option as antibiotics are required.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      33
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  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of worsening lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of worsening lower back pain over the past 3 months. He denies any history of trauma or prior fractures, does not smoke, consume excessive alcohol, and has never been treated with corticosteroids. Upon review, he reports experiencing reduced libido and delayed puberty for several years, as well as the absence of morning erections. Alongside routine investigations, what crucial test should be performed given the following DEXA scan results?

      Lumbar vertebrae (L2-L4): -6.9
      Femoral neck: -3.5
      Total hip: -4

      Your Answer: Alpha fetoprotein

      Correct Answer: Testosterone

      Explanation:

      When a man is suspected to have osteoporosis, it is important to check his testosterone levels through a blood test. This is because hypogonadism, which is a common cause of osteoporosis in men, can be classified as either hypergonadotropic or hypogonadotropic. Androgens play a twofold role in male bone metabolism by stimulating bone formation during puberty and preventing bone resorption during and after puberty. Other tests such as alpha fetoprotein, calcitonin, and serum protein electrophoresis are not useful in evaluating osteoporosis, but may be used to screen for other conditions such as Down syndrome, neural tube defects, thyroid cancer, and multiple myeloma.

      Understanding the Causes of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the bones, making them weak and brittle. It is more common in women and older adults, with the prevalence increasing significantly in women over the age of 80. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis that should be considered. Some of the most important risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture, low body mass index, and smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus.

      There are also medications that may worsen osteoporosis, such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors. If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include blood tests, bone densitometry, and other procedures as indicated. It is important to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors in order to select the most appropriate form of treatment. As a minimum, all patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 79-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe right-sided hip pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe right-sided hip pain following a car accident. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and COPD and is currently taking prednisolone, alendronic acid, colecalciferol, and a salbutamol inhaler. Upon examination, she is visibly in pain and unable to bear weight on her right leg. Her right leg appears shortened and externally rotated compared to the left side. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hip dislocation

      Correct Answer: Hip fracture

      Explanation:

      The patient’s hip fracture is supported by several major risk factors, including being an elderly female, long-term steroid use, and a traumatic injury. A common finding in hip fractures is a shortened, externally rotated leg, which is also present in this case. Additionally, the patient is unable to bear weight on the affected leg.

      A is an incorrect answer as this condition typically occurs in obese teenagers and would not present in adult patients.

      B is the correct answer.

      C is an incorrect answer as while these fractures can occur in high-energy traumatic injuries, they are less common than hip fractures and would present with a visibly deformed thigh.

      D is an incorrect answer as this injury can occur in high-energy traumatic injuries, but it would result in a shortened, internally rotated leg.

      E is an incorrect answer as there is no evidence of prior hip pathology from the patient’s history, and the acute onset of symptoms does not support this diagnosis.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.8
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  • Question 27 - A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent paresthesia in her left leg. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 4 months ago by the neurology department. The paresthesia has been ongoing for 3 days and is accompanied by increased fatigue and urinary frequency/urgency symptoms. A urine dip test shows no abnormalities. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      In the case of this patient, it is probable that she is experiencing an acute relapse of her multiple sclerosis. A urine dip has been conducted to rule out a urinary tract infection, which could also cause a flare in her symptoms (known as Uhthoff’s phenomenon). As her symptoms are new and have persisted for more than 24 hours, it is likely that she requires treatment with methylprednisolone (either intravenous or oral) to manage the relapse.

      While Fingolimod, Natalizumab, and Beta-interferon are all disease modifying drugs that may reduce the frequency of relapses, they are not appropriate for treating acute relapses and should only be started in secondary care with proper drug counseling.

      Amantadine may be useful in managing fatigue, but it is recommended by NICE to only be trialed for fatigue once other potential causes have been ruled out. It is unlikely to be effective in treating the patient’s other symptoms.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      33.3
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old girl who is eight weeks pregnant undergoes a surgical termination of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl who is eight weeks pregnant undergoes a surgical termination of pregnancy and reports feeling fine a few hours later. What is the most frequent risk associated with a TOP?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      This condition is rare, but it is more common in pregnancies that have exceeded 20 weeks of gestation.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman who is 4 weeks postpartum and breastfeeding presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 4 weeks postpartum and breastfeeding presents with a history of a painful, erythematosus breast for the past 24 hours.

      Her blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, her heart rate is 72 beats per minute and her temperature is 37.2 degrees celsius. On examination her left breast is tender and erythematosus and warm to touch. There is no palpable lump and no visible fissure. You take a sample of breast milk to send for culture.

      What is the most appropriate first line management?

      Your Answer: Advise to continue breastfeeding and give a course of oral flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Advise to continue breastfeeding and use simple analgesia and warm compresses

      Explanation:

      When managing mastitis in breastfeeding women, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding while using simple analgesia and warm compresses. If breastfeeding is too painful, expressing milk by hand or using a pump is advised to prevent milk stasis, which is often the cause of lactational mastitis. According to NICE clinical knowledge summaries (CKS), oral antibiotics are only necessary if there is an infected nipple fissure, symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours despite effective milk removal, or breast milk culture is positive. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic for 10-14 days, while erythromycin or clarithromycin can be used for penicillin-allergic patients. Referral to a surgical team in the hospital is only necessary if a breast abscess is suspected, which is unlikely if there is no palpable lump in the breast.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a rash on her left nipple. She has no significant medical or family history. Upon examination, the doctor observes an erythematosus rash on the left nipple with thickening. The areola appears normal, and there are no palpable masses in the breast or axillary tail. The right breast is also unremarkable. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical emollients

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to breast clinic

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with reddening and thickening of the nipple and areola, it is important to consider Paget’s disease of the breast. This condition can be similar to nipple eczema, but the key difference is that nipple eczema starts in the areola and spreads to the nipple, while Paget’s disease starts at the nipple and spreads to the areola in later stages. Regardless of whether a mass can be felt, Paget’s disease of the nipple is strongly suggestive of breast cancer and requires an urgent referral to the breast clinic. Therefore, the correct answer is urgent referral to the breast clinic. Routine referral is not sufficient as this condition requires urgent attention. Topical corticosteroids and emollients may be used to manage moderate nipple eczema, but they are not appropriate for Paget’s disease. Similarly, topical emollients and tacrolimus are not effective treatments for Paget’s disease.

      Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with breast cancer. It is present in a small percentage of patients with breast cancer, typically around 1-2%. In half of these cases, there is an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of those patients will have an invasive carcinoma. Even in cases where there is no mass lesion, around 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma. The remaining cases will have carcinoma in situ.

      One key difference between Paget’s disease and eczema of the nipple is that Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar, whereas eczema does the opposite. Diagnosis of Paget’s disease involves a punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment will depend on the underlying lesion causing the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      44
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Surgery (3/5) 60%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/4) 25%
Palliative Care (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (1/4) 25%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed