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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient arrives the day after ingesting an overdose of paracetamol. She appears to be dehydrated, and the house officer initiates an infusion while awaiting the results of her blood tests. What blood test result would indicate the need for liver transplantation referral?
Your Answer: Arterial lactate 3.6 mmol/L (0.2-1.8)
Explanation:Criteria for Liver Transplant Recommendation at King’s College Hospital
The King’s College Hospital Liver Transplant Unit has specific criteria for recommending a liver transplant. These criteria include an arterial pH of less than 7.3 or arterial lactate levels greater than 3.0 mmol/L after fluid rehydration. Additionally, if a patient experiences all three of the following conditions within a 24-hour period, a liver transplant may be recommended: PT levels greater than 100 seconds, creatinine levels greater than 300 µmol/L, and Grade III/IV encephalopathy.
It is important to note that mild elevations in creatinine levels may occur due to dehydration, and rises in transaminases may be seen as a result of hepatocellular damage. Therefore, these factors are not necessarily indicative of the need for a liver transplant. The specific criteria outlined by the King’s College Hospital Liver Transplant Unit are used to ensure that patients who truly require a liver transplant receive one in a timely manner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male with a past of chronic alcohol abuse comes in with a two-day history of worsening confusion. During the examination, he appears drowsy, has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 110 beats per minute, and a small amount of ascites. The CNS examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis with an upward left plantar response. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cerebrovascular accident
Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Man with Chronic Alcohol Abuse
This man, who has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, is exhibiting symptoms of a fever and left-sided hemiparesis. The most probable diagnosis for this individual would be cerebral abscess. It is unlikely that a subdural hematoma or a simple cerebrovascular accident (CVA) would explain the fever, nor would they be associated with hemiparesis. Delirium tremens or encephalopathy would not be linked to the hemiparesis either. Therefore, cerebral abscess is the most likely diagnosis for this man with chronic alcohol abuse who is experiencing a fever and left-sided hemiparesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of leg pains. He has been suffering from diabetic neuropathy in both legs for the last 6 years and has tried various medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, and gabapentin. He inquires if there are any additional measures that can be taken to alleviate his pain in the long run. What would be the most suitable answer?
Your Answer: Refer him to the pain management clinic
Explanation:In cases of resistant diabetic neuropathy, pain management clinics may be considered for the management of pain. If a patient has already tried common medications for neuropathic pain and has almost reached the limit of care, referral to a pain management clinic is the most appropriate step. NICE recommends referral for patients with severe or worsening pain, or those whose pain impairs their daily life. Cannabis sativa extract and morphine are not typically used for neuropathic pain unless recommended by a specialist. Tramadol may be used for breakthrough pain in the acute setting, but is not suitable for long-term management of neuropathic pain. Advising a patient to improve their diabetic control will not necessarily improve their current pain, but may limit further neuropathy from occurring.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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An elderly woman, aged 76, visits her GP complaining of breathlessness and leg swelling. She has a medical history of heart failure (ejection fraction 33%), rheumatoid arthritis, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her current medications include 7.5mg bisoprolol once daily, 10 mg lisinopril once daily, 20 mg furosemide twice daily, 500 mg metformin three times daily, and 1g paracetamol four times daily. During the examination, the GP notes mild bibasal crackles, normal heart sounds, and bilateral pedal pitting oedema. The patient's vital signs are heart rate 72 beats per minute and regular, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 94% on room air, blood pressure 124/68 mmHg, and temperature 36.2oC. The patient's blood test results from two weeks ago show Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L (22 - 29), Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 114 µmol/L (55 - 120). What would be the most appropriate medication to initiate?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:For individuals with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction who are still experiencing symptoms despite being on an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker, it is recommended to add a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist such as Spironolactone. Prior to starting and increasing the dosage, it is important to monitor serum sodium, potassium, renal function, and blood pressure. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for heart failure and should only be prescribed after consulting with a cardiology specialist. Digoxin is recommended if heart failure worsens or becomes severe despite initial treatment, but it is important to note that a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist should be prescribed first. Ivabradine can be used in heart failure, but it should not be prescribed if the patient’s heart rate is below 75, and it is not a first-line treatment.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He has been smoking 10 cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. What is the number of pack years equivalent to his smoking history?
Your Answer: 300
Correct Answer: 15
Explanation:Pack Year Calculation
Pack year calculation is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day by the number of years of smoking. One pack of cigarettes contains 20 cigarettes. For instance, if a person smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15).
The pack year calculation is a standardized method of measuring tobacco exposure. It helps healthcare professionals to estimate the risk of developing smoking-related diseases such as lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart disease. The higher the pack year history, the greater the risk of developing these diseases. Therefore, it is important for individuals who smoke or have a history of smoking to discuss their pack year history with their healthcare provider to determine appropriate screening and prevention measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 43-year-old male patient who has been admitted to the acute medical unit due to anaemia. The patient has a history of sickle cell anaemia. According to his blood test results, his Hb level is 37 g/l, and his reticulocyte count is 0.4%. Normally, his Hb level is 70 g/l. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute sequestration
Correct Answer: Parvovirus
Explanation:Parvovirus can be indicated by a sudden onset of anemia and a low reticulocyte count, while a high reticulocyte count may be caused by acute sequestration and hemolysis.
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when abnormal haemoglobin, known as HbS, is produced due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in individuals of African descent, as the heterozygous condition provides some protection against malaria. About 10% of UK Afro-Caribbean are carriers of HbS, and they only experience symptoms if they are severely hypoxic. Homozygotes tend to develop symptoms between 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules replace fetal haemoglobin.
The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerise and sickle RBCs in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse, blocking small blood vessels and causing infarction.
The definitive diagnosis of sickle-cell anaemia is through haemoglobin electrophoresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Liam, a 17-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as needed, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. He then immediately repeats this process for the second dose.
What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?Your Answer: She should take 3 deep breaths before using the inhaler
Correct Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose
Explanation:To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Proper inhaler technique is crucial for effective treatment of respiratory conditions such as asthma. The following guidelines are recommended by Asthma.org.uk, a resource recommended to patients by the British Thoracic Society, for using metered-dose inhalers.
To begin, remove the cap and shake the inhaler. Breathe out gently before placing the mouthpiece in your mouth. As you begin to breathe in slowly and deeply, press down on the canister and continue to inhale steadily. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable, before exhaling. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating the steps.
It is important to note that the inhaler should only be used for the number of doses indicated on the label before starting a new inhaler. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male has presented to the GP diabetic clinic for a medication and blood result review. He has been well-controlled on metformin 1g twice-a-day for his type 2 diabetes. However, his recent HbA1c result is 60 mmol/mol. The patient has a history of heart failure and the GP emphasizes the significance of lifestyle and dietary advice.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Nothing else required
Correct Answer: Prescribe DPP-4 inhibitor
Explanation:If the HbA1c level in type 2 diabetes mellitus is above 58 mmol/mol, a second drug should be added.
When a patient’s HbA1c result indicates poor glucose control, it may be due to various factors such as tolerance, adherence, or lifestyle issues. In such cases, the next step is to prescribe a second medication, which could be a DPP-4 inhibitor, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor, based on the patient’s needs and after weighing the risks and benefits of each option.
The standard dose of metformin is 500g daily, which can be increased up to a maximum of 2g daily, divided into separate doses. However, if the patient is already on 2g, the dose cannot be increased further. Thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone are not recommended for patients with heart failure and are rarely used as first or second-line therapies.
Since the patient’s HbA1c levels exceed 58 mmol/mol, an additional intervention is necessary, along with reinforcing lifestyle and dietary advice. Insulin is typically reserved for patients who do not respond to double or triple therapy.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20 mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents with central chest pain and is diagnosed with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. Aspirin and fondaparinux are administered. What is the mode of action of fondaparinux?
Your Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
Correct Answer: Activates antithrombin III
Explanation:Fondaparinux operates in a comparable manner to low-molecular weight heparin.
Parenteral Anticoagulation: Fondaparinux and Direct Thrombin Inhibitors
Parenteral anticoagulants are used to prevent venous thromboembolism and manage acute coronary syndrome. While unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin are commonly used, fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors are also effective options. Fondaparinux activates antithrombin III, which enhances the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa. It is administered subcutaneously. On the other hand, direct thrombin inhibitors like bivalirudin are typically given intravenously. Dabigatran is a type of direct thrombin inhibitor that can be taken orally and is classified as a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).
Overall, these parenteral anticoagulants are essential in preventing and managing blood clots. Fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors work by targeting specific factors in the coagulation cascade, making them effective options for patients who cannot tolerate other anticoagulants. It is important to note that these medications require careful monitoring and dosing adjustments to prevent bleeding complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea and pyrexia. He has a history of alcohol abuse and emits a strong smell of alcohol. While in the department, he begins to cough up currant jelly sputum. He is admitted and given the appropriate antibiotics. The sputum is cultured and the causative agent is identified. What other condition is associated with this organism?
Your Answer: Addison's disease
Correct Answer: Pleural empyema
Explanation:Empyema formation can be caused by Klebsiella.
Alcoholics are often affected by Klebsiella infections, which have unique characteristics such as sputum resembling currant jelly. They are also linked to various other conditions, including ascending cholangitis. Patients may develop empyema after pneumonia, which is a collection of pus in an existing cavity, such as the pleural space, and should not be confused with an abscess, which is a collection of pus in a newly formed cavity.
Tuberculosis is associated with Addison’s disease, while parvovirus B19 infection is linked to aplastic anemia in individuals with sickle cell anemia. Although erythema multiforme can have multiple causes, it is not caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae. The most common cause of this condition is Mycoplasma pneumonia.
Klebsiella Pneumoniae: A Gram-Negative Rod Causing Infections in Humans
Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of Gram-negative rod that is typically found in the gut flora of humans. Although it is a normal part of the body’s microbiome, it can also cause a variety of infections in humans, including pneumonia and urinary tract infections. This bacterium is more commonly found in individuals who have diabetes or who consume alcohol regularly. In some cases, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can occur following aspiration.
One of the distinctive features of Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is the presence of red-currant jelly sputum. This type of sputum is often seen in patients with pneumonia caused by this bacterium. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections tend to affect the upper lobes of the lungs.
Unfortunately, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can be quite serious and even life-threatening. They commonly lead to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, and the mortality rate for these infections is between 30-50%. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections, particularly in patients who are at higher risk due to underlying health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents to the acute medical unit with severe jaundice and gross ascites. He has a history of alcohol abuse and was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis two years ago. He has been admitted to the hospital multiple times due to confusion and altered consciousness caused by his cirrhosis. What medications should be evaluated for preventing the recurrence of the aforementioned complication?
Your Answer: Lactulose and furosemide
Correct Answer: Lactulose and rifaximin
Explanation:Lactulose and rifaximin are the recommended medications for secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy. This condition is characterized by confusion, altered consciousness, asterixis, and triphasic slow waves on EEG, and is caused by excess absorption of ammonia and glutamine from bacterial breakdown of proteins in the gut. Lactulose promotes the excretion of ammonia and increases its metabolism by gut bacteria, while rifaximin modulates the gut flora to decrease ammonia production. Spironolactone and furosemide are not used for hepatic encephalopathy, but rather for managing ascites and edema in patients with hypoalbuminemia due to cirrhosis. Propranolol is also not used for prophylaxis against hepatic encephalopathy, but rather to lower portal pressure and prevent variceal bleeding.
Understanding Hepatic Encephalopathy
Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition that can occur in individuals with liver disease, regardless of the cause. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the absorption of excess ammonia and glutamine from the breakdown of proteins by bacteria in the gut. While hepatic encephalopathy is commonly associated with acute liver failure, it can also be seen in chronic liver disease. In fact, many patients with liver cirrhosis may experience mild cognitive impairment before the more recognizable symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy appear. It is also worth noting that transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting (TIPSS) can trigger encephalopathy.
The symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy can range from irritability and confusion to incoherence and coma. The condition can be graded based on the severity of the symptoms, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade IV being the most severe. There are several factors that can precipitate hepatic encephalopathy, including infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, constipation, and certain medications.
The management of hepatic encephalopathy involves treating any underlying causes and using medications to alleviate symptoms. Lactulose is often the first-line treatment, as it promotes the excretion of ammonia and increases its metabolism by gut bacteria. Antibiotics such as rifaximin can also be used to modulate the gut flora and reduce ammonia production. In some cases, embolization of portosystemic shunts or liver transplantation may be necessary.
Overall, hepatic encephalopathy is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options, healthcare providers can provide the best possible care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is not true?
Your Answer: It is a DNA virus
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection caused by the RNA picornavirus. It is typically spread through faecal-oral transmission, often in institutions. The incubation period is around 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests. However, the disease is usually self-limiting and benign, with serious complications being rare.
Unlike other forms of hepatitis, hepatitis A does not cause chronic disease or increase the risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people who are travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates). After the initial dose, a booster dose should be given 6-12 months later.
Understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A is important for individuals who may be at risk of contracting the virus. By taking appropriate precautions and getting vaccinated, individuals can protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is least likely to be observed in Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
Your Answer: Polyarthritis
Correct Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation:Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.
The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.
Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.
The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.
Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of experiencing cold hands and feet over the last two weeks. Her medications have been recently altered, with a new medication introduced to improve her blood pressure management. Which of the following medications is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Losartan
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-blockers are frequently prescribed for hypertension treatment, but they can lead to cold extremities as a side effect. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide commonly cause constipation, diarrhea, dizziness, and dry mouth. Angiotensin receptor blockers such as candesartan and losartan do not typically result in cold peripheries.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye is elevated and abducted. When attempting to gaze to the left, the diplopia exacerbates.
What is the probable underlying cause of this issue?Your Answer: Right 6th nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Right 4th nerve palsy
Explanation:Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is the perception of seeing two images stacked on top of each other. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding these symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment of fourth nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for evaluation due to his family's concerns about his increasing forgetfulness in recent months. He scores 14/30 on the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). The consultant requests that you initiate treatment with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe?Your Answer: Rotigotine
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Donepezil is classified as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is considered a first-line treatment option for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, along with galantamine and rivastigmine. Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is typically used as a second-line or adjunctive treatment for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, although it may be used as a first-line option for severe cases. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are anti-muscarinic medications that are commonly prescribed for urge incontinence, but immediate release oxybutynin should be avoided in frail older women, according to NICE guidelines. Finally, rotigotine is a dopamine agonist that is used to treat Parkinson’s disease and restless legs syndrome.
Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a strange episode. He appears confused and unable to provide a clear history, but his wife reports being awakened by him shaking around in bed. She notes that her husband has been complaining of headaches for the past five days and mentioned earlier today that his left hand felt weak. His vital signs are BP 128/85 mmHg, heart rate 82/min, temperature 39.5ºC, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, and respiratory rate 18/min. His blood glucose level is 5.6mmol/L, and his ECG is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meningitis
Correct Answer: Brain abscess
Explanation:The presence of fever, headache, and a focal neurological deficit, such as arm weakness, suggests a brain abscess as the correct diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s history of seizures supports this diagnosis. However, diagnosing a brain abscess can be challenging, as the classic triad of symptoms is only present in a minority of cases. Epilepsy is unlikely due to the presence of fever and arm weakness, and the absence of a seizure history. Hypoglycemia is not the correct answer as the patient’s blood glucose level is within the normal range. Meningitis is a key differential diagnosis, but it is less likely to cause focal neurological abnormalities and tends to present with reduced consciousness or confusion in addition to fever and headache.
Understanding Brain Abscesses
Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.
To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.
Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man complains of fatigue, overall weakness, and weight loss for the past 3 months. He also reports experiencing pain in his second and third fingers for the last month and worsening erectile dysfunction. You suspect that he may have hereditary hemochromatosis and order blood tests. Which of the following results would support your suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - high; transferrin saturation - high
Correct Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - low; transferrin saturation - high
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is identified by an iron study profile that shows elevated levels of transferrin saturation and ferritin, along with a low total iron-binding capacity. This condition is inherited and leads to an excessive buildup of iron in the body. To rule out other possibilities, any options that do not show increased levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation can be eliminated during initial screening. Transferrin is a protein that transports iron in the blood, and its levels rise during iron deficiency to maximize the use of available iron. Total iron-binding capacity reflects the number of iron-binding sites on transferrin, and its levels increase during iron deficiency and decrease during iron overload.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man is discovered to have a prolonged corrected QT interval (QTc) of 480 ms on his pre-operative ECG. The anaesthetist suggests modifying one of his medications before the surgery. Which of the following drugs are recognized to cause QTc prolongation?
Your Answer: Carvedilol
Correct Answer: Sotalol
Explanation:Sotalol is the only beta blocker known to cause long QT syndrome. Tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, and haloperidol can also cause QTc prolongation, while benzodiazepines and short-acting beta-receptor agonists are not known to have this effect.
Understanding Long QT Syndrome
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.
LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic following unprotected sex with a female partner. He reports experiencing coryzal symptoms and myalgia, which began four weeks ago. The patient has a history of asthma, which is managed with salbutamol. The doctor advises him to undergo HIV testing, and he consents. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer: Offer two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
Correct Answer: Order HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests
Explanation:The recommended course of action is to order a combination test for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of HIV seroconversion and had unprotected intercourse 4 weeks ago. Combination tests are now the standard for HIV diagnosis and screening, with p24 antigen tests typically turning positive between 1 and 4 weeks post-exposure and antibody tests turning positive between 4 weeks and 3 months post-exposure. If a patient at risk tests positive, the diagnosis should be confirmed with a repeat test before starting treatment.
Offering post-exposure prophylaxis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient had unprotected intercourse 3 weeks ago. Two NRTIs and an NNRTI should not be prescribed as treatment, as the patient has not yet tested positive. Ordering only a p24 antigen or antibody test alone is also not recommended, as combination tests are now standard practice.
Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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As a Foundation Year 2 doctor on a four month rotation at an Emergency department, you encounter a 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. She presents with a two month history of dry mouth and itchy eyes, as well as a three day history of painful eyes and sensitivity to bright light. Despite her well-controlled rheumatoid arthritis with methotrexate and sulfasalazine, she requires NSAIDs for symptomatic relief. Upon examination, you observe a dry oral cavity and a few corneal abrasions on her right eye, but the sclera is otherwise white. Her pupil is normal and visual acuity tests are unremarkable. A bedside Schirmer's test reveals 3 mm of diffusion on filter paper bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Episcleritis
Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:Sjögren’s Syndrome and its Ocular Manifestations
Sjögren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the exocrine glands, leading to decreased production of tears and saliva. This results in dry eyes and dry mouth, which can cause corneal abrasions and even ulceration if left untreated. It is commonly associated with connective tissue diseases, particularly rheumatoid arthritis.
When it comes to ocular manifestations, it is important to differentiate Sjögren’s syndrome from other conditions such as scleritis, episcleritis, uveitis, and ulcerative keratitis. The phenylephrine test can help distinguish between episcleritis and scleritis, while uveitis typically presents with ocular pain, photophobia, and blurred vision. Ulcerative keratitis, on the other hand, has an infectious presentation and requires different treatment approaches depending on the depth of the ulcer.
Overall, the pathophysiology and ocular manifestations of Sjögren’s syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this autoimmune disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with frequent blood pressure readings above 160/95 mmHg on an ambulatory monitor. He has a history of well-controlled heart failure (New York Heart Association stage 2) and chronic kidney disease. The patient is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and atorvastatin, with optimized dosages for the past year.
What is the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer: Stop ramipril and trial amlodipine instead
Correct Answer: Add indapamide
Explanation:The appropriate course of action for a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor is to add indapamide to their medication regimen. This is in accordance with the NICE treatment algorithm, which recommends adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic in such cases. It is important to note that nifedipine should be avoided in patients with heart failure, and that amlodipine is the only calcium channel blocker licensed for use in such patients. Continuing to monitor blood pressure at home and reviewing in one month would not be sufficient in this case, as the patient’s hypertension needs to be addressed more aggressively. Stopping ramipril and trying amlodipine instead is not recommended, as combination therapy is the preferred approach. Similarly, stopping ramipril and trying amlodipine with indapamide instead is not recommended, as the combination should not be used in place of an ACE inhibitor.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic with 4 unprovoked episodes of rapid bilateral upper and lower limb muscle contraction and relaxation lasting approximately 15 seconds before stopping. He reports falling to the ground during these episodes but denies any loss of consciousness and is able to resume his activities afterward. Upon taking a collateral history, it is determined that there is no incontinence or tongue biting. There is no history of head injury. What is the most probable treatment for this patient's diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ethosuximide
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:For males with myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is the recommended first-line treatment. This patient is experiencing clonus, which is the contracting and relaxing of both upper and lower limbs. Myoclonic epilepsy is the likely diagnosis as there are no signs of loss of consciousness, incontinence, tongue-biting, or postictal fatigue. Sodium valproate is the correct choice as it has been proven effective for this use through high-quality evidence. However, it is contraindicated for women of childbearing potential due to its teratogenic effects. Ethosuximide is not appropriate as it is used for absence seizures, which are characterized by staring blankly and being unresponsive, and typically occur in children aged 3-10 years. Lamotrigine is a third-line treatment option for myoclonic seizures in men, and levetiracetam is the second-line option for men and the first-line option for women of childbearing potential. In this case, it is best to try the first-line option of sodium valproate as the patient has not yet received any treatment and is male. If sodium valproate is unsuccessful, then levetiracetam may be considered.
Treatment for Epilepsy
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The condition is characterized by recurrent seizures, which can be debilitating and life-threatening. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures and improve quality of life.
According to NICE guidelines, AEDs should be started after the second epileptic seizure. However, if a patient has a neurological deficit, brain imaging shows a structural abnormality, the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity, or the patient or their family considers the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable, AEDs may be started after the first seizure. It is important to note that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary due to the risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children.
The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, lamotrigine or levetiracetam are the first-line treatments, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine.
In summary, treatment for epilepsy involves the use of AEDs to control seizures and improve quality of life. The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy, and sodium valproate should be used with caution in women of childbearing age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of occasional double vision that occurs during the day. She reports that her vision returns to normal after taking a break. The symptoms have been worsening over the past six months, and she has already consulted an optometrist who could not identify a cause. There have been no indications of muscle or peripheral nerve issues. What medication is typically attempted as a first-line treatment for the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mycophenolate
Correct Answer: Pyridostigmine
Explanation:Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in insufficient functioning acetylcholine receptors. It is more common in women and is characterized by muscle fatigability, extraocular muscle weakness, proximal muscle weakness, ptosis, and dysphagia. Thymomas are present in 15% of cases, and autoimmune disorders are also associated with the disease. Diagnosis is made through single fibre electromyography and CT thorax to exclude thymoma. Management includes long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, immunosuppression, and thymectomy. Plasmapheresis and intravenous immunoglobulins are used to manage myasthenic crisis. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors are seen in 85-90% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred vision. He is worried about his slurred speech which started the day before. He has no past medical history or current medications.
Upon examination, the patient appears disheveled and has multiple track marks on both arms with surrounding redness. His vital signs are normal. Cranial nerve examination reveals bilateral ptosis, diplopia, impaired pupil accommodation, and impaired gag reflex. The patient's speech is also slurred. Upper limb examination shows hypotonia and 4/5 power bilaterally, while sensation is intact. Lower limb examination is unremarkable.
What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Clostridium tetani
Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:There are various bacterial infections that can cause different diseases. For example, Salmonella can cause food poisoning, while Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of diarrhoea and can also be linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome. Additionally, Clostridium tetani infection can lead to tetanus.
Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.
The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system, leading to symptoms such as diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. However, patients are usually fully conscious and do not experience any sensory disturbance.
Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. It is important to note that the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents to the nephrology unit with a complaint of recurrent visible haematuria following upper respiratory tract infections. He denies any abdominal or loin pain. The urine dipstick is unremarkable, and blood tests reveal normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.
Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria without or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male comes to the clinic with a painful and swollen right calf. The doctor suspects a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What test result would indicate an underlying condition that increases the risk of DVT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Conditions Associated with DVT and Factors Not Contributing to Increased Risk
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can be linked to various medical conditions, including polycythaemia, underlying carcinoma (indicated by high prostate specific antigen [PSA]), lympho- or myeloproliferative diseases, and thrombophilias such as antithrombin 3 deficiency or lupus anticoagulant. However, in cases where the patient has low sodium levels, it suggests overhydration rather than dehydration, and high prothrombin time does not increase the risk of thrombosis. Diabetes, indicated by a glucose level of 7.2 mmol/L, does not contribute to an increased risk of DVT. It is important to consider these factors when assessing a patient’s risk of DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being submerged. Upon arrival, the patient is found to be in ventricular fibrillation (VF) on ECG and has a temperature of 26 degrees centigrade. You have already administered three defibrillation shocks and initiated active and passive rewarming, but the patient remains in VF. What should be your next steps in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue chest compressions but withhold shocks until patient's temperature >30 degrees
Explanation:When hypothermia leads to cardiac arrest, defibrillation is not as effective and should be limited to three shocks before the patient is warmed up to 30 degrees Celsius. Pacing is also ineffective until the patient reaches normal body temperature. Medications should be held off until the patient reaches 30 degrees Celsius, and then administered at double the usual intervals until the patient achieves normal body temperature or experiences the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
Hypothermia is a condition where the core body temperature drops below normal levels, often caused by exposure to cold environments. It is most common in the winter and the elderly are particularly susceptible. Signs include shivering, cold and pale skin, slurred speech, and confusion. Treatment involves removing the patient from the cold environment, warming the body with blankets, securing the airway, and monitoring breathing. Rapid re-warming should be avoided as it can lead to peripheral vasodilation and shock. Certain actions, such as putting the person in a hot bath or giving them alcohol, should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with his spouse, reporting a chronic cough and swelling in his neck. He has been experiencing these symptoms for several years but only sought medical attention today because his wife urged him to address his bad breath. The man's wife also notes that he makes noise while eating and drinking and occasionally has difficulty swallowing, leading to regurgitation of food. The patient has a history of hospitalization for pneumonia following one of these choking episodes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing his likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical repair and resection
Explanation:Pharyngeal pouch may lead to dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, and halitosis.
Understanding Pharyngeal Pouch or Zenker’s Diverticulum
A pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum, is a condition where there is a posteromedial diverticulum through Killian’s dehiscence. This triangular area is found in the wall of the pharynx between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. It is more common in older patients and is five times more common in men.
The symptoms of pharyngeal pouch include dysphagia, regurgitation, aspiration, neck swelling that gurgles on palpation, and halitosis. To diagnose this condition, a barium swallow combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy is usually done.
Surgery is the most common management for pharyngeal pouch. It is important to address this condition promptly to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Understanding the symptoms and seeking medical attention early can help in the proper management of pharyngeal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is currently admitted to the antenatal ward after giving birth 5 hours ago. She experienced antepartum haemorrhage during labour and lost approximately 1200 ml of blood. Upon arrival at the ward, she complained of feeling weak, prompting a blood test to check for anaemia. The results are as follows:
- Hb 66 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- Platelets 302 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC 9.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
The patient has no significant medical history, is not taking any regular medications, and has not received any blood transfusions in the past. Based on these results, should the patient be given a transfusion of packed red blood cells? What is the transfusion threshold for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yes - transfusion threshold is 70 g/L
Explanation:According to the 2015 NICE guidance, patients without acute coronary syndrome should receive a packed red blood cell transfusion if their Hb level falls below 70 g/L. As the patient’s Hb level is 66 g/L, she should receive a transfusion. The transfusion threshold is not 50 g/L, 65 g/L, 80 g/L, or 100 g/L.
Guidelines for Red Blood Cell Transfusion
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for the use of blood products, specifically red blood cells. These guidelines recommend different transfusion thresholds for patients with and without acute coronary syndrome (ACS). For patients without ACS, the transfusion threshold is 70 g/L, while for those with ACS, it is 80 g/L. The target hemoglobin level after transfusion is 70-90 g/L for patients without ACS and 80-100 g/L for those with ACS. It is important to note that these thresholds should not be used for patients with ongoing major hemorrhage or those who require regular blood transfusions for chronic anemia.
When administering red blood cells, it is crucial to store them at 4°C prior to infusion. In non-urgent scenarios, a unit of RBC is typically transfused over a period of 90-120 minutes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that red blood cell transfusions are administered safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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