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  • Question 1 - A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching pain and swelling in the distal part of her left thigh. She has a family history of retinoblastoma and is in good health otherwise. A radiograph of her knee reveals a sunburst pattern and a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ewing's sarcoma

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes is found to have new vessel formation...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes is found to have new vessel formation on the optic disc on fundoscopy.
      Which of the following is the best intervention?

      Your Answer: Tighter control of HbA1c

      Correct Answer: Laser treatment

      Explanation:

      Managing Diabetic Retinopathy: Treatment Options and Risk Factors

      Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness if left untreated. Laser photocoagulation is a non-invasive treatment option that has a high success rate and low complication rate. Focal laser photocoagulation is used to treat specific microaneurysms, while a grid pattern of laser burns is applied for non-specific leakage. Other important factors in managing diabetic retinopathy include controlling blood pressure, optimizing cholesterol levels, and maintaining HbA1c levels in the 6-7% range. Patients with diabetes should also be monitored for other ophthalmic complications, such as glaucoma and neuropathies. Risk factors for diabetic retinopathy include age at diabetes onset, serum triglyceride and total cholesterol levels, serum creatinine levels, and hypertension. Early detection and treatment of diabetic retinopathy can prevent blindness and improve long-term outcomes for patients with diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of recurring episodes of vertigo accompanied by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of recurring episodes of vertigo accompanied by a sensation of 'fullness' and 'pressure' in her ears. She believes her hearing is impaired during these episodes. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meniere’s Disease

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The most prominent symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Other symptoms include a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease shows that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients are left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. To manage the condition, an ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis. Patients should inform the DVLA, and the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. During acute attacks, buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine may be administered, and admission to the hospital may be required. To prevent future attacks, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises may be of benefit.

      In summary, Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and can cause recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. While the cause is unknown, there are management strategies available to help control symptoms and prevent future attacks. It is important for patients to seek medical attention and inform the DVLA to ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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  • Question 4 - At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and...

    Incorrect

    • At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and wheeze. Approaching her, you inquire if she is choking. She replies that she believes a sip of hot coffee went down the wrong way. What should be your initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Encourage him to cough

      Explanation:

      Dealing with Choking Emergencies

      Choking is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening. It occurs when the airway is partially or completely blocked, often while eating. The first step in dealing with a choking victim is to ask them if they are choking. If they are able to speak and breathe, it may be a mild obstruction. However, if they are unable to speak or breathe, it is a severe obstruction and requires immediate action.

      According to the Resus Council, mild airway obstruction can be treated by encouraging the patient to cough. However, if the obstruction is severe and the patient is conscious, up to five back-blows and abdominal thrusts can be given. If these methods are unsuccessful, the cycle should be repeated. If the patient is unconscious, an ambulance should be called and CPR should be started.

      It is important to note that choking can happen to anyone, so it is important to be prepared and know how to respond in an emergency. By following these steps, you can help save a life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is found to have consistent blood pressure readings >170/95 mmHg. She is admitted under Gynaecology.
      Which of the following antihypertensives would you initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Treatment Options for Gestational Hypertension

      Gestational hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. According to NICE guidelines, labetalol is the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension. However, if the patient has asthma, labetalol is contraindicated. In such cases, nifedipine is listed as the second-line treatment, followed by methyldopa if necessary.

      Diltiazem is not usually used in gestational hypertension, and the role of this medication in pregnancy is unclear. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated due to their potential adverse effects on fetal blood pressure and renal function.

      In cases of gestational hypertension, it is crucial to rule out pre-eclampsia. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 160/110, NICE guidelines recommend admission until the blood pressure is below this level.

      Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, are safe and effective in pregnancy, while the role of diltiazem is uncertain. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated. It is essential to choose the appropriate medication based on the patient’s medical history and individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness in his right arm that occurred about 10 hours ago. He states that the weakness lasted for around one hour and has since disappeared. He has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine, but is typically healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give aspirin 300 mg and refer immediately to be seen in the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

      Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent a subsequent stroke. Here are some management strategies for TIA:

      Immediate administration of aspirin 300 mg and referral to the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours is recommended, unless contraindicated. Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily is the preferred secondary prevention following a stroke or TIA.

      An outpatient magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) head scan may be considered to determine the territory of ischaemia, but only after assessment by a specialist at a TIA clinic.

      Patients who have had a suspected TIA within the last week should be offered aspirin 300 mg at once and be seen by a stroke specialist within 24 hours. If the suspected TIA was more than one week ago, patients should be seen by a specialist within the next seven days.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel may be considered for the first three months following a TIA or ischaemic stroke if the patient has severe symptomatic intracranial stenosis or for another condition such as acute coronary syndrome.

      Management Strategies for Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man visits the Gastroenterology Clinic with concerns about his tongue. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits the Gastroenterology Clinic with concerns about his tongue. He has noticed unusual patterns on his tongue that have been present for a while, but he is worried about tongue cancer as he has been a heavy smoker for the past 20 years. What is the most suitable initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Geographic Tongue: A Benign Condition Requiring No Medical Intervention

      Geographic tongue, also known as benign migratory glossitis, is a common condition that affects up to 3% of the general population. While some patients may experience a burning sensation when consuming hot or spicy foods, most are asymptomatic. The diagnosis of geographic tongue can usually be confirmed from history and physical examination alone, and no medical intervention is required.

      Surgical correction is not warranted for geographic tongue, as it is a benign condition of no clinical significance. Aspiration for cytology is also not appropriate, as the diagnosis can be made without further investigation. Excision biopsy may actually cause harm, as histological findings are identical to those seen in pustular psoriasis.

      A full blood count is not necessary for the diagnosis of geographic tongue. Instead, the condition can be identified through the elongation of rete ridges, hyperparakeratosis and acanthosis at the periphery, loss of filiform papillae, and migration and clustering of neutrophils within the epithelium towards the centre of the lesions. The predominant inflammatory infiltrates in the lamina propria is neutrophils with an admixture of chronic inflammatory cells.

      In summary, geographic tongue is a benign condition that requires no medical intervention. Diagnosis can be made through history and physical examination alone, and further investigation may cause harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department with left-sided pelvic pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department with left-sided pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding. She reports her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago and has had a positive urinary pregnancy test. The patient is stable hemodynamically, and bloods have been taken for full blood count, renal and liver function, and C-reactive protein. What is the most suitable diagnostic test to determine the underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the recommended investigation is transvaginal ultrasound. This is because it provides clearer images of the uterus, ovaries, and endometrium, making it more effective in detecting ectopic pregnancies compared to transabdominal scans. While serum Beta-HCG levels are helpful in managing ectopic pregnancies, a single test cannot completely rule out the possibility. Pregnant women are generally advised against undergoing CT scans and abdominal X-rays.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 9 - As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?

    ...

    Incorrect

    • As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms

      Gilbert Syndrome:
      Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

      Haemolytic Anaemia:
      Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.

      Hepatitis A:
      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.

      Hepatitis B:
      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).

      Cholecystitis:
      Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.

      Conclusion:
      In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness in both legs that started with leg pain a week ago. Upon examination, there is a decrease in patellar reflex bilaterally, and the patient has 3/5 strength throughout the neurological examination in the lower limbs bilaterally, but normal sensation. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. What is the most probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario is experiencing leg or back pain before the onset of weakness, which is a common symptom of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The ascending weakness of the legs, along with reduced reflexes and normal sensation, is a typical presentation of this disease.

      Escherichia coli is a frequent cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and gastroenteritis, but it is not associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Coxsackievirus is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults, but it is not linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Herpes simplex virus causes genital and labial sores, but it does not play a role in the development of this disease.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system occurs due to the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides. Studies have shown a correlation between the clinical features of the syndrome and the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, which are present in 25% of patients.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. Unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome, Miller Fisher syndrome usually presents as a descending paralysis, with the eye muscles typically affected first. In 90% of cases, anti-GQ1b antibodies are present.

      Understanding the pathogenesis and clinical features of Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms behind these conditions and to develop more targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man with known type I diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with known type I diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and vomiting.
      On examination, he appears dehydrated. He is started on an insulin infusion. His blood tests are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH (venous) 7.23 7.35–7.45
      Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) 2.1 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
      Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) 11.2 kPa 10–14 kPa
      Sodium (Na+) 135 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l 22–28 mmol/l
      Glucose 22.4 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l
      Ketones 3.6 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
      What should happen to his regular insulin while he is treated?
      Select the SINGLE best treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Continuing Long-Acting Insulin and Stopping Short-Acting Insulin

      When a patient presents with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to provide prompt treatment. This involves fluid replacement with isotonic saline and an intravenous insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg per hour. While this takes place, the patient’s normal long-acting insulin should be continued, but their short-acting insulin should be stopped to avoid hypoglycemia.

      In addition to insulin and fluid replacement, correction of electrolyte disturbance is essential. Serum potassium levels may be high on admission, but often fall quickly following treatment with insulin, resulting in hypokalemia. Potassium may need to be added to the replacement fluids, guided by the potassium levels. If the rate of potassium infusion is greater than 20 mmol/hour, cardiac monitoring is required.

      Overall, the key to successful treatment of DKA is a careful balance of insulin, fluids, and electrolyte replacement. By continuing long-acting insulin and stopping short-acting insulin, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurring pain in her left ankle...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurring pain in her left ankle for the past 4-5 weeks. She also reports experiencing pain in her left sole and swelling in her right toes. Additionally, she has developed low back pain over the last 2 weeks. Upon further inquiry, she mentions having painless oral ulcers that heal on their own. She recently had chlamydial urethritis. Her full blood count, kidney, and liver function tests are all normal, and an autoimmune screen is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthritic Conditions

      Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It is characterized by an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, with common symptoms including enthesitis, sacroiliitis, and spondylosis. Patients may also experience mouth ulcers, conjunctivitis, and cutaneous features such as circinate balanitis and keratoderma blenorrhagia. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthritic conditions such as disseminated bacterial arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and hypersensitivity vasculitis. Understanding the unique features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the hospital with a flare-up of his condition. He has been experiencing up to five bloody stools per day for the past three days, and has developed abdominal pain and a low-grade fever in the last 24 hours. His blood work shows the following results:
      - Hemoglobin: 13.9 g/dL
      - Platelets: 422 * 10^9/L
      - White blood cells: 10.1 * 10^9/L
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 88 mm/hr
      - C-reactive protein: 198 mg/L

      What is the most crucial investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray

      Explanation:

      It is possible that this individual has developed toxic megacolon, which is characterized by a transverse colon diameter exceeding 6 cm and accompanying symptoms of systemic distress. Treatment for toxic megacolon typically involves intensive medical intervention for a period of 24-72 hours. If there is no improvement in the patient’s condition during this time, a colectomy may be necessary.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis Flares

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause flares or periods of worsening symptoms. While most flares occur without a clear trigger, there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and even quitting smoking.

      Flares of ulcerative colitis can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the frequency and severity of symptoms. Mild flares may involve fewer than four stools a day with or without blood, while moderate flares may include four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares, on the other hand, may involve more than six stools a day containing blood, as well as evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, and hypoalbuminemia.

      Patients with evidence of severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for close monitoring and treatment. Understanding the triggers and symptoms of ulcerative colitis flares can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 14 - A 7-year-old girl presents to you with her father. She complains of bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to you with her father. She complains of bilateral knee and calf pain at night for the past 6 months. The pain worsens after playing soccer during the day and can cause her to wake up 1-2 times per month. Knee examination is normal, and she is otherwise healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growing pains

      Explanation:

      Children between the ages of 3 and 12 often experience growing pains, which typically involve leg pain. However, it is crucial to check for any potential warning signs when examining these children. One such warning sign is osteosarcoma, a rare but significant diagnosis that should be ruled out. Symptoms of osteosarcoma include an inexplicable lump, bone pain, or swelling. Another condition to consider is juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, which typically presents with fever, rash, and symmetrical joint pain and swelling.

      Understanding Growing Pains in Children

      Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs with no obvious cause.

      One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.

      Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) experiences colicky abdominal pain after eating...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) experiences colicky abdominal pain after eating a large meal; this has been happening consistently for the past 3 weeks, causing him to develop a fear of eating.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic mesenteric ischaemia (CMI)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia, Chronic Pancreatitis, Diverticulitis, Gastric Cancer, and Acute Mesenteric Ischaemic Embolism

      Abdominal pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this article, we will discuss the differential diagnosis for abdominal pain, including chronic mesenteric ischaemia (CMI), chronic pancreatitis, diverticulitis, gastric cancer, and acute mesenteric ischaemic embolism.

      CMI usually results from atherosclerotic disease of two or more mesenteric vessels, while chronic pancreatitis is characterised by a continuing, chronic, inflammatory process of the pancreas. Diverticulitis is an inflammation of one or more diverticula, while gastric cancer is the third most common cause of cancer-related death in the world. Acute mesenteric ischaemic embolism is characterised by pain that is disproportionate to physical examination findings.

      Each condition has its own unique set of symptoms and clinical presentation. By understanding the differential diagnosis for abdominal pain, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Ultrasound scan (USS) Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
      Right kidney 10.3 cm
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues

      Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.

      Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It would not lead to a rise in creatinine or asymmetrical kidneys in a young patient.

      IgA nephropathy is another potential diagnosis, but the patient’s lack of haematuria or history of recent illness does not support this diagnosis. The history of urinary tract infections also does not align with IgA nephropathy.

      Renal artery stenosis is relatively rare in young patients and would lead to a unilaterally reduced kidney size, which does not fit with the patient’s symptoms.

      White coat hypertension, while a possibility, would not explain the rise in creatinine or the reduced size and scarring of the left kidney. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor may be needed to differentiate between persistent hypertension and white coat hypertension.

      In conclusion, chronic reflux nephropathy is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, but further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited illnesses. Her grandmother experienced vision loss at the age of 70, while her mother began to have similar symptoms at the age of 50. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, Mosaicism, and Translocation of a Chromosome

      Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of inherited traits and conditions. There are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications.

      Anticipation is a term used to describe inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can lead to an expansion of the repeat and an increase in severity.

      Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in individuals with a certain trait. In some cases, only some people who inherit a certain trait will develop the associated condition, while others will not.

      Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele, which can lead to conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes.

      Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.

      Translocation of a chromosome involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can lead to conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.

      Understanding these genetic phenomena is important for diagnosing and treating inherited conditions, as well as for predicting the likelihood of certain conditions in future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dizziness when she changes...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dizziness when she changes position in bed for the past two weeks. She describes the sensation of the room spinning around her. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found in her ears and cranial nerves. Assuming that she has benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, what is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      BPPV can be diagnosed using the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, while the Epley manoeuvre is used for treatment.

      Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

      Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent urination and thirst for the past 3 months. Upon examination, the doctor orders a urine protein electrophoresis and a serum-free light-chain assay, which confirm the diagnosis. What is the most probable result on the patient's blood film?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rouleaux formation

      Explanation:

      Rouleaux formation is a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma, which is a condition that presents with symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, anaemia, and back pain. Diagnosis of myeloma involves urine protein electrophoresis and serum-free light-chain assay. Rouleaux formation is observed as stacked RBCs on a blood film, resulting from an increase in acute-phase proteins that are positively charged and attract negatively charged RBCs. It is important to note that rouleaux formation is not exclusive to myeloma and can be seen in various inflammatory conditions. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate blood test measures this mechanism clinically. Heinz bodies, which are caused by oxidative stress and denaturation of haemoglobin, are not associated with myeloma but are seen in G6PD deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies, which are present in hyposplenic or asplenic disorders, and an increased number of reticulocytes, which indicate increased RBC turnover, are also not characteristic of myeloma.

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations

      Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.

      To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic rain-drop skull pattern.

      The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 20 - During a geriatrics ward round, you assess a 87-year-old woman who was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • During a geriatrics ward round, you assess a 87-year-old woman who was admitted with community acquired pneumonia and AKI requiring IV antibiotics and fluids. She was delirious on admission but has been improving. Her confusion screen bloods show abnormal thyroid function tests:
      Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
      Phosphate 1.0 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
      Vitamin B12 550 pg/ml (110 - 1500)
      Folate 5.6 µg/ml (2.5 - 20)
      TSH 4.6 mU/L (0.5 - 5.5)
      Free T4 6.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Free T3 3.6 pmol/L (4 - 7.4)
      She is currently feeling much better on day 6 of her 7 day course of antibiotics and is asymptomatic. She takes bisoprolol, digoxin, ramipril, atorvastatin, and rivaroxaban regularly.
      What is the appropriate course of action for her abnormal thyroid function tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask her GP to repeat thyroid function tests (TFTs) in 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is common for elderly patients who are unwell to have abnormal thyroid function tests, known as sick euthyroid. This is likely the case for the woman in question, as she has no history of thyroid disease and is not taking levothyroxine. It may be reasonable to consider starting levothyroxine, but it would be preferable to wait until her current illness has resolved. Discontinuing her antibiotics before completing her course is not appropriate, as they are unlikely to be causing the abnormal TFTs and she is currently asymptomatic. It is also unnecessary to perform a radio-isotope scan, as there is no suspicion of malignancy. Her thyroid function tests tomorrow are expected to be similar.

      Understanding Sick Euthyroid Syndrome

      Sick euthyroid syndrome, also known as non-thyroidal illness, is a condition where the levels of TSH, thyroxine, and T3 are low. However, it is important to note that in most cases, the TSH level is within the normal range, which is considered inappropriate given the low levels of thyroxine and T3. This condition is reversible and typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying systemic illness. As such, treatment is usually not necessary.

      In summary, sick euthyroid syndrome is a condition where the thyroid hormone levels are low, but the TSH level is within the normal range. It is a reversible condition that typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying illness. No treatment is usually required for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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