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  • Question 1 - You are evaluating a 37-year-old man who presented with an anal fissure caused...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 37-year-old man who presented with an anal fissure caused by constipation and straining. He reports no systemic symptoms and is generally in good health. Despite using lidocaine ointment as prescribed, he continues to experience severe rectal pain during bowel movements and passes bright red blood with every stool. His stools have become softer due to modifications in his diet and regular lactulose use. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribe topical GTN ointment for 6-8 weeks and review if still not healed

      Explanation:

      To alleviate pain and promote healing, suggest using an ointment (if there are no contraindications) twice a day for 6-8 weeks. Referral to colorectal surgeons is not necessary at this time since there are no indications of a severe underlying condition. If the GTN treatment is ineffective after 6-8 weeks, referral to the surgeons may be considered. Topical diltiazem may be prescribed under specialist guidance, but hydrocortisone ointment is not a recommended treatment for anal fissures.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the anal canal that can cause pain and rectal bleeding. They can be acute or chronic, depending on how long they have been present. Risk factors for developing anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, other underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, and the use of bulk-forming laxatives or lubricants before defecation. Topical anaesthetics and analgesia can also be used to manage pain.

      For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, but topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after 8 weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered and a referral to secondary care may be necessary.

      Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for anal fissures can help individuals manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21.5
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  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint pains in his knees and ankles. In the last four weeks, he has experienced recurrent fevers reaching up to 39.5ºC that resolve spontaneously without the use of antipyretics. His mother also notes the emergence of a transient pink rash during the fevers. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is characterized by joint symptoms, high fevers that quickly return to normal, and a salmon pink rash. Other symptoms include lymph node enlargement, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and serositis (pericarditis, pleuritis, peritonitis).

      Oligoarticular JIA may also cause joint symptoms, but it doesn’t explain the fever or rash. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically presents with knee pain, but it doesn’t account for the other symptoms reported in this scenario. Osteochondritis Dissecans may cause aching and swollen joints that worsen with activity, but it doesn’t explain the fevers or pink rash. Septic arthritis is less likely in this case since there is no specific joint that is red and swollen, and the child doesn’t appear to be generally unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      83.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the definition of the statistical term that measures the spread of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the statistical term that measures the spread of a dataset from its average?

      Your Answer: Range

      Correct Answer: Mode

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Terms in Evidence-Based Medicine

      A basic understanding of statistical terms is essential in comprehending trial data and utilizing evidence-based medicine effectively. One of the most crucial statistical terms is the standard deviation, which measures the dispersion of a data set from its mean. It summarizes how widely dispersed the values are around the center of a group.

      Another important term is the mode, which refers to the most frequently occurring value in a data set. The range describes the spread of data in terms of its highest and lowest values. On the other hand, the 95% confidence interval (or 95% confidence limits) presents the range of likely effects and includes 95% of results from studies of the same size and design in the same population.

      Lastly, the weighted mean difference examines the difference in means between different sets of values, weighted for differences in the way they were recorded. Understanding these statistical terms is crucial in interpreting and analyzing trial data and making informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      33.3
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old ex-footballer comes in seeking treatment for alcoholism and is given a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old ex-footballer comes in seeking treatment for alcoholism and is given a prescription for disulfiram.

      What is the mechanism of action of disulfiram?

      Your Answer: Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase activity

      Correct Answer: Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase activity

      Explanation:

      Disulfiram and Acetaldehyde Syndrome

      Alcohol is primarily metabolized in the liver through a two-step process. First, alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol into acetaldehyde. Then, acetaldehyde dehydrogenase further metabolizes acetaldehyde into acetate. Disulfiram is a medication used to treat alcohol dependence by irreversibly inhibiting the oxidation of acetaldehyde. It does this by competing with the cofactor nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) for binding sites on acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. As a result, acetaldehyde levels increase, leading to the unpleasant side effects associated with acetaldehyde syndrome, such as headaches, nausea, and flushing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years and has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). During her visit to your clinic, she reports discomfort during intercourse due to vaginal dryness. Upon examination, you observe atrophic genitalia without any other abnormalities. The patient and her partner have attempted to use over-the-counter lubricants, but they have not been effective.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for you to take next?

      Your Answer: Continue with HRT and prescribe low-dose vaginal oestrogen

      Explanation:

      To alleviate vaginal symptoms, vaginal topical oestrogen can be used alongside HRT. Compared to systemic treatment, low-dose vaginal topical oestrogen is more effective in providing relief for vaginal symptoms. Patients should be reviewed after 3 months of treatment. It is recommended to consider stopping treatment at least once a year, but in some cases, long-term treatment may be necessary for persistent symptoms. If symptoms persist, increasing the dose or seeking specialist referral may be necessary. Testosterone supplementation is only recommended for sexual dysfunction and should be initiated after consulting a specialist. Sildenafil is not effective in treating menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.

      HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.

      Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      21.6
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  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and her BMI is 12.8 kg/m2. She is under the care of the local psychiatrist and has come to see you regarding her physical health.

      Which one of the following is typically associated with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Physical Consequences of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that requires both psychological and physical assessment. The malnutrition associated with anorexia nervosa can have significant physical consequences. One of the physical consequences is the loss of pubic and axillary hair, but sufferers develop lanugo hair which results in an overall increase in body hair.

      Classically, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism ensues, which results in amenorrhoea rather than menorrhagia. Hypokalaemia is normally found, which is a consequence of poor nutrient intake and can be exacerbated by the abuse of diuretics and laxatives. Hypotension (low blood pressure) usually features, rather than hypertension. Prolonged QT interval is typically associated with anorexia, and ECG should always be performed as part of the physical assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      23.1
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  • Question 7 - You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice....

    Correct

    • You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice. Whilst using one of the partners room for a surgery you notice a half-empty bottle of wine in the desk drawer. After discussing this with the partner she states that it was a recent gift from a patient and was simply storing it there prior to taking it home. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Discuss this with one of the other partners in the surgery

      Explanation:

      Although you have already raised your concerns about the doctor’s alcohol consumption, he has dismissed them. It is possible that his explanation, which may involve receiving gifts of alcohol, is valid. However, the fact that the bottle is half-empty is worrying and it is important to discuss your concerns with other doctors in the surgery. They may already be aware of the issue and your observation could provide additional evidence for them to take appropriate action. It is also possible that the doctor may be more willing to admit to a problem if approached by a fellow partner rather than a junior colleague like yourself.

      Filling out a clinical incident form is a good way to formally document your concerns, but it doesn’t address the issue immediately. Writing an anonymous letter to the practice manager is unprofessional and could lead to conflict, as the manager may suspect that one of the other partners wrote the letter.

      Removing the bottle doesn’t solve the underlying problem and could potentially put patients at risk. Therefore, taking no further action is not an acceptable option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      25.5
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy. She has been consistently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for the past six years and has two children aged 7 and 9. However, she had unprotected sexual intercourse 12 hours ago and failed to restart her pill three days ago after her week break. She is now seeking advice on post coital contraception. The patient's medical history includes severe trigeminal neuralgia, and she has been taking carbamazepine for the past three months. Based on FSRH guidance, what would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Copper IUD

      Correct Answer: Emergency contraception not necessary

      Explanation:

      Emergency Contraception Options and Considerations

      The copper IUD is the most effective emergency contraception option, with a low documented failure rate. It can be inserted up to five days after the first episode of unprotected sexual intercourse or five days after the estimated date of ovulation. The IUD prevents implantation and is toxic to sperm.

      Levonorgestrel is another option, licensed for use within 72 hours of UPSI (may be effective up to 96 hours). It primarily inhibits ovulation and may be used more than once in a cycle. However, its effectiveness may be reduced in women taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs, such as carbamazepine. In such cases, a double dose of 3mg may be used off-license, but the effectiveness of this has not been studied.

      Ulipristal acetate is as effective as levonorgestrel up to 120 hours (five days) and delays or inhibits ovulation. However, it binds to progesterone receptors, so an additional method of contraception is required if on COCP or POP.

      All eligible women presenting within 120 hours of UPSI or within five days of expected ovulation should be offered a copper IUD, ideally at first presentation. If this is not possible, oral emergency contraception can be given in the interim, with the woman advised to return for the IUD at the earliest appropriate time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

    When is the meningococcal...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

      When is the meningococcal C vaccine given?

      Your Answer: 2 months and 3 months

      Explanation:

      UK Immunisation Schedule and Meningococcal Serogroup C Vaccine

      We have provided a reference to the current UK immunisation schedule at the end of this text. It is a two-page A4 summary that we suggest you save and print for future reference. According to the schedule, the meningococcal serogroup C (MenC) vaccine is given to infants at one year old and as part of the MenACWY vaccine at age fourteen. However, the infant dose of MenC conjugate vaccine is no longer administered at three months of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      28
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  • Question 10 - A breastfeeding mother who is 4 weeks postpartum presents with right sided nipple...

    Correct

    • A breastfeeding mother who is 4 weeks postpartum presents with right sided nipple pain. She describes sharp pain during feeds which eases afterwards. She has been seeing her health visitor for baby weighing and he is growing along the 75th centile, but she has not had an observed feed. She doesn't have any concerns about the baby. On examination you notice some fissuring on the right nipple inferiorly but otherwise examination is normal. She is afebrile.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nipple damage from inefficient infant attachment (‘latch’)

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers may experience nipple damage due to poor latch, which can cause pain and fissuring. This is often caused by incorrect positioning and attachment of the baby to the breast. It is important to seek help from a breastfeeding expert to improve positioning and address any underlying issues, such as tongue tie.

      Nipple candidiasis can cause burning pain, itching, and hypersensitivity in both nipples, as well as deep breast pain. A bacterial infection may result in purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Vasospasm, also known as Raynaud’s disease of the nipple, can cause intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as blanching, cyanosis, and/or erythema.

      If a breastfeeding mother experiences itching and a dry, scaly rash on both nipples, it may be a sign of eczema. For more information and guidance on breastfeeding problems, consult the NICE clinical knowledge summary and the GP infant feeding network.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      39.9
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  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother for a consultation. She has recently been diagnosed with a learning disability. Her mother is concerned by a report she read online that stated that the risk of premature avoidable death is greater for people with learning disability in comparison to the general population.
      Which of the following is the main reason for this patient's increased risk of premature avoidable death?

      Your Answer: Lack of specialist learning disability services

      Correct Answer: Delays with diagnosis or treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Premature Mortality of People with Learning Disabilities in the UK

      A review of the deaths of six people with learning disabilities by Mencap in 2007 brought attention to longstanding concerns about the care of this population within the NHS. As a result, the Confidential Inquiry into the deaths of people with learning disabilities (CIPOLD) was conducted, which reviewed the deaths of 247 people with learning disabilities between 2010-2012. The study found that the median age of death for this group was significantly lower than that of the general UK population, and delays or problems with diagnosis or treatment were the most common reasons for premature deaths.

      The study also revealed that almost all individuals in the group had one or more long-term or treatable health conditions, including epilepsy, cardiovascular disease, hypertension, dementia, and osteoporosis. Respiratory infections were the most frequent cause of death, followed by heart and circulatory disorders and cancer. Suicide was not found to be a significant contributor to premature mortality, but rates were higher in people with limited intellectual functioning.

      The lack of specialist learning disability services was also identified as a barrier to appropriate care, as some doctors were not aware of Community Learning Disability Teams. However, unhealthy lifestyles, such as smoking and substance abuse, were less prevalent in this group compared to the general population.

      Overall, the study highlights the need for improved access to healthcare and coordination of care for people with learning disabilities, as well as increased awareness and understanding of the Mental Capacity Act 2005.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 59-year-old presents with a complaint of breathlessness that has been ongoing for...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old presents with a complaint of breathlessness that has been ongoing for six months. The patient recently underwent spirometry testing with the practice nurse and the post bronchodilator results are as follows:
      • FEV1/FVC ratio: 0.64
      • FEV1 (% predicted) 60%
      Despite receiving a short acting muscarinic antagonist from a colleague, the patient reports persistent breathlessness. Based on NICE guidance, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Offer Long Acting Beta Agonist + Long Acting Muscarinic Antagonist

      Explanation:

      Management of Moderate COPD

      Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for such patients would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, NICE recommends the use of a long acting beta agonist plus a long acting muscarinic antagonist. In cases where a long acting muscarinic antagonist is given, the short acting muscarinic antagonist should be stopped.

      Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended for moderate COPD. Instead, they should be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with an FEV1 < 50%. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy in COPD is not normally recommended. Antitussive therapy is also not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 64-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hip pain. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hip pain. He reports that the pain began a week ago while he was picking up a toy belonging to his grandchild. How can it be determined if the hip pain is actually referred from his lumbar spine?

      Your Answer: A negative femoral nerve stretch test

      Correct Answer: A positive femoral nerve stretch test

      Explanation:

      A potential indication of referred lumbar spine pain causing hip pain is a positive result on the femoral nerve stretch test. This is because compression of the femoral nerve may be the root cause of the pain, and stretching the nerve can reproduce the symptoms.

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can cause pain in the morning, systemic symptoms, and elevated inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is often seen in women aged 50-70 and is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and results in a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis can have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and causes pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, causing groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, with elevated ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      38.7
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  • Question 14 - A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of hearing loss in his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of hearing loss in his right ear for the past 2 days. He denies any history of trauma and reports feeling generally well. He also reports experiencing tinnitus and vertigo in his affected ear.

      During the examination, the patient has a moderate amount of earwax in both ears. There is no tenderness in his pinna, tragal or mastoid areas. The tympanic membrane appears normal in the small amount that is visible. The patient has evident hearing loss in his right ear.

      When performing Weber's test, the patient localizes the sound to his left side. Rinne's test is positive bilaterally, with air conduction being better than bone.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences sudden hearing loss, it is crucial to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. If it is sensorineural, urgent referral to an ENT specialist is necessary.

      To identify sensorineural hearing loss, both Weber’s and Rinne’s tests are used. If the sound is louder on one side in Weber’s test, it could indicate either an ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or a contralateral sensorineural hearing loss. Rinne’s test is then used to differentiate between the two. In sensorineural hearing loss, both air and bone conduction are equally diminished, resulting in a false positive result. In conductive hearing loss, bone conduction is better than air conduction.

      Ear irrigation is not appropriate for sensorineural hearing loss as it is not caused by earwax. Intranasal corticosteroids are also not effective in treating acute hearing loss, as their main role is in managing eustachian tube dysfunction.

      While routine referral to an ENT specialist is necessary, sudden hearing loss always requires urgent referral.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      209.6
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  • Question 15 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She is on day 7 post-tonsillectomy and was recovering well until this morning when her mother noticed a small amount of blood on her pillow and fresh red blood in her mouth. Upon examination, the girl appears to be in good health, but there is a blood clot in her right tonsillar fossa with no active bleeding. Her vital signs are as follows:

      Systolic blood pressure: 100 mmHg (normal range: 75-110)
      Pulse: 96 bpm (normal range: 80-150)
      Temperature: 36.8ºC (normal range: 35.5-37.5)
      Respiratory rate: 24/min (normal range: 17-30)

      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediate referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      ENT assessment is necessary for all cases of post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage.

      Any haemorrhage occurring more than 24 hours after a tonsillectomy is considered a secondary haemorrhage and can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial that all patients are managed by ENT in a hospital setting. Children may have difficulty quantifying blood loss as they may swallow the blood, making bleeding less noticeable.

      It is incorrect to review the patient in 24 hours as this is an emergency situation. Similarly, reassuring the patient or referring them to paediatrics is not appropriate. Although tranexamic acid may be helpful, hospital admission is necessary for this surgical emergency and should be managed by ENT.

      Complications after Tonsillectomy

      Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.

      Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.

      Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      43.3
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman developed sudden-onset severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman developed sudden-onset severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently began having episodes of nausea and vomiting, especially after trying to eat or drink. She has diminished bowel sounds exquisite tenderness in the mid-epigastrium with rebound tenderness and guarding. Her pulse is 110 and BP 130/75. She reports taking ibuprofen for dysmenorrhoea but last took it the day before the pain began.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and Peptic Ulceration: Risks and Symptoms

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are a common cause of gastric and duodenal ulceration, second only to Helicobacter pylori. The inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) by NSAIDs reduces the production of gastric mucosal prostaglandins, leading to decreased cytoprotection. This can result in peptic ulceration, with at least one-third to one-half of ulcer perforations being associated with NSAIDs.

      Patients at high risk of NSAID-induced peptic ulceration include the elderly, those with a history of peptic ulcer disease, and those with serious co-morbidities such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, renal or hepatic impairment. The risk varies between individual NSAIDs and is also dose-related.

      Symptoms of acute complications of NSAID-induced peptic ulceration can include peritonitis, which requires urgent surgical referral. Acute pancreatitis may present with similar symptoms, but tenderness may be less and there may be a history of Gallbladder disease or alcohol abuse. Gastritis typically doesn’t involve altered bowel sounds or signs of peritoneal irritation, while cholecystitis and appendicitis present with tenderness in the right upper quadrant and right iliac fossa, respectively.

      In summary, NSAIDs can pose a significant risk for peptic ulceration, particularly in high-risk patients. It is important to be aware of the symptoms of acute complications and to promptly refer patients for appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      634.6
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum follow-up. She is exclusively...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum follow-up. She is exclusively breastfeeding and has not had a menstrual period yet. She has heard about using lactational amenorrhoea as a form of contraception and wants to know more about its effectiveness. Assuming she is fully breastfeeding, under 6 months postpartum, and has not yet had a period, what is the approximate efficacy of the lactational amenorrhoea method of contraception?

      Your Answer: 98%

      Explanation:

      If a woman is fully or almost fully breastfeeding, under 6 months postpartum, and not experiencing periods yet, lactational amenorrhoea can be a highly effective form of contraception. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) recommends that if these conditions are met, there may be no need for an alternative contraceptive method at this time.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      636.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are conducting an annual health check on a 65-year-old female patient who...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual health check on a 65-year-old female patient who has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She takes ramipril in the morning and metformin twice a day, and has made lifestyle modifications including dietary changes. Her HbA1C level is 53 mmol/mol. When should a second medication be considered in combination with metformin to lower her HbA1c?

      Your Answer: If the HbA1c is greater than 53 mmol/mol

      Correct Answer: If the HbA1c is greater than 58 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      To intensify the drug treatment for this patient, a second agent should be added if her HbA1c level reaches 58 mmol/mol. It is recommended to advise adults with type 2 diabetes to maintain their HbA1c level below their target if they are not experiencing hypoglycaemia.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and is diagnosed with mild Parkinson's-related dementia. Is there a licensed medication available to treat their cognitive impairment?

      Your Answer: Levodopa

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      Rivastigmine is the only acetylcholinesterase inhibitor approved for treating mild to moderate Parkinson’s related dementia, while none of the three (donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine) are licensed for use in vascular dementia. However, all three are commonly used to alleviate cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest prevalence of depression in your practice population?

      Your Answer: Separated males

      Correct Answer: Separated females

      Explanation:

      Prevalence of Depression in Different Groups

      The prevalence rate of depression varies among different groups. According to research, separated males have the highest rate of depression, with 111 per 1000. This rate is even higher for those who are unemployed, homeless, or going through separation. Separated females have a lower rate of 56 per 1000.

      Widowed males and females have rates of 70 and 46 respectively, while married men and women have the lowest rates of 17 and 14 respectively. Interestingly, unemployment affects men and women differently, with the rate increasing to 27 for men and 56 per 1000 for women. These findings highlight the importance of considering different demographic factors when assessing the prevalence of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old patient has a cholesterol level of 5.1 mmol/L and a QRISK...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old patient has a cholesterol level of 5.1 mmol/L and a QRISK score of 11%. They lead an active lifestyle and have no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing these findings?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Correct Answer: Commence atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Based on the QRISK score, it appears that dietary changes alone may not be enough to lower the risk of cardiovascular disease to a satisfactory level.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 47-year-old female presents with complaints of irregular periods, bothersome hot flashes, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old female presents with complaints of irregular periods, bothersome hot flashes, and mood swings for the past six months. She is interested in trying hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and has no contraindications. Her mother has a history of unprovoked DVT, but she has never experienced it. Which HRT preparation would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral combined continuous HRT

      Correct Answer: Transdermal combined sequential preparation

      Explanation:

      The recommended hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for this patient is a transdermal, combined sequential preparation. This is because she has erratic periods, indicating an intact uterus that requires protection of the endometrium with both oestrogen and progesterone. Therefore, an oestrogen-only HRT is not suitable.

      Using a Mirena coil, which releases levonorgestrel into the uterus, is unlikely to alleviate the emotional lability and hot flashes associated with menopause. Additionally, using it alone without an oestrogen component is not an option for this patient. As she is still having periods at the age of 49, a sequential preparation is more appropriate than a continuous one, which is typically used after menopause.

      Given the patient’s family history of unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a transdermal preparation may be preferable as it significantly reduces the risk of venous thromboembolism associated with HRT.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for 3 years seeks advice from relief medical staff at a homeless shelter concerning his sore gums.

      He has coiled body hairs with small bruises at their points of insertion as well as noting that if he cuts himself or has trauma the wounds take longer to heal than expected.

      What is the most likely problem?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scurvy: A Vitamin C Deficiency Syndrome

      Scurvy is a clinical syndrome that results from a lack of vitamin C in the body. This condition is primarily caused by impaired collagen synthesis, which leads to disordered connective tissue. Symptoms of scurvy can occur as early as three months after deficient intake and include ecchymoses, bleeding gums, petechiae, and impaired wound healing.

      Scurvy is most commonly found in individuals who are severely malnourished, drug and alcohol abusers, or those living in poverty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen therapy. What is the most suitable method to administer this oxygen?

      Your Answer: Oxygen cylinders supplied via Home Oxygen Order Form

      Correct Answer: Oxygen concentrator supplied via Home Oxygen Order Form

      Explanation:

      The prescription for oxygen is now done through the Home Oxygen Order Form instead of the FP10. Private companies are now responsible for providing the oxygen supply instead of the local pharmacy.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive...

    Correct

    • You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. The patient has been prescribed a daily dose of 20 mg of tamoxifen. What is the most frequent adverse effect of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen Side Effects According to BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used to set questions for the AKT, and it lists the frequency of side effects for medications. Tamoxifen, for example, has common or very common side effects such as headaches, while all the other options are rare or very rare. Patients taking tamoxifen should be informed about the increased risk of thromboembolism and advised to watch for symptoms of DVT and PE. Additionally, patients should be warned about the increased risk of endometrial cancer and instructed to report any relevant symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential side effects and counsel patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What could be the probable reason for visual hallucinations in an 85-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • What could be the probable reason for visual hallucinations in an 85-year-old woman named Edith who sees frightening faces on the walls and insects on the floor, despite being aware that they are not real? She has a medical history of hypertension, depression, hearing loss, and macular degeneration.

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome can lead to distressing visual hallucinations in approximately one-third of those affected. While Lewy body dementia may also cause visual hallucinations and cognitive impairment, it is less likely in the absence of other neuropsychiatric symptoms. Acute psychosis typically involves auditory hallucinations and delusions, while psychotic depression is characterized by severe depression and the emergence of psychotic symptoms.

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      1070.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior MI. He reports no further episodes of chest pain or shortness of breath, but he is experiencing significant fatigue. On cardiovascular examination, there are no signs of cardiac failure.
      The patient discloses feeling down for the past month, struggling with sleep, and having a poor appetite. He is anxious about the future and avoiding social interactions with colleagues and friends. He expresses a lack of motivation and purpose in life. He has a history of two severe depressive episodes and a mild episode about a year ago, which responded well to a low dose of amitriptyline.
      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Suggest he starts taking sertraline, and review him within the next two weeks

      Correct Answer: Stop his beta blocker medication, as this is probably what is making him so tired

      Explanation:

      Treating Post-MI Depression

      Patients who have suffered a heart attack are at an increased risk of developing depression. It is crucial to identify and treat post-MI depression promptly. In this case, the patient is experiencing persistent low mood, anhedonia, sleep disturbance, and loss of appetite, indicating the need for immediate treatment. While assessing his symptoms using the PHQ-9 depression questionnaire is appropriate, delaying treatment is not advisable.

      It is essential to continue the patient’s beta-blocker treatment as it is appropriate post-MI therapy. While it is reasonable to explain that post-MI depression is not uncommon, active treatment should be initiated immediately if the patient agrees. Amitriptyline should not be used as it increases the risk of arrhythmias, and the patient is already at a higher risk following his MI. Sertraline is a well-tolerated and effective treatment for post-MI depression and should be considered. Proper identification and treatment of post-MI depression can significantly improve the patient’s quality of life and overall prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What genetic condition would affect the age at which breast cancer screening should...

    Correct

    • What genetic condition would affect the age at which breast cancer screening should begin?

      Your Answer: BRCA

      Explanation:

      Genetic Mutations and Cancer Risk

      Genetic mutations can increase an individual’s risk of developing cancer. However, not all mutations increase the risk of breast cancer. Only the BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. Women who carry these mutations should not follow the usual screening program. Instead, they should have yearly MRI scans starting at age 30.

      Other genetic conditions also predispose individuals to different types of cancer. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) increases the risk of early onset bowel cancer. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) puts people at risk of parathyroid cancer, carcinoid, insulinoma, gastrinomas, angiofibromas, pituitary tumors, collagenomas, and lipomas. Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome increases the risk of renal cell carcinoma, phaeochromocytoma, and retinal and CNS haemangioblastomas, as well as other rarer forms of cancer. Blount syndrome is a disorder of the tibial growth plate leading to bowing.

      If women think they have a high risk of breast cancer due to family history but do not know if they carry BRCA or TP53 gene, they can be referred to a specialist breast clinic to have their risk assessed. It is important to be aware of these genetic mutations and conditions to take appropriate measures to reduce the risk of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old patient comes to you with a one month history of right...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient comes to you with a one month history of right blurry vision. You previously saw this patient three years ago when they presented with a right gritty eye that did not affect their vision.
      Upon examination, you diagnose the patient with a right, peripheral, pterygium. The patient's left eye remains healthy with no complaints.
      During the ocular examination, you notice that the pterygium has now encroached further onto the corneal surface, reaching the limbus landmark and partially obstructing the patient's field of vision.
      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer patient routinely to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      Pterygium and Visual Disturbances

      Pterygium, a growth of tissue on the conjunctiva of the eye, can cause visual disturbances by physically encroaching on the visual axis or inducing astigmatism. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent vision loss. The best management option is to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for surgical removal of the pterygium. While optometrist referral and new glasses may provide temporary relief, they do not address the underlying issue and may not be a long-term solution. It is important to address pterygium early to prevent further visual impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      31
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (2/3) 67%
Mental Health (1/3) 33%
Consulting In General Practice (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/2) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/2) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Passmed