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  • Question 1 - You are working as a clinical research fellow. You design a case-control study...

    Incorrect

    • You are working as a clinical research fellow. You design a case-control study to investigate the association between maternal diet during pregnancy and adolescent obesity.

      What kind of bias is this study most susceptible to?

      Your Answer: Sampling bias

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Recall bias is a significant concern in case-control studies, particularly those conducted retrospectively. Participants may be asked to recall past exposures, leading to the risk of certain events being forgotten or over-remembered.

      Expectation bias is more likely to occur in non-blinded trials, where the observer’s cognitive biases can influence the recorded data. However, this is unlikely to be an issue in this retrospective study.

      Late look bias can arise when there is a significant delay in gathering data. For example, if data were collected when the children were in their 40s, mothers who were particularly unhealthy during pregnancy may have died, leading to underrepresentation in the study.

      Measurement bias can occur when the outcome of interest is poorly measured. In this study, for instance, measurement bias could arise if the children’s obesity status was determined based on the measurement of incorrectly calibrated scales.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The standard immunisation schedule in infancy would prevent which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The standard immunisation schedule in infancy would prevent which of the following?

      Your Answer: Chickenpox

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Immunisation Policies for Common Diseases

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues, potentially leading to upper respiratory tract obstruction. The most common cause is Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib), but immunisation against Hib has significantly reduced its incidence in countries where it is included in routine vaccination schedules.

      Cervical carcinoma, caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), can be prevented through immunisation, which is offered to 12-year-old girls.

      A vaccine for Chickenpox is available and recommended for healthcare workers who may come into contact with the disease if they are not immune.

      Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for travellers, patients with chronic liver disease, haemophilia patients who receive plasma-derived clotting factors, intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, contacts of hepatitis A cases, and those with occupational risk.

      Tuberculosis (TB) immunisation policies are based on risk. BCG is not part of the standard schedule, but it is offered to infants living in areas with a significant annual incidence of TB or born into families with a history of TB. It is also offered to infants and children with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a significant annual incidence of TB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of fever, dysuria, suprapubic pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of fever, dysuria, suprapubic pain, and increased frequency of micturition. This is happening 14 days after finishing antibiotic treatment for an Escherichia coli (E coli) urinary-tract infection (UTI). She is currently using condoms for contraception. Urine culture reveals the presence of the same E coli. She has no history of recurrent UTIs and is in good health otherwise.
      What is the most likely cause of her persistent symptoms?

      Your Answer: Atrophic vaginitis

      Correct Answer: Silent pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of recurrent UTI in a young woman

      Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common problem in women, but their underlying causes can vary. In this case, the patient presents with symptoms suggestive of cystitis, but her urine culture is positive for the same organism despite completing a course of antibiotics. This raises the possibility of silent pyelonephritis, a condition in which the kidney is infected but there are no overt signs of inflammation. Other potential diagnoses to consider include interstitial cystitis, atrophic vaginitis, chlamydial urethritis, and use of spermicidal jelly. Each of these conditions has distinct features that can help guide further evaluation and management. For example, interstitial cystitis is characterized by sterile urine cultures and chronic pelvic pain, while atrophic vaginitis is more common in postmenopausal women and can cause recurrent UTIs due to changes in vaginal flora. Chlamydial urethritis may be suspected if there is a history of unprotected sexual activity, and a mid-stream urine culture would be negative. Finally, the use of spermicidal jelly can increase the risk of UTIs, but this is usually due to re-infection rather than relapse. Overall, a careful history and physical examination, along with appropriate laboratory tests, can help narrow down the differential diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A health visitor expresses concern about the head growth of a 6-month-old girl...

    Correct

    • A health visitor expresses concern about the head growth of a 6-month-old girl who has moved from the 50th to the 91st centile in the last 2 months. Which of the following is not a likely cause for this change?

      Your Answer: Craniosynostosis e.g. Crouzon's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Crouzon’s syndrome typically have a reduced cranial size.

      Understanding Macrocephaly in Children

      Macrocephaly is a condition characterized by an abnormally large head circumference in children. There are several possible causes of macrocephaly, including a normal variant, chronic hydrocephalus, chronic subdural effusion, neurofibromatosis, gigantism (such as Soto’s syndrome), metabolic storage diseases, and bone problems like thalassaemia.

      In some cases, macrocephaly may be a normal variant and not a cause for concern. However, it is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocephaly in order to determine the appropriate treatment and management. Chronic hydrocephalus, for example, may require surgical intervention to relieve pressure on the brain. Neurofibromatosis may require ongoing monitoring and management to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory. He has felt more forgetful over the last six months; his wife mentions that he seems to ask the same questions repeatedly.
      The GP decides to conduct a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).
      What is the most appropriate advice to provide the patient before this test?

      Your Answer: The MMSE involves tests of immediate and delayed recall

      Explanation:

      The MMSE: A Test of Cognition and Recall

      The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used test to assess cognitive function in patients. It consists of 30 items that evaluate various aspects of cognition, including immediate and delayed recall, fine motor skills, calculation, language, and comprehension. One of the tasks involves asking the patient to recall three words immediately and later on in the test. A score of 27 or lower on the MMSE may indicate dementia.

      While the MMSE does test fine motor skills by asking the patient to copy intersecting pentagons, it may not be the best screening tool for general practice. GPs may find other tests, such as the 6-Item Cognitive Impairment Test or the GP Assessment of Cognition Test, more suitable for their needs.

      It’s important to note that the MMSE is not designed to assess affective disorders or delirium. Therefore, it should not be used for this purpose. Overall, the MMSE is a useful tool for clinicians to establish a baseline understanding of a patient’s cognitive state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman with hepatitis C visits your clinic as she is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with hepatitis C visits your clinic as she is considering starting a family. She has no other medical issues. She inquires about the likelihood of her baby contracting hepatitis C.

      What is the probability of the virus being passed from mother to child?

      Your Answer: 25-50%

      Correct Answer: 75-100%

      Explanation:

      Transmission Rates of Hepatitis B and C from Mother to Child

      The transmission rate of hepatitis B virus from mother to child can be as high as 90%, while the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus is only about 6%. This is because the neonatal immune system is not yet mature enough to fight off the hepatitis B virus, but it is able to fight off the hepatitis C virus to some extent. However, if the mother is also HIV positive, the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus can be higher. It is important to take time to understand this information before making any decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his...

    Correct

    • You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?

      Your Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication

      Explanation:

      If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible...

    Incorrect

    • If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible to psychiatric disturbance in patients taking Tamiflu, in what type of study would you be most likely to find it?

      Your Answer: Managed health care database

      Correct Answer: Nested case-control study

      Explanation:

      Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety

      By definition, rare case reports cannot be adequately addressed in a standard clinical development program that typically involves studies in up to 5,000 patients. Therefore, conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to provide significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not offer sufficient detailed information to establish causality, and a cohort study may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. In this scenario, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study compares a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences and draw conclusions about drug safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for the past 5 months. She has been keeping a headache diary which shows that she experiences symptoms for approximately 20-25 days each month. The headache is usually felt on one side of her head, and she has been taking paracetamol 1g qds and ibuprofen 400mg tds daily to alleviate her symptoms. The doctor suspects that she may be suffering from medication overuse headache. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Gradually withdraw analgesics

      Correct Answer: Abruptly stop analgesics

      Explanation:

      Understanding Medication Overuse Headache

      Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.

      According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which resolved over the next three days.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Smoking cannabis

      Correct Answer: Diazepam dependence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal and Hallucinations

      The key points in the history are that the patient is experiencing visual hallucinations that resolve over 72 hours. Based on the given options, alcohol withdrawal is the most likely cause, especially since the patient also has paranoid psychosis. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically appear 6-12 hours after cessation and include insomnia, tremors, anxiety, and nausea, among others. Alcoholic hallucinosis can also occur, which includes visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations. Withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens can also occur, with the latter having a mortality rate of approximately 35% without treatment. It’s important to note that benzodiazepines can cause a protracted withdrawal syndrome, while fluoxetine overdose, heroin withdrawal, and cannabis use have their own distinct symptoms and effects. Understanding the signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and hallucinations can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur twice a day and are fast and irregular, with a possible association with alcohol consumption. He denies any chest pain or fainting episodes. On examination, his cardiovascular symptoms are normal, with a pulse of 72/min and a blood pressure of 116/78 mmHg. Blood tests and a 12-lead ECG are unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Arrange a Holter monitor

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences palpitations, the first step in investigating the issue should be to conduct a Holter monitor test after conducting initial blood tests and an ECG. Palpitations are often indicative of an arrhythmia, such as atrial fibrillation, and it is important to conduct further investigations to rule out this possibility.

      Holter monitoring is the recommended first-line investigation to capture any episodes of arrhythmia. Since the patient experiences these episodes daily, a 24-hour monitoring period is appropriate. However, a troponin test is not necessary as there is no chest pain, and an echocardiogram is not warranted as there are no indications of heart failure.

      If the Holter monitoring results are normal and the patient continues to experience symptoms, an external loop recorder may be considered.

      Investigating Palpitations: Identifying Possible Causes and Capturing Episodic Arrhythmias

      Palpitations are a common symptom that can be caused by various factors such as arrhythmias, stress, and increased awareness of normal heartbeats. To investigate the underlying cause of palpitations, first-line investigations include a 12-lead ECG, thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and a full blood count. However, these investigations may not capture episodic arrhythmias, which are often missed during a short ECG recording.

      To capture episodic arrhythmias, the most common investigation is Holter monitoring. This portable battery-operated device continuously records ECG from 2-3 leads for 24 hours or longer if symptoms are less than daily. Patients are asked to keep a diary to record any symptomatic palpitations, which can later be compared to the rhythm strip at the time of the symptoms. At the end of the monitoring, a report is generated summarizing heart rate, arrhythmias, and changes in ECG waveform.

      If no abnormality is found on the Holter monitor and symptoms persist, other options include an external loop recorder or an implantable loop recorder. These investigations can help identify the underlying cause of palpitations and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are conducting an asthma review on a 20-year-old man who is currently...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an asthma review on a 20-year-old man who is currently only using a short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA). In what situations does NICE recommend prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for this patient?

      Your Answer: Being woken by asthma symptoms once weekly or more

      Explanation:

      NICE Recommendations for Prescribing Inhaled Corticosteroids in Asthma Patients

      NICE advises prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid in patients with asthma who use an inhaled SABA three times a week or more, experience asthma symptoms three times a week or more, or are woken up by asthma symptoms once a week or more. Additionally, NICE recommends considering an ICS if the patient has had an asthma attack requiring oral corticosteroids in the past two years. These recommendations aim to improve asthma control and reduce the risk of exacerbations. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that their patients receive appropriate treatment for their asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having scabies. His partner has disclosed that he was treated for scabies recently, and the physician observes the typical burrows in the man's finger webs. The man has no other skin ailments or allergies to drugs/foods.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream applied to all skin, rinsed after 12 hours with re-treatment after 1 week

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for scabies is the application of permethrin cream to all skin, including the scalp, which should be left on for 12 hours before rinsing off. This treatment should be repeated after 7 days. Malathion is a second-line treatment that should be rinsed off after 24 hours. Steroids may be used by dermatologists in cases of resistant scabies or scabies pruritus, but only under specialist guidance. Salt water bathing is not recommended as a treatment for scabies. Mupirocin cream is used to eliminate MRSA in asymptomatic hospital inpatients.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a two week history of feeling unwell, characterised...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a two week history of feeling unwell, characterised by one week of catarrhal illness, followed by a dry hacking cough, which is now paroxysmal, and she has vomited twice after coughing.

      On examination, she is afebrile, and her chest sounds clear. She was previously well, but she is unsure of her vaccination history as she lived abroad as a child.

      She lives with her husband and two children, aged 18 months and 8. The children have not been immunised against pertussis. You suspect she may have pertussis.

      While awaiting confirmation, who should be offered antibiotics?

      Your Answer: The 27-year-old only

      Correct Answer: Nobody

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Pertussis

      When managing a suspected or confirmed case of pertussis, it is important to offer prophylactic antibiotics to reduce transmission if the case presents within 21 days of onset and a vulnerable contact is present in the household. All household contacts, regardless of age or immunisation status, should be offered antibiotics. Antibiotics may not alter the clinical course of the illness, but they can eliminate the organism from the respiratory tract, reducing person-to-person transmission. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to 10 years, pregnant women, healthcare workers, immunocompromised individuals, and those with chronic illnesses. The maternal pertussis vaccine programme has been highly effective in preventing disease for infants less than 2 months of age. Therefore, the definition of vulnerable infants has been amended to include unimmunised infants born ≤32 weeks, unimmunised infants born >32 weeks whose mothers did not receive maternal pertussis vaccine after 16 weeks and at least 2 weeks before delivery, and infants aged 2 months or over who are unimmunised or partially immunised. It is important for GPs to understand and implement national guidelines for respiratory problems, including the management of pertussis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      57.9
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?

      Your Answer: A positive Seidel’s test

      Correct Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity

      Explanation:

      postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery

      Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:

      1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.

      2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.

      3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.

      4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.

      5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.

      6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.

      In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      24.9
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  • Question 16 - You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to initiate the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has no significant medical history, but she does smoke 5-10 cigarettes per day. Her BMI and blood pressure are both within normal ranges. Her aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at the age of 55.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of combined hormonal contraceptive pills can lead to a decreased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for many years even after discontinuation. However, for women under 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 2, indicating that the benefits of using the method generally outweigh the potential risks. For women over 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 3 if they smoke less than 15 cigarettes a day and 4 if they smoke more than 15 cigarettes a day.

      While some meta-analyses have shown a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, there is no significant risk of breast cancer after 10 years of discontinuation. Additionally, COCP can help reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      76.9
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  • Question 17 - Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has...

    Correct

    • Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual shortness-of-breath?

      FEV1/FVC 0.60
      FEV1% predicted 60%

      Your Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)

      Explanation:

      Investigating and Diagnosing COPD

      To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a common symptom or condition associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common symptom or condition associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Peyronie's disease

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin treatment

      Explanation:

      Associated Conditions with Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects the hand’s connective tissue, causing the fingers to bend towards the palm. Along with genetic factors, several other conditions are associated with Dupuytren’s contracture. These include diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, acromegaly, leukaemia, and pregnancy. Additionally, alcoholic liver disease, Peyronie’s disease, and phenytoin treatment are also linked to Dupuytren’s contracture. It is essential to be aware of these associated conditions to identify and manage Dupuytren’s contracture effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      88.8
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  • Question 19 - What is the most suitable approach to prevent variceal bleeding in a 45-year-old...

    Correct

    • What is the most suitable approach to prevent variceal bleeding in a 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse who has been diagnosed with grade 3 oesophageal varices during an outpatient endoscopy?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The prophylaxis of oesophageal bleeding can be achieved using a non-cardioselective B-blocker (NSBB), while endoscopic sclerotherapy is no longer considered effective in preventing variceal haemorrhage.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - As a GPST1 in general practice, you encounter a 37-year-old woman who comes...

    Incorrect

    • As a GPST1 in general practice, you encounter a 37-year-old woman who comes to your clinic seeking advice. She was recently diagnosed with premature menopause and has been advised to undergo hormone replacement therapy (HRT) until she reaches the age of 49. However, she expresses some concerns about this and wishes to know the reason behind the recommended treatment. How would you explain this to the patient?

      Your Answer: Reduces the risk of osteoporosis and prevents endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Reduces the risk of cardiovascular disease and prevents osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      For women who experience premature menopause or premature ovarian insufficiency (POI), it is recommended to continue hormone replacement therapy (HRT) until the age of 50. POI is diagnosed in women under 40 who have experienced amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea for at least four months and have a raised FSH level of over 40 IU/L measured on two occasions four to six weeks apart. Women with POI are at a higher risk of cardiovascular disease, osteoporosis, and cognitive impairment. HRT is prescribed to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and prevent osteoporosis, unless contraindicated. However, HRT doesn’t reduce the risk of breast cancer or endometrial cancer and may increase the risk of breast cancer if used after natural menopause, which occurs around the age of 50.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      76.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present for a few months. The varicocele is not causing him any discomfort and has not increased in size, measuring about 2 cm in diameter. During examination, the varicocele is only noticeable when the patient performs the Valsalva manoeuvre. The patient expresses concern about his future fertility, despite not having any immediate plans for children.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Surgery for varicoceles increases the chance of spontaneous pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Men should not be offered surgery for varicoceles as a form of fertility treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      102.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for some time with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.

      She claims to taking her medications regularly according to prescription.

      What will be the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Switch to another group of antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Switching Antidepressants: Consider Mirtazapine

      When a patient stops responding to fluoxetine, switching to another group of antidepressants is a feasible approach. One such option is mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant that exhibits both noradrenergic and serotonergic activity. Studies have shown that mirtazapine is effective in treating a substantial proportion of patients who did not respond well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or found them difficult to tolerate. Therefore, if a patient is no longer responding to fluoxetine, it may be worth considering switching to mirtazapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man was prescribed fluoxetine for a depressive illness related to a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man was prescribed fluoxetine for a depressive illness related to a recent breakup. You receive a call one week later from his family, stating that he has become very ill after increasing his dose without medical advice. Upon visiting him, you observe that he is confused, sweating profusely, and has a fever of 39.5°C. He is experiencing tremors and myoclonus, but no other physical symptoms. He denies taking any other medications or substances. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome and Related Drug Reactions

      Serotonin syndrome is a serious drug reaction that can occur due to therapeutic drug use, drug interactions, overdose, or recreational drug use. It is caused by excessive activity at serotonin receptors in the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. Symptoms typically appear within six hours of taking the provoking drug and may include tremors, restlessness, diarrhea, agitation, hypervigilance, and acute delirium.

      The syndrome can cause a triad of abnormalities, including cognitive effects like headache and hallucinations, autonomic effects like sweating and nausea, and somatic effects like muscle twitching and tremors. While it is uncommon, the incidence is unclear due to underdiagnosis.

      The most important step in treating serotonin syndrome is to remove the offending agent or interacting drugs. Supportive measures like IV fluids and benzodiazepines may also be used. Mild cases usually resolve within 24 hours, while severe cases may require intensive care.

      Fluoxetine overdoses are typically minimally toxic, but cardiac conduction abnormalities and fatalities have been reported in cases involving co-ingested drugs or other factors. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs that causes fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Tardive dyskinesia, characterized by oral grimaces and choreoathetoid movements, is caused mainly by antipsychotic drugs and may resolve when the drug is stopped.

      Overall, understanding these drug reactions and their symptoms is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
      Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.

      Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease stage 2

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 24-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after engaging in UPSI and...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after engaging in UPSI and requests emergency contraception. She had missed a few days of taking her POP before the encounter. The doctor advises her to book an appointment at the sexual health clinic for screening and after counselling, prescribes levonorgestrel.

      What is the waiting period for the patient to restart her POP after taking the emergency contraception?

      Your Answer: She doesn't - can start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women can begin using hormonal contraception right away after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. However, if ulipristal acetate was used instead, it may affect the effectiveness of hormonal contraception and women should use barrier methods or refrain from sex for 5 days before resuming hormonal contraception.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue and unexplained weight loss during the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue and unexplained weight loss during the past few months. He has been suffering from ulcerative colitis since his early 30s. His liver function tests show abnormalities.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Biliary tract carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ulcerative Colitis and Deranged Liver Function

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) is associated with various conditions, including primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), which confers a high risk for cholangiocarcinoma. Therefore, a patient with UC and deranged liver function is likely to have cancer, specifically cholangiocarcinoma. Gallstones, chronic pancreatitis, and small bowel lymphoma are less likely diagnoses due to their lack of association with UC and/or absence of relevant symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis is a possibility, but its incidence is not increased in patients with UC. Overall, cholangiocarcinoma should be considered as a potential diagnosis in a patient with UC and deranged liver function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions...

    Correct

    • Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?

      Your Answer: Acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms

      Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.

      In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.

      Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.

      Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 48-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with bothersome vasomotor symptoms. She is experiencing frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with bothersome vasomotor symptoms. She is experiencing frequent hot flashes and is seeking relief. She is hesitant to take hormone replacement therapy but is open to trying other medications. What options are supported by evidence for the management of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Flupentixol

      Correct Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants for Vasomotor Symptoms

      Antidepressants in the SSRI and SNRI classes have been found to reduce vasomotor symptoms, such as hot flashes and night sweats, in studies. This is thought to be due to the involvement of serotonin in the pathogenesis of these symptoms. While there is some evidence for SSRIs like fluoxetine and paroxetine, the most convincing data is for the SNRI venlafaxine at a dose of 37.5 mg twice daily. However, the studies are short, lasting only a few weeks.

      Despite their potential benefits, the main drawback of these medications is the high incidence of nausea. Patients should be monitored closely for side effects and may need to try different medications or doses to find the most effective and tolerable option. Overall, antidepressants may be a useful option for women experiencing vasomotor symptoms, but careful consideration of the risks and benefits is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a foul-smelling, watery discharge...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a foul-smelling, watery discharge from her vagina. Upon examination, clue cells are found in a swab.

      Medical history:
      Endometriosis

      Current medications:
      Yasmin
      Loratadine 10 mg once daily

      Allergies:
      Penicillin
      Clindamycin

      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Patients with bacterial vaginosis who have a history of clue cells can be treated with topical clindamycin as an alternative to metronidazole, according to the BNF. This is particularly useful for patients who are allergic to metronidazole.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients...

    Correct

    • A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients at the practice who received palliative care over the past six months, anonymises it, collates it, and compares it to local guidelines.

      He presents the findings to the rest of the team and actions to improve care are identified.

      This is an example of which of the following processes?

      Your Answer: Clinical audit

      Explanation:

      Clinical audit aims to enhance patient care and results by conducting a methodical evaluation of care against specific standards and implementing modifications accordingly. This involves comparing practice with guidelines to evaluate the quality of care and pinpointing areas that require improvement. To ensure that care has improved, the audit process should be repeated after implementing any changes.

      Understanding Clinical Audit

      Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.

      Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.

      In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      19
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/3) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/3) 0%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Health (2/3) 67%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (2/2) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed