-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 31-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of gallstones and an abnormal dilation of the common bile duct measuring 7 mm. The patient is currently taking morphine for pain relief. After four hours, the pain subsides, and she is discharged without any symptoms. Two weeks later, she returns for a follow-up visit and reports being symptom-free. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Repeat USS
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Explanation:The patient had symptoms of biliary colic, including nausea, vomiting, and right upper quadrant pain, and an ultrasound scan revealed gallstones and a dilated common bile duct. While the patient’s pain has subsided, there is a risk of complications from gallstone disease. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography is a non-invasive diagnostic procedure that visualizes the biliary and pancreatic ducts, but it does not offer a management option. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography can diagnose and treat obstruction caused by gallstones, but it is only a symptomatic treatment and not a definitive management. Repeat ultrasound has no added value in management. The only definitive management for gallstones is cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder. Doing nothing puts the patient at risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man comes in with complaints of gradual difficulty swallowing and noticeable weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a tumour is discovered in the lower third of his oesophagus. Which of the following ailments is commonly linked to oesophageal adenocarcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrett’s oesophagus
Explanation:Aetiological Factors for Oesophageal Carcinoma
Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the oesophagus, the muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach. There are several factors that can increase the risk of developing this type of cancer.
Aetiological Factors for Oesophageal Carcinoma
Alcohol and tobacco use are two of the most well-known risk factors for oesophageal carcinoma. Prolonged, severe gastro-oesophageal reflux, caustic strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, dietary factors, coeliac disease, and tylosis are also associated with an increased risk of developing this type of cancer.
Achalasia, a condition that affects the ability of the oesophagus to move food towards the stomach, is particularly associated with squamous-cell carcinoma of the oesophagus. However, it may also cause a small increased risk of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus.
On the other hand, Crohn’s disease, duodenal ulceration, and ulcerative colitis do not have an association with oesophageal carcinoma. Partial gastrectomy, a surgical procedure that involves removing part of the stomach, is a risk factor for gastric – rather than oesophageal – carcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman presents with a history of melaena on three separate occasions in the past three years. She reports having had many tests, including barium enemas, flexible sigmoidoscopies, and oesophagogastroduodenoscopies, which were all normal.
One year ago she required two units of blood to raise her haematocrit from 24% to 30%. She has been taking iron, 300 mg orally BD, since then.
The patient has hypertension, coronary artery disease, and heart failure treated with digoxin, enalapril, furosemide, and metoprolol. She does not have chest pain or dyspnoea.
Her body mass index is 32, her pulse is 88 per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg supine and 118/82 mm Hg standing. The conjunctivae are pale. A ventricular gallop is heard. There are bruits over both femoral arteries.
Rectal examination reveals dark brown stool that is positive for occult blood. Other findings of the physical examination are normal.
Barium enema shows a few diverticula scattered throughout the descending and transverse colon.
Colonoscopy shows angiodysplasia of the caecum but no bleeding is seen.
Technetium (99mTc) red cell scan of the colon is negative.
Haemoglobin is 105 g/L (115-165) and her haematocrit is 30% (36-47).
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this time?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continued observation
Explanation:Angiodysplasia
Angiodysplasia is a condition where previously healthy blood vessels degenerate, commonly found in the caecum and proximal ascending colon. The majority of angiodysplasias, around 77%, are located in these areas. Symptoms of angiodysplasia include maroon-coloured stool, melaena, haematochezia, and haematemesis. Bleeding is usually low-grade, but in some cases, around 15%, it can be massive. However, bleeding stops spontaneously in over 90% of cases.
Radionuclide scanning using technetium Tc99 labelled red blood cells can help detect and locate active bleeding from angiodysplasia, even at low rates of 0.1 ml/min. However, the intermittent nature of bleeding in angiodysplasia limits the usefulness of this method. For patients who are haemodynamically stable, a conservative approach is recommended as most bleeding angiodysplasias will stop on their own. Treatment is usually not necessary for asymptomatic patients who incidentally discover they have angiodysplasias.
Overall, angiodysplasia and its symptoms is important for early detection and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding - the mother noticed that the child had been difficult to settle in the day, on changing the child's nappy she noted a substance which looked like redcurrant jelly in the nappy contents. A diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is suspected.
With regard to Meckel’s diverticulum, which one of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may contain ectopic tissue
Explanation:Understanding Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Congenital Abnormality of the Gastrointestinal Tract
Meckel’s diverticulum is a common congenital abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract that affects around 2-4% of the population. It is an anatomical remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct, which connects the primitive midgut to the yolk sac during fetal development. Meckel’s diverticulum can contain various types of tissue, including gastric mucosa, liver tissue, carcinoid, or lymphoid tissue. It is usually located around 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is commonly found adjacent to the vermiform appendix.
Symptoms of Meckel’s diverticulum can closely mimic appendicitis, and it can be a cause of bowel obstruction, perforation, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Bleeding is the most common cause of clinical presentations, and the presence of gastric mucosa is important as it can ulcerate and cause bleeding. If a normal-looking appendix is found during laparoscopy, it is important to exclude Meckel’s diverticulum as a potential cause of the patient’s symptoms. The mortality rate in untreated cases is estimated to be 2.5-15%.
Advances in imaging have made it easier to detect Meckel’s diverticulum. It can be picked up on barium imaging, computed tomography enterography, and radionuclide technetium scanning (Meckel’s scan). Selective mesenteric arteriography may also be useful in patients with negative imaging results.
In conclusion, understanding Meckel’s diverticulum is important for clinicians as it is a common congenital abnormality that can cause significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-manage diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed with gallstones a year earlier. She also complains of steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. There has been some weight loss over the past 6 months.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 119 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 179 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Glucose 9.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Somatostatin 105 pg/ml 10–22 pg/ml
T1-weighted gadolinium-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): 4-cm pancreatic tumour
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatostatinoma
Explanation:Overview of APUD Cell Tumours and their Presentations
APUD cell tumours are rare and can affect various organs in the body. Some of the most common types include somatostatinoma, glucagonoma, insulinoma, gastrinoma, and VIPoma. These tumours can present with a range of symptoms, such as gallstones, weight loss, diarrhoea, diabetes mellitus, necrolytic migratory erythema, sweating, light-headedness, and peptic ulceration. Diagnosis can be challenging, but imaging techniques and hormone measurements can aid in identifying the tumour. Treatment options include surgery, chemotherapy, and hormone therapy. It is important to note that some of these tumours may be associated with genetic syndromes, such as MEN 1 syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of heartburn and epigastric pain that are affecting his daily routine. Upon endoscopy, a shallow ulcer is observed on the posterior aspect of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be eroded by the ulcer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Gastrointestinal Tract
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by several arteries, each with its own unique function and potential for complications. Here are some of the main arteries and their roles:
1. Gastroduodenal artery: This artery is often the culprit of gastrointestinal bleeding from peptic ulcer disease. It is the first branch of the common hepatic artery and runs behind the first part of the duodenum.
2. Short gastric artery: A branch of the splenic artery, this artery supplies the cardia and superior part of the greater curvature of the stomach.
3. Splenic artery: One of the three main branches of the coeliac trunk, this artery supplies the pancreas body and tail. It is at high risk of bleeding in severe pancreatitis due to its close proximity to the supero-posterior border of the pancreas.
4. Left gastric artery: Another branch of the coeliac trunk, this artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach along with the right gastric artery.
5. Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery, also a branch of the splenic artery, supplies much of the greater curvature of the stomach.
Understanding the roles and potential complications of these arteries is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of gastrointestinal disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents to the Acute Medical Unit with complaints of mucous and bloody diarrhoea. He has experienced milder episodes intermittently over the past five years but has never sought medical attention. The patient reports left lower abdominal pain and occasional right hip pain. On examination, there is tenderness in the lower left abdominal region without radiation. The patient has not traveled outside the UK and has not been in contact with anyone with similar symptoms. There is no significant family history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Understanding Gastrointestinal Conditions: A Comparison of Ulcerative Colitis, Colon Carcinoma, Acute Diverticulitis, Crohn’s Disease, and Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Gastrointestinal conditions can be challenging to differentiate due to their overlapping symptoms. This article aims to provide a comparison of five common gastrointestinal conditions: ulcerative colitis, colon carcinoma, acute diverticulitis, Crohn’s disease, and irritable bowel syndrome.
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that presents with bloody diarrhea as its main feature. Hip pain is also a common extra-intestinal manifestation in this condition.
Colon carcinoma, on the other hand, has an insidious onset and is characterized by weight loss, iron-deficiency anemia, and altered bowel habits. It is usually detected through screening tests such as FOBT, FIT, or flexible sigmoidoscopy.
Acute diverticulitis is a condition that affects older people and is caused by chronic pressure from constipation due to low dietary fiber consumption. It presents with abdominal pain and blood in the stool, but mucous is not a common feature.
Crohn’s disease is another type of IBD that presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea. However, bloody diarrhea is not common. Patients may also experience weight loss, fatigue, and extra-intestinal manifestations such as oral ulcers and perianal involvement.
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal condition characterized by episodes of diarrhea and constipation, as well as flatulence and bloating. Abdominal pain is relieved upon opening the bowels and passing loose stools. IBS is different from IBD and is often associated with psychological factors such as depression and anxiety disorders.
In conclusion, understanding the differences between these gastrointestinal conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss over the past 6 months. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and has suffered from indigestion symptoms for some years. On examination, his body mass index is 18 and he looks thin. He has epigastric tenderness and a suspicion of a mass on examination of the abdomen.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Faecal occult blood (FOB) Positive
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy Yellowish coloured, ulcerating
submucosal mass within the
stomach
Histology Extensive lymphocytes within the biopsy
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma
Explanation:Histological Diagnoses of Gastric Conditions
Gastric lymphoma is often caused by chronic infection with H. pylori, and eradicating the infection can be curative. If not, chemotherapy is the first-line treatment. Other risk factors include HIV infection and long-term immunosuppressive therapy. In contrast, H. pylori gastritis is diagnosed through histological examination, which reveals lymphocytes and may indicate gastric lymphoma. Gastric ulcers are characterized by inflammation, necrosis, fibrinoid tissue, or granulation tissue on histology. Gastric carcinoma is identified through adenocarcinoma of diffuse or intestinal type, with higher grades exhibiting poorly formed tubules, intracellular mucous, and signet ring cells. Finally, alcoholic gastritis is diagnosed through histology as neutrophils in the epithelium above the basement membrane.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A middle aged male patient presents with jaundice and epigastric abdominal pain, he describes an intermittent history of similar pain over the past 3 months, however, this time it is much worse. He has markedly raised bilirubin and mildly deranged LFTs, with a predominantly obstructive picture. Other pertinent history includes mild alcohol use.
What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Possible Causes of Obstructive Jaundice: A Case Analysis
The patient’s symptoms suggest that the most probable cause of obstructive jaundice is gallstones lodged in the common bile duct. Recurrent episodes of biliary colic and/or cholecystitis may have caused the intermittent abdominal pain, which has now worsened and led to hepatic obstruction. Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder due to gallstones, would not cause obstructive jaundice unless the gallstones leave the gallbladder and become lodged in the common bile duct. Alcohol-induced pancreatitis is a common cause of acute pancreatitis in the UK, but it will not cause obstructive jaundice. Hepatitis C may cause cirrhosis and subsequently jaundice, but there is no evidence that the patient is an intravenous drug user. Pancreatic carcinoma, particularly if located in the head of the pancreas, can cause obstructive jaundice, but it is usually painless in origin. Courvoisier’s law states that a non-tender palpable gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presented to her General Practitioner complaining of six months of intermittent uncomfortable abdominal distension and bloating, which changed with her menstrual cycle. These symptoms were interspersed with bouts of loose motions. She worked as a teacher in a busy school and found work very stressful; she had previously taken a course of sertraline for anxiety and depression. Examination, blood test results and sigmoidoscopy were all normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Explanation:Distinguishing Irritable Bowel Syndrome from Other Gastrointestinal Disorders
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects more women than men and is often associated with affective disorders. Symptoms of IBS may vary throughout the menstrual cycle, but it is important to rule out other possible diagnoses such as endometriosis. Physical exams and tests are typically normal in IBS, but any unintentional weight loss, rectal bleeding, nocturnal diarrhea, fecal incontinence, or onset of persistent GI symptoms after age 40 requires further assessment. Management of IBS may include dietary changes and medication such as antispasmodics, anti-diarrheals, laxatives, and even Antidepressants. Other gastrointestinal disorders such as chronic pancreatitis, diverticulitis, peptic ulcer disease, and ulcerative colitis have distinct clinical features that can help differentiate them from IBS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)