00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been running a fever and has been refusing to eat. His mother has observed some spots on his hands and buttocks. Upon examination, the child has a mild vesicular rash on his hands, buttocks, face, and a few spots on his ankles. His temperature is 38.1ºC. According to your records, he had Chickenpox when he was 10 months old. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Foot and mouth disease

      Correct Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease

      Explanation:

      Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a viral infection that typically impacts children who are under the age of 10. The symptoms include fever, loss of appetite, coughing, stomach pain, and a sore throat. Following these symptoms, mouth ulcers often develop, along with a rash that typically affects the hands and feet, but can also appear on the face, buttocks, legs, and genitals. This condition is generally harmless and resolves on its own, with treatment consisting of basic pain relief.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a feeling of shortness of breath and choking,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a feeling of shortness of breath and choking, on lying down. Some six months earlier she had been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. On examination, she has a goitre. Plain radiography confirms retrosternal extension, which is presumed to be contributing to her shortness of breath. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.04 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l). Thyroid autoantibodies are negative.
      Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this patients clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre

      Explanation:

      Toxic multinodular goitre is a condition that commonly affects women over 55 years of age and is more prevalent than Graves’ disease in the elderly. It is characterized by a goitre that obstructs and extends retrosternally, which may cause atrial fibrillation. The preferred treatment is surgery, but the patient should first be made euthyroid with carbimazole. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disorder that accounts for 75% of thyrotoxicosis cases. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, diffuse goitre, and eye changes. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is another autoimmune thyroiditis that initially causes hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. It is characterized by the aggressive destruction of thyroid cells, resulting in a goitre and high levels of autoantibodies against thyroid peroxidase. Thyroglossal cyst is a cyst that forms from a persistent thyroglossal duct and presents as an asymptomatic midline neck mass. Thyroid carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a non-tender thyroid nodule with normal thyroid function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The mother of a 13-year-old boy comes to your clinic. She received a...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 13-year-old boy comes to your clinic. She received a letter from school informing her that her son will be offered the HPV vaccine soon. However, she is concerned that getting the vaccine may encourage her son to engage in sexual activity at an early age. Despite your attempts to discuss the benefits of the vaccine, she remains hesitant. What advice should you give to the mother?

      Your Answer: All 12-13 years girls must have the HPV vaccine by law

      Correct Answer: The daughter can have the HPV vaccine against her mothers wish

      Explanation:

      Parents are informed and the NHS website states that the daughter can still receive the vaccine even if the parents object.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 12-year-old girl with a learning disability is brought to see her General...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl with a learning disability is brought to see her General Practitioner (GP) by her father. Her mother is very upset, and asked her father to bring her to see the GP as she spends a lot of time in her bedroom, and her mother has walked in many times and found her masturbating in her bed. There are no concerns about her behaviour at school.
      Which of the following management steps would be most appropriate in primary care?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient and father that this is normal adolescent behaviour

      Explanation:

      Managing Adolescent Masturbation in Children with Learning Disabilities

      It is not uncommon for adolescents with learning disabilities to engage in sexual behaviour, including masturbation. However, it is important to assess whether this behaviour is age-appropriate and not a cause for concern. In this case, as the child is masturbating privately and there are no reports of concerning behaviour from school or other services, reassurance to the patient and father that this is normal adolescent behaviour is appropriate. Referral to CAMHS, learning disability team, psychosexual counselling, or social services is not indicated at this time. It is important to use tools such as the Brook Traffic Light tool to identify normal age-appropriate sexualised behaviours and those which are a cause for concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial bladder tumours and for regular surveillance. He complains of urinary frequency, a poor urinary stream, spraying of urine and dribbling at the end of micturition. These symptoms he has noticed for about a year. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is smooth, soft and normal in size. His prostate-specific antigen level is 2 ng/ml.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urethral stricture

      Explanation:

      Urethral Stricture: Causes, Complications, and Treatments

      Urethral strictures are commonly caused by injury, urethral instrumentation, and infections such as gonorrhoea or chlamydia. In this case, the repeated cystoscopies are a likely cause. This condition can lead to complications such as urinary retention and urinary infection.

      To treat urethral strictures, periodic dilation, internal urethrotomy, and external urethroplasty are common options. It is important to note that a normal feeling prostate, a normal prostate-specific antigen level, and regular bladder tumour surveillance make other diagnoses less likely in this case.

      In summary, understanding the causes, complications, and treatments of urethral strictures is crucial for proper management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
    Select from the list the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this drug.

      Your Answer: The dosage should be built up to the maximum tolerated

      Correct Answer: While taking the drug there may be large variations in motor function

      Explanation:

      Levodopa: The Most Effective Drug for Parkinson’s Disease

      Levodopa is the most effective drug for treating Parkinson’s disease (PD). It replenishes depleted striatal dopamine, the lack of which causes PD symptoms. Levodopa is given with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor to limit side-effects such as nausea, vomiting, and cardiovascular effects. Benserazide and carbidopa are the dopa-decarboxylase inhibitors used with levodopa.

      Levodopa therapy should start at a low dose and increase gradually. The final dose should be the lowest possible that controls symptoms. Intervals between doses should suit the patient’s needs. Nausea and vomiting with co-beneldopa or co-careldopa are rarely dose-limiting and can be controlled with domperidone.

      Levodopa treatment can cause motor complications such as response fluctuations and dyskinesias. Response fluctuations involve large variations in motor performance, with normal function during an ‘on’ period, and restricted mobility during an ‘off’ period. End-of-dose deterioration with progressively shorter duration of benefit also occurs. Freezing of gait and falls may be problematic. Modified-release preparations may help with end-of-dose deterioration or immobility or rigidity at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man who is currently undergoing chemotherapy for prostate cancer seeks advice....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man who is currently undergoing chemotherapy for prostate cancer seeks advice. His grandson has recently been diagnosed with Chickenpox, with the first pox appearing yesterday while he was babysitting. The patient has never had Chickenpox and is worried about contracting it, despite being asymptomatic at present. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange varicella zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Due to the chemotherapy-induced immunocompromisation, this patient is susceptible to a severe varicella infection and should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of blurred vision in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of blurred vision in her left eye for the past few days. She also reports that when she covers her right eye, everything appears in black and white. On examination, there is some discomfort during lateral gaze, but the fundi appear normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic visual failure

      Correct Answer: Retrobulbar neuritis

      Explanation:

      Retrobulbar Neuritis: A Classic Triad of Symptoms

      Pain on movement of the eye, loss of colour vision, and absence of fundal signs are the three classic symptoms of retrobulbar neuritis. This condition occurs when the lesion is several millimetres behind the disc, as opposed to optic neuritis where the lesion is in the nerve head and causes disc swelling. In cases of retrobulbar neuritis, both the doctor and the patient are unable to see anything.

      To summarize, retrobulbar neuritis is characterized by a specific set of symptoms that distinguish it from other types of neuritis. It is important to recognize these symptoms in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      163.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman complains of gradual onset lateral hip discomfort on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of gradual onset lateral hip discomfort on the right side for the past two weeks. She denies any history of trauma and is able to bear weight without any difficulty. The discomfort is most severe at night and sometimes wakes her up when she is lying on her right side. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is characterized by pain in the lateral hip/thigh area, accompanied by tenderness specifically over the greater trochanter. This condition, also known as greater trochanteric pain syndrome, typically presents as a localized issue and doesn’t affect the patient’s overall health.

      Iliotibial band syndrome, on the other hand, primarily affects the knee and is unlikely to cause nighttime symptoms. Additionally, it is not common in patients of this age group.

      Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and typically results in numbness or tingling sensations, rather than pain.

      Osteoarthritis is not typically associated with pain upon direct pressure over the greater trochanter.

      Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome

      Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is more prevalent in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain on the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness can be felt when the greater trochanter is palpated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn blue and then red, accompanied by pain. The symptoms are more severe during winter but persist throughout the year, and wearing gloves doesn't alleviate them. Physical examination of her hands, skin, and other joints reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following treatments might be helpful?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack of energy. His recent blood test showed macrocytosis and a low haemoglobin level, indicating a folic acid deficiency. He requests dietary recommendations from the physician to address this issue.
      What is the most suitable food item to suggest?

      Your Answer: Spinach

      Explanation:

      Folate Content in Common Foods

      Folate, also known as vitamin B9, is an essential nutrient that is important for cell growth and development. While it is found naturally in many foods, it is also added to processed foods and supplements in the form of folic acid. Here is a breakdown of the folate content in some common foods:

      Spinach: With 194 μg of folic acid per 100g, spinach is the richest source of folate on this list.

      Egg: While eggs contain 47 μg of folic acid per 100g, they only provide around a quarter of the folate per 100g that is found in spinach.

      Carrot: Carrots contain about 21 μg of folic acid per 100g, less than half the amount of folate found in eggs and only around 11% of the amount provided by spinach.

      Milk: Cow’s milk contains 5-7 μg of folic acid per 100g, making it the second-lowest source of folate in this range of options.

      Apple: Apples provide the lowest source of folate in this range of options, with only about 3 μg of folic acid per 100g.

      It is important to note that women who are pregnant or breastfeeding require more folate and should take a daily supplement of 400 micrograms. While many food manufacturers fortify their products with folic acid, wholegrain products already contain natural folate. Folate deficiency can occur due to poor intake, excessive alcohol consumption, or malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a four week history of shoulder pain. There...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a four week history of shoulder pain. There has been no obvious precipitating injury and no previous experience. The pain is worse on movement and there is a grating sensation if she moves the arm too quickly. She also gets pain at night, particularly when she lies on the affected shoulder.

      On examination there is no obvious erythema or swelling. Passive abduction is painful between 60 and 120 degrees. She is unable to abduct the arm herself past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are preserved. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      The individual is exhibiting a typical symptom known as the painful arc, which is indicative of shoulder impingement. This condition is often caused by supraspinatus tendonitis.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He is currently on regular co-codamol 30/500 for pain relief and takes oral ibuprofen as needed. The patient has been experiencing shoulder problems for several years and has had to increase his pain medication to manage his symptoms. He has also tried using heat and cold packs and has purchased a TENS machine. Despite these interventions, he continues to experience significant daily pain and reduced function of his left arm due to restricted shoulder movement. The patient is hesitant to pursue surgical intervention. What would be an appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Intra-articular steroid injection

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Intra-Articular Corticosteroid Injections for Osteoarthritis Pain

      Intra-articular corticosteroid injections can be a helpful addition to treating moderate to severe osteoarthritis pain. If traditional treatments have failed, a corticosteroid injection may be an appropriate option for patients who are not interested in surgical intervention. While the injection provides short-term pain relief, it may also allow patients to engage in other interventions such as physiotherapy, which can provide longer-lasting benefits in terms of both pain and function. However, repeated injections over longer periods may cause joint damage and are generally not recommended.

      Other treatment options such as capsaicin, electro-acupuncture, amitriptyline, and glucosamine are not recommended for osteoarthritis pain. Capsaicin is not recommended for shoulder problems, electro-acupuncture is not recommended for any form of osteoarthritis, and amitriptyline is not a licensed or recommended treatment for osteoarthritis. Glucosamine has insufficient data of significant efficacy to justify its cost, but patients can try over-the-counter glucosamine sulfate at a dose of 1500 mg daily and monitor their symptoms before and after three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old female patient with type 1 diabetes is planning a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient with type 1 diabetes is planning a trip to visit her family in Japan. She is aware that she will need to adjust her medication schedule due to the time difference and seeks your guidance on how to do so. She is currently following a basal bolus regimen consisting of glargine and actrapid. What recommendations would you make regarding dose adjustments when traveling across time zones?

      Your Answer: You should decrease your total insulin dose by 5-10% for every hour of time difference flying East

      Correct Answer: You should decrease your total insulin dose by 2-4% for every hour of time difference flying East

      Explanation:

      Tips for Travelling with Insulin

      Many patients with diabetes experience hypoglycaemia when travelling to different time zones. To avoid this, it is recommended to reduce the total daily insulin dose by 2-4% per hour of time difference. For example, a trip to Australia may require a reduction of around 30% during the flight and the first few days of adjusting to the time difference.

      When travelling with insulin, it is important to carry a membership card from the local diabetes society and a letter from the doctor to make it easier to travel with needles and syringes. Insulin should not be stored in the hold as it may freeze and form crystals. If it must be stored in the hold, it should be placed in an airtight container and packed in the middle of the suitcase. After landing, it should be checked for crystals and thrown away if any are seen.

      Airline rules allow staff to store excessive needles and insulin supplies for the duration of the journey. By following these tips, patients with diabetes can travel safely and comfortably with their insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you for contraceptive advice. She is 30 days...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you for contraceptive advice. She is 30 days postpartum and has not engaged in sexual activity since giving birth. She had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery following a routine antenatal period. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and has no notable family history. On examination, her blood pressure is 106/80, and her body mass index is 23. She is currently breastfeeding her baby. Which of the following contraceptive options should she not start using right away?

      Your Answer: Combined hormonal contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Initiation of Combined Hormonal Contraception Postpartum

      Combined hormonal contraception can be safely started by eligible women 21 days after giving birth, provided they have no other risk factors for venous thromboembolism and are not breastfeeding. However, women who breastfeed and want to use combined hormonal contraception should wait until six weeks postpartum, regardless of whether they have additional risk factors for VTE. Studies have shown conflicting effects of combined oral contraception on breastfeeding, with some indicating less weight gain in infants of users compared to non-users when started at or before six weeks postpartum. No study has demonstrated an effect on infant weight gain when initiated after six weeks postpartum. It is important for healthcare providers to consider individual patient factors and preferences when discussing contraceptive options postpartum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient with a history of tinea capitis presents due to a raised...

    Correct

    • A patient with a history of tinea capitis presents due to a raised lesion on her scalp. The lesion has been getting gradually bigger over the past two weeks. On examination you find a raised, pustular, spongy mass on the crown of her head. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kerion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tinea: Types, Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Tinea is a term used to describe dermatophyte fungal infections that affect different parts of the body. There are three main types of tinea infections, namely tinea capitis, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis. Tinea capitis affects the scalp and is a common cause of scarring alopecia in children. If left untreated, it can lead to the formation of a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans, while Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs can also cause it. Diagnosis of tinea capitis is done through scalp scrapings, although lesions due to Microsporum canis can be detected through green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Management of tinea capitis involves oral antifungals such as terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is also given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission.

      Tinea corporis, on the other hand, affects the trunk, legs, or arms and is caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum, which can be acquired from contact with cattle. It is characterized by well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules. Oral fluconazole can be used to treat tinea corporis.

      Lastly, tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is characterized by itchy, peeling skin between the toes and is common in adolescence. Lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood’s lamp.

      In summary, understanding the types, causes, diagnosis, and management of tinea infections is crucial in preventing their spread and ensuring effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He recalls waking from sleep, standing up, feeling light-headed and nauseated, lying back on the bed and losing consciousness. He recovered on the floor. He did not bite his tongue, but his head was badly bruised. His wife was woken by him falling to the ground and mentions that he was pale and sweaty before giving a loud moan followed by ‘spasms’ of his arms and legs lasting about 20 seconds. He was rousable after a minute.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Collapse: A Differential Diagnosis

      When a patient presents with a history of collapse, it is important to consider various possible causes. One potential cause is vasovagal syncope, which is characterized by a prodrome of nausea and light-headedness, often associated with postural change, and a rapid recovery. Jerking movements may occur but do not necessarily indicate epilepsy. Another possibility is cardiac arrhythmia, which may be associated with chest pain or palpitations and can occur during exercise or while lying down. Epileptic seizures are less likely to be triggered by postural change and may involve tongue biting or incontinence. Hypoglycaemia typically presents with trembling, sweating, palpitations, and paraesthesiae before progressing to confusion and coma. Finally, psychogenic non-epileptic seizures may have a gradual onset, fluctuating course, and violent thrashing movements with side-to-side head movement. It is important to consider these and other potential causes when evaluating a patient with a history of collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      76.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is shiny with visible telangiectasiae and is gradually increasing in size.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Skin Tumours: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      Skin tumours are abnormal growths of skin cells that can be benign or malignant. Basal cell carcinomas are the most common malignant skin tumour, usually caused by excessive sun exposure in early life and previous sunburn. They often present as a slow-growing nodule or papule that forms an ulcer with a raised ‘rolled’ edge. Basal cell carcinomas grow slowly and rarely metastasise.

      Low-risk basal cell carcinomas can be managed in primary care if the GP meets the requirements to perform skin surgery. A specialist referral is appropriate for most people with a suspicious skin lesion, and urgent referral is necessary if there is a concern that a delay may have a significant impact.

      Squamous cell carcinomas have a crusted or ulcerated surface, while seborrhoeic warts have a warty pigmented surface appearance. Lentigo maligna is a melanoma in situ that progresses slowly and can remain non-invasive for years. In amelanotic melanoma, the colour may be pink, red, purple, or the colour of normal skin, and growth is likely to be rapid with a poor prognosis.

      In conclusion, early detection and management of skin tumours are crucial for better outcomes. Regular skin checks and seeking medical advice for any suspicious skin lesion are recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin...

    Correct

    • You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin on the back of the neck. The irregular, smooth pink patch measures around 3 cm in diameter and is not palpable. The parents mention that it becomes more noticeable when the baby cries. What is the probable diagnosis for this skin lesion?

      Your Answer: Salmon patch

      Explanation:

      Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns

      Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been diagnosed with thyroid eye disease and is being evaluated for radiotherapy. In the last few days, she has experienced redness and pain in her left eye. Upon examination, there is erythema and proptosis of the left eye. Her visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. What is the most probable complication she has developed?

      Your Answer: Exposure keratopathy

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A researcher is conducting a study that compares a new exercise program for...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is conducting a study that compares a new exercise program for improving cognitive function in adults over 60 with existing methods. Her null hypothesis is that there is no difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and existing cognitive function improvement methods. After collecting sufficient data, she wants to calculate the probability of finding a statistically significant difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and the existing methods.

      Which value is this referring to?

      Your Answer: P-value

      Correct Answer: Power

      Explanation:

      The correct term for the probability of detecting a statistically significant difference is power. It is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false and can be calculated as ‘1 – probability of a type II error’. The null hypothesis value is not a specific value used in statistics, but rather a statement that two treatments are equally effective. P-value is not the correct answer as it refers to the probability of obtaining a result by chance. Type I error value is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true, while a type II error is accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old man with a history of a learning disability and asthma resides...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of a learning disability and asthma resides in a care facility. His caregivers have noticed an increase in his challenging behavior, including aggression and refusal to accept help with personal hygiene. What is the most probable factor that contributes to the development of challenging behavior in individuals with cognitive or learning disabilities? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: A minor degree of learning disability

      Correct Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Problematic Behaviour

      Dementia, learning disabilities, failure to impose social restriction, older age, and unchanging personal environment are all factors that can increase the risk of problematic behaviour. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, dementia can lead to the development of problematic behaviour due to its progressive nature. Learning disabilities can also contribute to behavioural problems, with severity being a key factor. Failure to impose social restriction can increase the risk of problematic behaviour, while appropriate socialisation can be protective. Older age is another risk factor, with the highest risk age being during a person’s teens or twenties. Finally, an unchanging personal environment can be protective, while a change in environment is a common cause for developing problematic behaviour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South...

    Incorrect

    • You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?

      Your Answer: A formal impact assessment of the proposed surgery timing change is essential

      Correct Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change

      Explanation:

      Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes

      By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.

      While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      191.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. He visits the GP clinic after 5 days with unexplained bruising. His INR is measured and found to be 4.5. He has a medical history of epilepsy, depression, substance abuse, and homelessness. Which medication is the most probable cause of his bruising from the following options?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate is known to inhibit enzymes, which can lead to an increase in warfarin levels if taken together. The patient’s medical history could include any of the listed drugs, but the question is specifically testing knowledge of enzyme inhibitors. Rifampicin and St John’s Wort are both enzyme inducers, while heroin (diamorphine) doesn’t have any effect on enzyme activity.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - For what scenarios is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) appropriate? ...

    Incorrect

    • For what scenarios is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) appropriate?

      Your Answer: A patient who is significantly immunosuppressed

      Correct Answer: A patient with a history of ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Ectopic Pregnancy and Contraception

      According to the FSRH, a previous ectopic pregnancy is not an absolute contraindication to the use of intrauterine methods of contraception. In fact, the overall risk of ectopic pregnancy is reduced with the use of IUC when compared to using no contraception. However, if pregnancy does occur with an intrauterine method in situ, the risk of an ectopic pregnancy occurring is increased. In some studies, half of the pregnancies that occurred were ectopic.

      It is important to note that older editions of an Australian primary care textbook list an ectopic pregnancy as a contraindication. However, the latest FSRH advice is the reference on which the RCGP is likely to base their answers. Therefore, healthcare professionals should follow the most up-to-date guidelines when considering contraception options for patients with a history of ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old female presents with pain at the elbow which she has been...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents with pain at the elbow which she has been aware of for the last two weeks.

      Which of the following would be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tennis Elbow

      Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a condition caused by overuse or strain of the extensor muscles in the forearm. It is most commonly seen in individuals in their fourth decade of life. Symptoms include pain in the lateral epicondyle region during resisted extension of the fingers and wrist.

      Management of tennis elbow involves reducing strenuous activity for at least six weeks, with or without the use of a wrist splint. Local injection with corticosteroid and anaesthetic agents may also be an option. Surgical treatment is only considered for those with persistent symptoms that do not respond to other forms of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Your surgery serves an area of West London that is frequented by large...

    Incorrect

    • Your surgery serves an area of West London that is frequented by large numbers of tourists and economic migrants who come to the UK for a few months for work.
      With respect to health service provision, which one of the following is true with respect to provision of health services and charging to elderly visitors?

      Your Answer: Pandemic influenza care is free, irrespective of where the patient originates

      Correct Answer: NATO staff are only partially eligible for free treatment

      Explanation:

      Eligibility for Free NHS Care

      The rules for receiving free NHS care can be complex and detailed, but in general, patients from the European Economic Area (EEA), certain Commonwealth countries, and Ukraine are entitled to free healthcare. Additionally, there is a list of procedures and consultations, such as family planning, that are also covered under free healthcare.

      If a patient has been accepted for permanent residence, they are not charged for NHS care, regardless of their home country. It is important to note that eligibility for free NHS care can vary depending on individual circumstances, so it is always best to check with the NHS or a healthcare professional to confirm eligibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      130
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of 102 g/L. Iron studies are ordered. What result would indicate a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anaemia?

      Your Answer: ↓ Ferritin, ↑ total iron-binding capacity, ↓ serum iron, ↑ transferrin saturation

      Correct Answer: ↓ Ferritin, ↑ total iron-binding capacity, ↓ serum iron, ↓ transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      In cases of iron-deficiency anemia, it is common for both the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) and transferrin levels to be elevated. However, it should be noted that the transferrin saturation level is typically decreased.

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.

      The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.

      The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) and is concerned about the likelihood of recurrence. He reports multiple episodes of the room spinning when he moves his head, lasting 30 seconds to 1 minute. You explain that while symptoms often resolve without treatment over several weeks, the Epley manoeuvre can be offered to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is a driver, is disabled by his symptoms and would like to know the chances of recurrence over the next 3-5 years.

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Approximately 50% of individuals diagnosed with BPPV will experience a relapse of symptoms within 3 to 5 years.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with...

    Correct

    • You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.

      Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is worried and wants advice if she should continue taking it.

      How would you counsel this woman on the risks of ondansetron use during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester

      Explanation:

      The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE’s antenatal care guidance suggests that ondansetron may increase the chance of a baby being born with a cleft lip or palate, but there are no recognised risks for the mother or newborn. Claims of a risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies or severe congenital heart defects in newborns are not supported by current evidence.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      62.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/4) 50%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/4) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (3/3) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Passmed