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  • Question 1 - Of the following scenarios, which one would indicate it was inappropriate for the...

    Correct

    • Of the following scenarios, which one would indicate it was inappropriate for the child to take an airline flight?

      Your Answer: A 17-year-old flying back to the UK who broke his leg whilst skiing in Canada. Had a plaster cast applied 24 hours ago

      Explanation:

      Patients should wait for 24 hours before taking short flights (< 2 hours) and 48 hours before taking longer flights after applying a plaster cast. This is necessary to avoid the possibility of air getting trapped beneath the cast. The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old patient of yours has a persistently high diastolic blood pressure above...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient of yours has a persistently high diastolic blood pressure above 90 mmHg.

      Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is not currently available so you decide to check his home blood pressures.

      According to NICE what is the minimum number of blood pressure readings a patient should record at home?

      Your Answer: Twice a day for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Twice a day for 4 days

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Monitoring

      The management of hypertension is a crucial aspect of general practice, and knowledge of the NICE guidelines is essential for GPs. According to the 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), updated in March 2022, blood pressure should be recorded twice daily for at least four days, ideally for seven days. Two consecutive measurements should be taken for each recording, at least one minute apart, with the person seated. The first day’s measurements should be discarded, and the average value of the remaining measurements used to confirm the diagnosis. Although home readings are acceptable if ambulatory equipment is unavailable, they should not be considered equal to ambulatory monitoring. This question tests your knowledge of the NICE guidelines for hypertension monitoring, which have remained consistent since the earlier guidance (CG127) issued in 2011.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman comes in with complaints of hearing loss. She appears to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in with complaints of hearing loss. She appears to be in good health and there are no noticeable abnormalities during otoscopy. Tuning fork tests are conducted, revealing a negative Rinne test on the right side (bone conduction is better than air conduction) and a positive Rinne test on the left side. The Weber test shows lateralisation to the right ear. How should these tuning fork test results be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Right-sided conductive hearing loss

      Explanation:

      Tuning Fork Tests for Hearing Loss

      Tuning fork tests are commonly used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. Two tests are usually performed: the Rinne test and the Weber test. The Rinne test compares air conduction to bone conduction by placing the tuning fork against the mastoid and adjacent to the ear canal on both sides. Normally, sound is heard better by air conduction than bone conduction, resulting in a Rinne-positive outcome. However, conductive hearing loss can reverse this result, causing a Rinne-negative pattern where bone conduction is better than air conduction. On the other hand, sensorineural hearing loss and normal hearing both result in a Rinne-positive outcome, requiring the Weber test for further information.

      The Weber test involves placing the tuning fork on the forehead and checking if sound waves are transmitted equally to both ears. If the sound is heard equally in both ears, the result is normal. However, conductive hearing loss in one ear causes the sound to be heard on the same side as the conductive loss. In contrast, sensorineural hearing loss causes sound to be heard on the opposite side.

      In this particular case, the Rinne test resulted in a negative outcome on the right side, indicating right-sided conductive hearing loss. The Weber test confirmed this by lateralizing to the affected side. Tuning fork tests are a quick and non-invasive way to determine the type and location of hearing loss, allowing for appropriate treatment to be initiated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      106
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant complains of a foul-smelling vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant complains of a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Apart from this, she has been in good health. Despite washing twice a day, the discharge has persisted and is causing her considerable embarrassment. Her partner is asymptomatic. What course of treatment would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Clotrimazole pessary

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis can still use oral metronidazole as it has been found to be safe during pregnancy. Bacterial vaginosis can increase the risk of premature birth and miscarriage. There is no evidence of any harmful effects on the fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy. The guidelines suggest treating symptomatic patients at any stage of pregnancy. While both metronidazole and oral clindamycin can enter breast milk, breastfeeding women are advised to use clindamycin intravaginal gel.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an urge to move the legs. The sensations occur only at night when she is inactive and sometimes occur in bed making it difficult to get off to sleep. There are no abnormal signs on examination of the legs and she is otherwise in good health.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Restless legs syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options

      Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move, typically in the legs, accompanied by abnormal sensations such as tingling, aching, or burning. The symptoms tend to worsen in the evening and are temporarily relieved by movement. While some people experience only minor discomfort, others may suffer from severe pain and disruption of sleep, leading to a significant impairment in their quality of life.

      The prevalence of restless legs syndrome increases with age and can be associated with various medical conditions and drugs. Iron deficiency, pregnancy, and stage 5 chronic kidney disease are some of the medical conditions that can cause restless legs syndrome, while antidepressants, antiepileptic, and antipsychotic drugs are some of the medications that can trigger the symptoms.

      Treatment is necessary only for moderate to severe cases of restless legs syndrome. For idiopathic restless leg syndrome, the first-line treatment options include non-ergot dopamine agonists such as pramipexole, ropinirole, or rotigotine, or alpha-2-delta ligands such as pregabalin or gabapentin.

      In summary, restless legs syndrome is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and disruption of sleep. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      71
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his trunk, arms, and thighs over the past month. He has some mild itching but is otherwise well. He last presented to the surgery two months ago with tonsillitis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Guttate Psoriasis from Other Skin Conditions: A Clinical Analysis

      Guttate psoriasis is a skin condition that often appears 7-10 days after a streptococcal infection. It is characterized by numerous teardrop-shaped lesions on the trunk and proximal limbs, which are red and covered with a fine scale. While the scale may be less evident in the early stages, the lesions typically resolve on their own after 2-3 months.

      When diagnosing guttate psoriasis, it is important to consider other skin conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Atopic eczema, for example, is less well differentiated than psoriasis lesions and may not have a history of a preceding sore throat. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction to amoxicillin would typically result in skin reactions that resolve spontaneously and would not last for a month. Lichen planus, an autoimmune condition, causes shiny papules without scale and is characterized by Whickham’s striae, which are white lines on the surface of the skin. Pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that causes a widespread rash with scale and well-defined edges, may also be considered but is less likely if there is a history of a preceding sore throat.

      In summary, a thorough clinical analysis is necessary to distinguish guttate psoriasis from other skin conditions with similar symptoms. A careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and physical examination can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.6
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.

    He has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.

      He has been steadily increasing his analgesia in recent weeks and is currently taking the maximum dose of co-codamol 30/500. You are considering switching to morphine.

      What is the equivalent 24-hour oral morphine dose to maintain the same level of analgesia as his current co-codamol regimen?

      Your Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      Understanding Equivalent Morphine Dose for Codeine Patients

      When prescribing pain medication, it is important to consider the equivalent morphine dose for patients taking codeine. This can be calculated by dividing the dose of codeine by 10. For example, a patient taking 60 mg of codeine four times a day would have a total daily dose of 240 mg, which is equivalent to 24 mg of morphine.

      Failing to consider the equivalent morphine dose can result in inadequate pain relief for the patient. It is important to note that some patients may metabolize codeine at different rates, but this should not be a major concern in most cases. The majority of patients are normal metabolizers, converting 10% of codeine to morphine.

      Overall, understanding the equivalent morphine dose for codeine patients is a crucial aspect of pain management and should be taken into consideration when prescribing medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the drug class of pioglitazone, an oral hypoglycaemic agent? ...

    Correct

    • What is the drug class of pioglitazone, an oral hypoglycaemic agent?

      Your Answer: An alpha-glucosidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Pioglitazone: A Blood Glucose Lowering Agent

      Pioglitazone is a member of the PPAR gamma agonist class of drugs that are used to lower blood glucose levels. These drugs work by activating the PPAR gamma receptor, which helps to regulate adipocyte function and improve insulin sensitivity. The blood glucose lowering effect of pioglitazone is around 1-1.3% HbA1c, which can be significant for patients with diabetes.

      However, pioglitazone is associated with some adverse events, including fluid retention and decreased bone mineral density. Patients with a prior history of heart failure should not take pioglitazone, as it is contraindicated in this population. Despite these potential risks, pioglitazone can be an effective treatment option for patients with diabetes who are struggling to control their blood glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 49-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her elbow discomfort. She...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her elbow discomfort. She recently spent time painting her home. During the examination, the doctor notices pain around the lateral epicondyle and suspects lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following movements would typically exacerbate the pain?

      Your Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis is aggravated when the wrist is extended or supinated against resistance while the elbow is extended.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that usually occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged between 45 and 55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The condition is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle, which is worsened by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended.

      Episodes of lateral epicondylitis usually last between six months and two years, with patients experiencing acute pain for six to twelve weeks. To manage the condition, patients are advised to avoid muscle overload, take simple analgesia, undergo steroid injection, or receive physiotherapy. With proper management, patients can recover from lateral epicondylitis and return to their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.

    Which of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of the dementia?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dementia: Types and Symptoms

      Dementia is a clinical condition that involves the loss of cognitive function in multiple domains beyond what is expected from normal aging. This condition affects areas such as memory, attention, language, and problem-solving. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, accounting for about two-thirds of all cases. The initial symptom is usually forgetfulness for newly acquired information, followed by disorientation and progressive cognitive decline with personality disruption.

      Other types of dementia include blood vessel disease (multi-infarct dementia), dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease). Less common disorders such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, progressive supranuclear palsy, Huntington’s disease, and AIDS-associated dementia also contribute to the remaining cases.

      It is important to understand the different types and symptoms of dementia to provide appropriate care and support for individuals affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old woman with asthma and a history of thyroid disease comes to...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman with asthma and a history of thyroid disease comes to the clinic for a check-up after a left Colles' fracture. You learn that she had a right Colles' fracture three years ago due to a fall on ice, but she declined investigation for osteoporosis. As you review her medical history, which risk factor would you consider the most significant?

      Your Answer: Treatment with 100 mcg BD beclomethasone for asthma

      Correct Answer: Onset of periods aged 10

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteoporosis Risk Factors and Treatment Options

      Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and increased risk of fractures. Several risk factors have been associated with this condition, including low BMI, increasing age, periods of immobility, high dose inhaled or oral corticosteroid therapy, untreated thyrotoxicosis, early menopause, and positive family history. While exposure to thyrotoxicosis and inhaled steroid dose can contribute to osteoporosis, family history is considered the most important risk factor.

      Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment option for osteoporosis, with anabolics such as PTH and other classes reserved for patients who cannot take bisphosphonates. It is important to understand the risk factors associated with osteoporosis and to seek appropriate treatment to prevent fractures and maintain bone health. By addressing these risk factors and utilizing effective treatment options, individuals can reduce their risk of developing osteoporosis and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      150.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You come across a 55-year-old man who needs a refill of his prescription....

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 55-year-old man who needs a refill of his prescription. Upon reviewing his medication list, you notice that two of his medications fall under schedule 3 controlled drugs as per The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001. What medications are likely to be on his list?

      Your Answer: Diazepam, buprenorphine and nefopam

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine, tramadol and levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is buprenorphine, tramadol, and levothyroxine because only buprenorphine and tramadol are classified as schedule 3 drugs according to The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001. Zopiclone is classified as schedule 4, morphine as schedule 2, and diazepam as schedule 4, making them all incorrect answers.

      Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.

      Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are conducting an annual health review for a 59-year-old male patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual health review for a 59-year-old male patient with hypertension and diet-controlled diabetes. His blood tests reveal an HbA1c level of 50 mmol/mol. What is the target HbA1c level you are aiming for in this patient?

      Your Answer: 53 mmol/mol

      Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      The recommended HbA1c target for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. To achieve and maintain this target, patients should be provided with diet and lifestyle advice.

      For adults with type 2 diabetes who are managing their condition through lifestyle and diet or a single drug that doesn’t cause hypoglycemia, the goal should be to reach an HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol.

      If HbA1c levels are not adequately controlled by a single drug and rise to 58 mmol/mol or higher, NICE guidelines recommend reinforcing advice on diet, lifestyle, and adherence to drug treatment. The person should aim for an HbA1c level of 53 mmol/mol and drug treatment should be intensified.

      For adults taking a drug that causes hypoglycemia, the target HbA1c level should be 53 mmol/mol.

      If individuals with type 2 diabetes achieve an HbA1c level lower than their target and are not experiencing hypoglycemia, they should be encouraged to maintain it.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      21.8
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  • Question 14 - A man visits your clinic after a year as he requires an increase...

    Incorrect

    • A man visits your clinic after a year as he requires an increase in his dosage of methylphenidate. As per NICE guidelines, what assessments will you need to conduct as a physician?

      Your Answer: Check HR and BP

      Correct Answer: Check height, weight, HR and BP

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Side Effects of Methylphenidate Therapy for ADHD

      Height and growth should be regularly monitored and plotted on a growth chart for children receiving methylphenidate therapy for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Growth retardation is a serious potential side effect, and weight loss may also occur. In addition, heart rate and blood pressure should be monitored and recorded on a centile chart before and after each dose change, as well as routinely every three months. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that is used as part of a comprehensive treatment program for children with severe ADHD. However, patients who experience sustained resting tachycardia, arrhythmia, or systolic blood pressure greater than the 95th percentile (or a clinically significant increase) measured on two occasions should have their dose reduced and be referred to a pediatrician. Routine blood tests and ECGs are not recommended unless there is a clinical indication. It is important to record pulse, blood pressure, psychiatric symptoms, appetite, weight, and height at initiation of therapy, following each dose adjustment, and at least every six months thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      50.7
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  • Question 15 - A 5-week-old girl presents to your clinic with a three-day history of mild...

    Correct

    • A 5-week-old girl presents to your clinic with a three-day history of mild yellow discharge from her right eye and a 9 mm erythematous swelling inferior to the medial canthus of the right eye. Her mother reports that her eyes have always been watery. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 38.3°c. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dacryocystitis

      Explanation:

      Eye Infections and Obstructions: Understanding the Differences

      Dacryocystitis is an inflammation of the nasolacrimal sac caused by an infection resulting from an obstruction in the nasolacrimal duct. This obstruction leads to the stagnation of tears and can cause systemic illness in infants. If left untreated, the infection can spread and cause orbital cellulitis.

      A chalazion, also known as a meibomian cyst, occurs when the small oil glands around the eyelashes become blocked due to inflammation. This blockage leads to the formation of a small, tender swelling within the eyelid. Chalazions can occur on either the inferior or superior eyelids.

      An external hordeolum, commonly known as a stye, is a localized infection or inflammation of the eyelash follicle. This type of infection is usually caused by a staphylococcal infection.

      While nasolacrimal duct obstruction can contribute to the development of dacryocystitis in infants, it should not cause inflammation and illness on its own. It is important to note that congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction is common in infants and typically resolves within 12 months.

      Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae typically occurs within the first five days of birth and is characterized by bilateral purulent discharge. When caused by chlamydial infection, the conjunctivitis may occur after three days but can arise as late as two weeks after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      20.2
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has taken around 30 tablets while alone at home and left a letter for his family. He was intoxicated but managed to call an ambulance after he had taken the tablets.
      Which of the following features would most strongly suggest that there is an ongoing risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: The fact that he took precautions to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

      When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, certain factors can indicate a higher risk of future attempts. These include planning and taking precautions to avoid discovery, not seeking help after the attempt, using a dangerous method, and leaving final acts such as making a will or leaving a note. While a family history of suicide is more common among those who complete suicide, it doesn’t increase the immediate risk of self-harm. Alcohol use can lower inhibitions and increase the risk of deliberate self-harm, but being intoxicated at the time of the attempt doesn’t necessarily mean a higher risk of future attempts. Stressful life events in the preceding months can predispose to depression and increase the likelihood of self-harm, but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of future attempts. Finally, taking a large amount of a dangerous substance may increase the risk of harm, but doesn’t confer a higher ongoing risk of suicide after the initial attempt. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s mental state and risk factors is necessary to determine the appropriate level of care and support.

      Factors to Consider When Assessing the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Sophie is a 32 year old woman who has been experiencing symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 32 year old woman who has been experiencing symptoms of irritability, anxiety, lethargy, poor concentration and disturbed sleep for a week before her periods. These symptoms disappear after her period starts. Do you think she may have premenstrual syndrome? If so, what are some possible treatment options?

      Your Answer: Low dose SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) in the follicular phase

      Correct Answer: Low dose SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) during luteal phase

      Explanation:

      The only recognized treatment option for premenstrual syndrome among the given choices is a low dose SSRI during the luteal phase. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Premenstrual Syndrome, lifestyle advice should be given to women with severe PMS, and treatment options for moderate PMS include a new-generation combined oral contraceptive, analgesics, or cognitive behavioral therapy. Additionally, an SSRI can be taken continuously or during the luteal phase (days 15-28 of the menstrual cycle, depending on its length).

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      34.2
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  • Question 18 - A woman presents to surgery. Her 50-year-old mother has recently been diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A woman presents to surgery. Her 50-year-old mother has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is concerned about her own risk and wonders if she needs 'genetic tests'. There is no other history of breast cancer in the family. When should she be referred to secondary care?

      Your Answer: Jewish ancestry

      Explanation:

      Familial breast cancer is linked to ovarian cancer, not endometrial cancer.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      16.5
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old lady comes to see you after a routine assessment by her...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old lady comes to see you after a routine assessment by her optician. She has had no visual problems prior to the assessment. The assessment revealed early nuclear sclerotic cataracts bilaterally. Her corrected visual acuity today is 6/5 in the right eye and 6/5 in the left eye.

      What is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cataracts and Driving Requirements

      It is common for individuals to develop nuclear sclerotic cataracts as they age. However, there is no need for referral unless there is a visual impairment that affects the patient’s lifestyle. If a person has a visual acuity of 6/5, it means they can read at a distance of six meters what a person with normal vision can read at five meters. Therefore, if a patient has excellent vision, they are unlikely to benefit from new glasses.

      There is no indication for a person to stop driving if they meet the minimum eyesight standard for driving, which is a visual acuity of at least 6/12 measured on the Snellen scale. To drive legally, a person must also be able to read a car number plate made after 1 September 2001 from a distance of 20 meters, with glasses or contact lenses if necessary.

      It is important to note that YAG laser capsulotomy is a procedure carried out for posterior capsular opacification, which can develop after cataract extraction. This procedure is not necessary for a patient with nuclear sclerotic cataracts and would not benefit them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      189.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - One of your elderly patients is prescribed denosumab for osteoporosis.

    What is a potential...

    Correct

    • One of your elderly patients is prescribed denosumab for osteoporosis.

      What is a potential adverse effect associated with denosumab therapy?

      Your Answer: Atypical femoral fractures

      Explanation:

      Although denosumab is usually well tolerated, it has the potential to cause atypical femoral fractures.

      Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.

      The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to know how likely it is that she will inherit the condition.

      What is the correct mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal-dominant

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of this disease in order to assess the risk of developing it.

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant trait, which means that a person only needs one copy of the affected gene to develop the disorder. This also means that if a parent has the disease, their child has a 50% chance of inheriting it.

      It is important to note that Huntington’s disease does run in families and is caused by a defect in a single gene (huntingtin) on chromosome 4. However, it doesn’t follow an X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance, as both men and women are equally affected.

      In summary, understanding the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and potential risk for developing the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      9.8
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  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old woman presents with weight loss and is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with weight loss and is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. She is prescribed carbimazole but after 2 weeks reports gradual visual blurring. Her corrected visual acuities are 6/12 in both eyes and she experiences color vision impairment in both eyes. Mild proptosis is observed but her pupillary reactions are normal.
      What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Optic atrophy

      Correct Answer: Optic nerve compression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Thyroid Eye Disease: Symptoms, Risks, and Treatment Options

      Thyroid eye disease (TED) is an autoimmune disease that affects the eyes and can be both sight-threatening and disfiguring. The disease has an active inflammatory phase followed by an inactive fibrotic phase. Symptoms include eye irritation, ache behind the eye, red eyes, and diplopia. Exophthalmos may develop, but it doesn’t always correlate with disease severity. In some cases, patients with minimal exophthalmos are at high risk of optic nerve compression. If the optic nerve is compressed, visual loss can occur, and urgent referral is necessary. Medical management is only available in the active, early phase, and surgery is the only option when the disease becomes inactive. For severe sight-threatening disease, orbital-decompression surgery and intravenous corticosteroids are necessary. Embolic phenomena, optic nerve infiltration, and ophthalmic side-effects of carbimazole are not associated with TED. Optic atrophy is irreversible and takes several weeks to develop. Early referral is appropriate when TED is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - Samantha is a 6-year-old girl who has presented with symptoms of high fever,...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 6-year-old girl who has presented with symptoms of high fever, white spots on the mouth, conjunctival injection, and a blotchy red rash. You suspect measles infection. Her father asks how many days she should stay home from school?

      Your Answer: Keep out of school for 48 hours after symptoms resolve

      Correct Answer: Keep out of school for 4 days from onset of rash

      Explanation:

      If a child is diagnosed with measles, they should not attend school for at least four days after the rash appears.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease

      Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.

      The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      26.3
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  • Question 24 - A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She is in good health but is currently 16 weeks pregnant. She reports that the lesion appeared four weeks ago and has grown quickly. Upon examination, you observe a bright red, nodular lesion that is 14mm in diameter and shows signs of recent bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Pyogenic Granuloma: A Common Benign Skin Lesion

      Pyogenic granuloma is a benign skin lesion that is relatively common. Despite its name, it is not a true granuloma nor is it pyogenic in nature. It is also known as an eruptive haemangioma. The cause of pyogenic granuloma is unknown, but it is often linked to trauma and is more common in women and young adults. The most common sites for these lesions are the head/neck, upper trunk, and hands. Lesions in the oral mucosa are common during pregnancy.

      Pyogenic granulomas initially appear as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress within days to weeks, forming raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed profusely or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously postpartum, while other lesions usually persist. Removal methods include curettage and cauterisation, cryotherapy, and excision.

      In summary, pyogenic granuloma is a common benign skin lesion that can be caused by trauma and is more common in women and young adults. It appears as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress into raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously, while other lesions usually persist and can be removed through various methods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      49.7
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  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior MI. He reports no further episodes of chest pain or shortness of breath, but he is experiencing significant fatigue. On cardiovascular examination, there are no signs of cardiac failure.
      The patient discloses feeling down for the past month, struggling with sleep, and having a poor appetite. He is anxious about the future and avoiding social interactions with colleagues and friends. He expresses a lack of motivation and purpose in life. He has a history of two severe depressive episodes and a mild episode about a year ago, which responded well to a low dose of amitriptyline.
      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ask him to complete a PHQ-9 form to assess the extent of his low mood, and bring him back in two weeks to discuss the results and review him

      Correct Answer: Stop his beta blocker medication, as this is probably what is making him so tired

      Explanation:

      Treating Post-MI Depression

      Patients who have suffered a heart attack are at an increased risk of developing depression. It is crucial to identify and treat post-MI depression promptly. In this case, the patient is experiencing persistent low mood, anhedonia, sleep disturbance, and loss of appetite, indicating the need for immediate treatment. While assessing his symptoms using the PHQ-9 depression questionnaire is appropriate, delaying treatment is not advisable.

      It is essential to continue the patient’s beta-blocker treatment as it is appropriate post-MI therapy. While it is reasonable to explain that post-MI depression is not uncommon, active treatment should be initiated immediately if the patient agrees. Amitriptyline should not be used as it increases the risk of arrhythmias, and the patient is already at a higher risk following his MI. Sertraline is a well-tolerated and effective treatment for post-MI depression and should be considered. Proper identification and treatment of post-MI depression can significantly improve the patient’s quality of life and overall prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      46.1
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes attends for diabetic annual review. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes attends for diabetic annual review. He complains of feeling tired all the time stretching back several months.

      Blood tests performed prior to the review appointment show normal renal, liver, and thyroid function; testosterone levels are normal. Full blood count reveals a modest anaemia with:

      Haemoglobin 109 g/L (130-180)
      MCV 79 fL (80-96)
      HbA1c 50 mmol/mol (20-42)

      Urine dipstick testing is normal with no ketones. Review of fingerprick blood sugars shows blood sugars consistently in single figures.

      Clinical examination is unremarkable.

      On further enquiry the patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms. He is opening his bowels regularly with no change in bowel habit. There is no history of PR blood or mucous. His weight is stable. He denies abdominal pain or bloating. He follows a 'normal' diet. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy.

      You request some further blood tests which confirm iron deficiency anaemia.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next approach?

      Your Answer: Perform serological testing for coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Serological Testing for Coeliac Disease

      Serological testing for coeliac disease should be considered for individuals presenting with certain symptoms such as chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and persistent fatigue. Additionally, those with autoimmune thyroid disease, irritable bowel syndrome, and type 1 diabetes should also be offered testing as they are at increased risk for coeliac disease. NICE guidance recommends testing for individuals with unexplained abdominal symptoms, mouth ulcers, and vitamin deficiencies, as well as first-degree relatives of those with coeliac disease. Coeliac disease is associated with a variety of conditions, including depression, epilepsy, and reduced bone mineral density, among others. In the case of a man with type 1 diabetes and iron deficiency anaemia, serological testing for coeliac disease would be the next appropriate step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      74.8
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  • Question 27 - What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C?

      Your Answer: No vaccine is available but treatment is successful in the majority of patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from a family vacation involving kayaking. She complains of feeling extremely tired due to persistent fatty diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence that began during her trip. She notes that her symptoms worsen whenever she consumes dairy products. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss, and recent travel suggest giardiasis as the likely cause. Giardiasis is often associated with foreign travel and exposure to contaminated water sources. Treatment with metronidazole may be beneficial. Cholera and hepatitis D are unlikely causes as their symptoms and characteristics differ from those of giardiasis.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has a medical history of high cholesterol, asthma, constipation, and hay fever. She is currently taking multiple medications, including atorvastatin, a combination beclomethasone-formoterol inhaler, montelukast, nasal steroids, and lactulose. She seeks guidance on how to manage her regular medication during pregnancy.

      What recommendations would you provide to her?

      Your Answer: Stop atorvastatin but continue her regular medication

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital anomalies and potential impact on fetal development. Atorvastatin, in particular, is contraindicated during pregnancy and should be avoided three months prior to attempting pregnancy. However, lactulose and nasal steroids are considered safe for use during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant individuals with asthma to continue taking their medication to maintain good symptom control.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      45.5
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  • Question 30 - A mother brings in her 8-year-old boy to see you who has Down...

    Correct

    • A mother brings in her 8-year-old boy to see you who has Down syndrome.
      Recently she has noticed he is lethargic with a tendency to bleeding gums. On examination he looks a bit pale but not unduly so. His diet is poor, including a lot of fast food.
      Which of the following conditions would you be most concerned about in terms of his symptoms and increased risk?

      Your Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Down Syndrome and Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Although it may be tempting to overlook certain conditions, it is important to note that individuals with Down syndrome have a higher likelihood of developing acute lymphoblastic leukaemia compared to the general population. This correlation is well-established and should not be ignored. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of this increased risk and to monitor individuals with Down syndrome accordingly. By doing so, early detection and treatment can be initiated, potentially improving outcomes for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      33.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Disease And Travel Health (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/2) 100%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (1/3) 33%
Eyes And Vision (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
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