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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old female visits her doctor with concerns about her drinking habits and a desire to quit. She acknowledges that alcohol provides a temporary sense of relief but acknowledges its harmful effects. She also inquires about the mechanism by which alcohol produces this sensation.
The doctor informs her that alcohol imitates the impact of the primary inhibitory neurotransmitters that operate on the spinal cord and central nervous system.
What is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord?Your Answer: Glycine
Explanation:The Role of Glycine in the Body
Glycine is an amino acid that is essential for the production of proteins in the body. While it is not considered an essential amino acid, as it can be synthesized from serine, it plays a crucial role in the body’s functions. Glycine is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and brainstem, where it prevents glutamate-mediated depolarization of the postsynaptic terminal via NMDA receptors. It is also used as an intermediate in the synthesis of porphyrins and purines.
The glycine cleavage system is the major pathway for glycine breakdown, which largely occurs in the liver. However, a defect in this system can lead to glycine encephalopathy, a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by myoclonic seizures soon after birth. This disorder is caused by high levels of glycine in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid. While glycine is usually only found in small amounts in proteins, it makes up 35% of collagen. Overall, glycine plays a vital role in the body’s functions and is necessary for maintaining proper health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Correct
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A 49-year-old patient presents to the rheumatology clinic with weight loss, fever, and night sweats. The individual is also experiencing shortness of breath. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/l
- Platelets: 192 * 109/l
- White cell count (WCC): 5.3 * 109/l
- Creatinine: 154 umol/l
- Urea: 9 mmol/l
- cANCA positive
The white cell differential count is reported as normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is granulomatosis with polyangiitis, as indicated by the presence of cANCA and the involvement of multiple organs including the lungs, skin, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract. This condition is known to cause inflammation in the glomeruli, leading to renal impairment. Churg-Strauss disease and Alport’s syndrome are unlikely due to normal eosinophil levels and cANCA positivity, respectively. Goodpasture’s syndrome is also unlikely as the patient does not present with haematuria or haemoptysis.
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.
To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.
The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after experiencing multiple episodes of vomiting following a night of heavy drinking. During the clinical examination, the doctor observes dry mucous membranes and reduced skin turgidity. As part of the diagnostic process, an arterial blood gas test is conducted, and the results are as follows:
pH 7.49
PaO2 9 kPa
PaCO2 5.5kPa
Bicarbonate 30mM
What could be the possible cause of this patient's arterial blood gas findings?Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by hypokalaemia, which occurs when there is a low level of potassium in the blood. Vomiting is another cause of metabolic alkalosis, as it leads to the loss of acid from the stomach. However, vomiting was not provided as an option. On the other hand, hypokalemia can also cause metabolic acidosis, as the body tries to replace potassium by exchanging it for hydrogen ions through the H+K+ATPase transporter in the alpha-intercalated cells of the cortical collecting duct. Uraemia, methanol toxicity, and aspirin toxicity are known causes of metabolic acidosis with raised anion gap. Aspirin can also cause respiratory alkalosis by directly stimulating the respiratory centres in the brainstem.
Understanding Metabolic Alkalosis and Its Causes
Metabolic alkalosis is a condition that occurs when there is a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate in the body. This condition is mainly caused by problems in the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Some of the common causes of metabolic alkalosis include vomiting, diuretics, liquorice, carbenoxolone, primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing’s syndrome, and Bartter’s syndrome.
The mechanism of metabolic alkalosis is primarily due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone (RAA) system. This system is responsible for the reabsorption of sodium ions in exchange for hydrogen ions in the distal convoluted tubule. When there is a loss of sodium and chloride ions due to vomiting or diuretics, the RAA system is activated, leading to an increase in aldosterone levels.
In cases of hypokalaemia, where there is a shift of potassium ions from cells to the extracellular fluid, alkalosis occurs due to the shift of hydrogen ions into cells to maintain neutrality. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of metabolic alkalosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Correct
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What is responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer: Sodium channels opening
Explanation:The Phases of Cardiac Action Potential
The cardiac action potential is a complex process that involves several phases. The first phase, known as phase 0 or the depolarisation phase, is initiated by the opening of fast Na channels, which allows an influx of Na ions into the cell. This influx of ions causes the membrane potential to become more positive, leading to the contraction of the heart muscle.
Following phase 0, the second phase, known as phase 1 or initial repolarisation, occurs when the Na channels close. This closure causes a brief period of repolarisation, where the membrane potential becomes more negative.
The third phase, known as phase 2 or the plateau phase, is characterised by the opening of K and Ca channels. The influx of calcium ions into the cell is balanced by the efflux of potassium ions, leading to a stable membrane potential. This phase is important for maintaining the contraction of the heart muscle.
Finally, phase 3 or repolarisation occurs when the Ca channels close, causing a net negative current as K+ ions continue to leave the cell. This phase allows the membrane potential to return to its resting state, ready for the next cardiac action potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with chest pain. He confesses to using cocaine. Upon examination, his heart rate is 110 bpm and his blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg. An ECG reveals T wave inversion in leads V3-V6. What part of his heart has been impacted?
Your Answer: Anterolateral
Explanation:ECG Leads and Myocardial Infarction
The T wave inversion on an electrocardiogram (ECG) can indicate a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (MI) caused by cocaine abuse. The ECG has different leads that correspond to different areas of the heart. The septal leads are V1-V2, the anterior leads are V3-V4, the lateral leads are V5-V6, I, and aVL, and the inferior leads are II, III, and aVF. However, detecting posterior infarcts on a 12-lead ECG can be challenging. Some medical centers use additional ECG leads V7-9 to help identify posterior infarcts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman is brought to the stroke unit with a suspected stroke. She has a medical history of hypertension, type II diabetes, and hypothyroidism. Additionally, she experienced a myocardial infarction 4 years ago. Upon arrival, the patient exhibited a positive FAST result and an irregular breathing pattern. An urgent brain CT scan was performed and is currently under review. What region of the brainstem is responsible for regulating the fundamental breathing rhythm?
Your Answer: Medulla oblongata
Explanation:The medullary rhythmicity area in the medullary oblongata controls the basic rhythm of breathing through its inspiratory and expiratory neurons. During quiet breathing, the inspiratory area is active for approximately 2 seconds, causing the diaphragm and external intercostals to contract, followed by a period of inactivity lasting around 3 seconds as the muscles relax and there is elastic recoil. Additional brainstem regions can be stimulated to regulate various aspects of breathing, such as extending inspiration in the apneustic area (refer to the table below).
The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body
The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.
Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.
Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked you, a foundation doctor on the surgical ward, with explaining the procedure to him. You are aware that the bypass will involve using the left internal thoracic artery to supply the affected coronary vessel. Can you identify the artery from which the left internal thoracic artery arises?
Your Answer: Left subclavian artery
Explanation:The left internal thoracic artery originates from the left subclavian artery near its source and runs down the chest wall beneath the ribs to supply blood to the front of the chest and breasts. During coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), the proximal portion of the ITA is preserved while the distal end is grafted beyond the atherosclerotic segment of the affected coronary vessel to restore blood flow to the heart.
The left axillary artery is a continuation of the left subclavian artery and is referred to as the axillary artery beyond the lateral border of the first rib. It becomes the brachial artery after passing the lower border of the teres major muscle.
The left common carotid artery emerges from the aortic arch and divides into the internal and external carotid arteries at the fourth cervical vertebrae.
The aortic arch is a continuation of the ascending aorta and branches off into the right brachiocephalic trunk, the left common carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery before continuing as the descending aorta.
The thyrocervical trunk, which arises from the subclavian artery, is a brief vessel that gives rise to four branches: the inferior thyroid artery, suprascapular artery, ascending cervical artery, and transverse cervical artery.
Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)
Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is a surgical procedure commonly used to treat coronary artery disease. The procedure involves using multiple grafts, with the internal mammary artery being increasingly used instead of the saphenous vein due to its lower likelihood of narrowing. The surgery requires the use of a heart-lung bypass machine and systemic anticoagulation. Suitability for the procedure is determined by cardiac catheterisation or angiography. The surgery is carried out under general anaesthesia, and patients typically stay in the hospital for 7-10 days, with a return to work within 3 months.
Complications of CABG include atrial fibrillation (30-40% of cases, usually self-limiting) and stroke (2%). However, the prognosis for the procedure is generally positive, with 90% of operations being successful. Further revascularisation may be needed in 5-10% of cases after 5 years, but the mortality rate is low, at 1-2% at 30 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Correct
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The following results were obtained on a 57-year-old male who complains of fatigue:
Free T4 9.8 pmol/L (9.0-25.0)
TSH 50.02 mU/L (0.27-4.20)
What physical signs would you anticipate during the examination?Your Answer: Slow relaxation of tendon jerks
Explanation:Symptoms and Signs of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that is characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, which leads to a decrease in the production of thyroid hormones. This condition is associated with several symptoms and signs, including a relative bradycardia, slow relaxation of tendon jerks, pale complexion, thinning of the hair, and weight gain. In severe cases of hypothyroidism, hypothermia may also be present.
A relative bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate, which is a common symptom of hypothyroidism. Additionally, slow relaxation of tendon jerks is another sign of this condition. This refers to a delay in the relaxation of muscles after a reflex is elicited. Other physical signs of hypothyroidism include a pale complexion and thinning of the hair, which can be attributed to a decrease in metabolic activity.
Weight gain is also a common symptom of hypothyroidism, as the decrease in thyroid hormone production can lead to a slower metabolism and decreased energy expenditure. In severe cases of hypothyroidism, hypothermia may also be present, which refers to a body temperature that is lower than normal.
It is important to note that while a thyroid bruit is typical of Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, it is not a common sign of hypothyroidism. Overall, the symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism can vary in severity and may require medical intervention to manage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being hit on the side of his head with a car jack. A CT scan reveals a basal skull fracture that involves the jugular foramen. Which cranial nerves are at risk of being affected by this trauma?
Your Answer: CN IX, X and XII
Correct Answer: CN IX, X and XI
Explanation:The jugular foramen is a passageway through which cranial nerves IX, X, and XI as well as the internal jugular vein travel. Any damage or injury to this area is likely to affect these nerves, resulting in a condition known as jugular foramen syndrome or Vernet syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by a combination of cranial nerve palsies caused by compression from a lesion in the jugular foramen.
Foramina of the Skull
The foramina of the skull are small openings in the bones that allow for the passage of nerves and blood vessels. These foramina are important for the proper functioning of the body and can be tested on exams. Some of the major foramina include the optic canal, superior and inferior orbital fissures, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and jugular foramen. Each of these foramina has specific vessels and nerves that pass through them, such as the ophthalmic artery and optic nerve in the optic canal, and the mandibular nerve in the foramen ovale. It is important to have a basic understanding of these foramina and their contents in order to understand the anatomy and physiology of the head and neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Correct
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A young woman comes in with a sudden and severe headache at the back of her head, which quickly leads to seizures. Upon examination, doctors discover an aneurysm. During the assessment, they observe that her right eye is displaced downwards and to the side. What could be the probable reason for this?
Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy
Explanation:When someone has oculomotor nerve palsy, their medial rectus muscle is disabled, which causes the lateral rectus muscle to move the eye uncontrollably to the side. Additionally, the superior rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles are also affected, causing the eye to move downwards due to the unopposed action of the superior oblique muscle. This condition also results in ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, due to paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle, and mydriasis, or dilation of the pupil, due to damage to the parasympathetic fibers.
Disorders of the Oculomotor System: Nerve Path and Palsy Features
The oculomotor system is responsible for controlling eye movements and pupil size. Disorders of this system can result in various nerve path and palsy features. The oculomotor nerve has a large nucleus at the midbrain and its fibers pass through the red nucleus and the pyramidal tract, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience ptosis, eye down and out, and an inability to move the eye superiorly, inferiorly, or medially. The pupil may also become fixed and dilated.
The trochlear nerve has the longest intracranial course and is the only nerve to exit the dorsal aspect of the brainstem. Its nucleus is located at the midbrain and it passes between the posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar arteries, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience vertical diplopia (diplopia on descending the stairs) and an inability to look down and in.
The abducens nerve has its nucleus in the mid pons and is responsible for the convergence of eyes in primary position. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience lateral diplopia towards the side of the lesion and the eye may deviate medially. Understanding the nerve path and palsy features of the oculomotor system can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders affecting this important system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a flare-up of his Crohn's disease. He has been experiencing up to 6 bowel movements per day for the past 2 weeks and has lost around 5kg in weight.
What are the expected biochemical abnormalities in this clinical scenario?Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis, normal anion gap, hypokalaemia
Explanation:Prolonged diarrhoea can lead to a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis and hypokalaemia. This is due to the loss of potassium and other electrolytes through the gastrointestinal tract. The anion gap remains within normal limits despite the metabolic acidosis caused by diarrhoea. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels in patients with prolonged diarrhoea to prevent complications.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman was referred to gastroenterology to investigate unresolved dyspepsia. She has been receiving NSAID treatment to manage a flare-up of osteoarthritis. Endoscopy reveals the presence of a gastric ulcer.
What factors may have contributed to the endoscopy findings?Your Answer: Reduced PGE2 (prostaglandin)
Explanation:The use of NSAIDs can lead to the formation of peptic ulcers by reducing the production of PGE2, which is responsible for increasing gastric mucus secretion. NSAIDs inhibit the COX enzymes that convert arachidonic acid into endoperoxides, which then form PGE2. PGI2 is another product of endoperoxides that causes vasodilation, reduces platelet aggregation, and has no effect on gastric mucus production. Thromboxane A2 is also a product of endoperoxides, but it causes vasoconstriction and increases platelet aggregation without affecting gastric mucus production. Inhibition of COX enzymes does not result in a deficiency of arachidonic acid, which is a precursor for prostaglandins. NSAID use does not affect leukotriene production, which is independent of COX enzymes and causes bronchoconstriction but does not impact gastric mucus production.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Correct
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A 22-year-old man is referred to a cardiologist by his family physician due to consistently high cholesterol levels in his blood tests. During the assessment, the cardiologist observes yellowish skin nodules around the patient's Achilles tendon and white outer regions of the iris. The cardiologist informs the patient that he has inherited the condition from his biological parents and that there is a 50% chance of passing it on to his offspring, regardless of his partner's status. The patient reports a paternal uncle who died at 31 due to a heart-related condition. The cardiologist recommends treatment to manage cholesterol levels and prevent future cardiovascular events. What is the most likely underlying pathology in this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Defective low-density lipoprotein receptors
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and signs suggest that they may have one of the familial dyslipidemias, likely familial hypercholesterolemia. This is supported by the presence of Achilles tendon xanthomas and corneal arcus in a relatively young patient, as well as the cardiologist’s statement that there is a 50% chance of inheritance if the mother is normal, indicating an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by defective or absent LDL receptors.
Other familial dyslipidemias include dysbetalipoproteinemia, which is caused by defective apolipoprotein E and has an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, hypertriglyceridemia, which is caused by overproduction of VLDL and has an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, and hyperchylomicronemia, which is caused by deficiency of lipoprotein lipase or apolipoprotein C-II and has an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. Hyperchylomicronemia is not associated with a higher risk of atherosclerosis, unlike the other forms of familial dyslipidemia.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits the haemofiltration unit thrice a week for treatment. What is responsible for detecting alterations in salt concentrations, such as sodium chloride, in normally functioning kidneys and adjusting the glomerular filtration rate accordingly?
Your Answer: Macula densa
Explanation:The macula densa is a specialized area of columnar tubule cells located in the final part of the ascending loop of Henle. These cells are in contact with the afferent arteriole and play a crucial role in detecting the concentration of sodium chloride in the convoluted tubules and ascending loop of Henle. This detection is affected by the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which is increased by an increase in blood pressure. When the macula densa detects high sodium chloride levels, it releases ATP and adenosine, which constrict the afferent arteriole and lower GFR. Conversely, when low sodium chloride levels are detected, the macula densa releases nitric oxide, which acts as a vasodilator. The macula densa can also increase renin production from the juxtaglomerular cells.
Juxtaglomerular cells are smooth muscle cells located mainly in the walls of the afferent arteriole. They act as baroreceptors to detect changes in blood pressure and can secrete renin.
Mesangial cells are located at the junction of the afferent and efferent arterioles and, together with the juxtaglomerular cells and the macula densa, form the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Podocytes, which are modified simple squamous epithelial cells with foot-like projections, make up the innermost layer of the Bowman’s capsule surrounding the glomerular capillaries. They assist in glomerular filtration.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is brought to the trauma unit following a car accident, with an estimated blood loss of 1200ml. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 125 beats per minute, blood pressure of 125/100 mmHg, and he feels cold to the touch.
Which component of his cardiovascular system has played the biggest role in maintaining his blood pressure stability?Your Answer: Arterioles
Explanation:The highest resistance in the cardiovascular system is found in the arterioles, which means they contribute the most to the total peripheral resistance. In cases of compensated hypovolaemic shock, such as in this relatively young patient, the body compensates by increasing heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.
Arteriole vasoconstriction in hypovolaemic shock patients leads to an increase in total peripheral resistance, which in turn increases mean arterial blood pressure. This has a greater effect on diastolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowing of pulse pressure and clinical symptoms such as cold peripheries and delayed capillary refill time.
Capillaries are microscopic channels that provide blood supply to the tissues and are the primary site for gas and nutrient exchange. Venules, on the other hand, are small veins with diameters ranging from 8-100 micrometers and join multiple capillaries exiting from a capillary bed.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Correct
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A 48-year-old female patient complains of pain in the right hypochondrium. Upon palpation of the abdomen, she experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant and reports that the pain worsens during inspiration. Based on the history and examination, the probable diagnosis is cholecystitis caused by a gallstone. If the gallstone were to move out of the gallbladder, which of the ducts would it enter first?
Your Answer: Cystic duct
Explanation:The biliary tree is composed of various ducts, including the cystic duct that transports bile from the gallbladder. The right and left hepatic ducts in the liver merge to form the common hepatic duct, which then combines with the cystic duct to create the common bile duct. The pancreatic duct from the pancreas also connects to the common bile duct, and they both empty into the duodenum through the hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater). The accessory duct, which may or may not exist, is a small supplementary duct(s) to the biliary tree.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Correct
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Following the discovery of a pituitary tumour in a 32-year-old woman who presented with amenorrhoea, a brain MRI is conducted to fully evaluate the tumour before surgical removal. The results reveal that the tumour is starting to compress the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.
What kind of symptom would arise from this compression?Your Answer: Visual impairment
Explanation:Visual impairment can occur as a result of damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), which is a part of the thalamus involved in the visual pathway. The LGN receives information from the retina and sends it to the cortex via optic radiations. Although rare, the LGN can be damaged by compression from pituitary tumors or lesions affecting the choroidal arteries. However, damage to the LGN or other parts of the thalamus will not cause auditory impairment, aphasia, or reduced facial sensation. These conditions are typically caused by damage to other regions of the brain.
The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals
The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 16-year-old female was admitted to the paediatric unit with a history of anorexia nervosa and a body mass index of 16kg/m². Despite being uncooperative initially, she has shown improvement in her willingness to participate with the team. However, she now presents with complaints of abdominal pain and weakness. Upon blood testing, the following results were obtained:
Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 0.5 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.6 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
What is the likely cause of the patient's abnormal blood results?Your Answer: Extended period of low calories then high carbohydrate intake
Explanation:Refeeding syndrome can occur in patients who have experienced prolonged catabolism and then suddenly switch to carbohydrate metabolism. This can lead to a rapid uptake of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium into the cells, caused by spikes in insulin and glucose. Patients with low BMI and poor nutritional intake over a long period of time are at a higher risk. Taking vitamin tablets would not affect blood results, but excessive intake can result in hypervitaminosis. While exogenous insulin could also cause this syndrome, there is no indication that the patient has taken it. To reduce the risk of refeeding syndrome, some patients may be advised to follow initial high-fat, low-carbohydrate diets.
Understanding Refeeding Syndrome
Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when a person who has been starved for an extended period suddenly begins to eat again. This metabolic abnormality is caused by the abrupt switch from catabolism to carbohydrate metabolism. The consequences of refeeding syndrome include hypophosphataemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and abnormal fluid balance, which can lead to organ failure.
To prevent refeeding syndrome, it is important to identify patients who are at high risk of developing the condition. According to guidelines produced by NICE in 2006, patients are considered high-risk if they have a BMI of less than 16 kg/m2, have experienced unintentional weight loss of more than 15% over 3-6 months, have had little nutritional intake for more than 10 days, or have hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia, or hypomagnesaemia prior to feeding (unless high).
If a patient has two or more of the following risk factors, they are also considered high-risk: a BMI of less than 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, little nutritional intake for more than 5 days, or a history of alcohol abuse, drug therapy (including insulin, chemotherapy, diuretics, and antacids).
To prevent refeeding syndrome, NICE recommends that patients who haven’t eaten for more than 5 days should be re-fed at no more than 50% of their requirements for the first 2 days. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent the potentially life-threatening consequences of refeeding syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Correct
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Which interleukin is accountable for the growth of B cells?
Your Answer: IL-4
Explanation:The proliferation and differentiation of B cells is attributed to IL-4. Macrophages produce IL-1, an acute inflammatory protein. T cell proliferation is encouraged by IL-2. Myeloid cells undergo proliferation and differentiation due to IL-3.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old male refugee arrives at the emergency department complaining of night sweats and a productive cough that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. Upon performing a chest X-ray, signs of tuberculosis are detected. The patient is prescribed a combination of antibiotics, including rifampicin. How does rifampicin work to combat the bacteria's protein synthesis?
Your Answer: Inhibits RNA polymerase
Explanation:Rifampin causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which leads to the suppression of RNA synthesis.
Rifampicin disrupts DNA synthesis by halting the action of RNA polymerase, resulting in the suppression of RNA synthesis and cell death.
Quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase to function.
Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides inhibit the 30s subunit to work.
Macrolides work by inhibiting the 50s subunit of bacteria, leading to their death.
Beta lactams, such as penicillin, disrupt cell wall synthesis to function.
Understanding Rifampicin: An Antibiotic for Treating Infections
Rifampicin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat various infections, including tuberculosis. It is often prescribed in combination with other medications to effectively combat the disease. Rifampicin can also be used as a prophylactic treatment for individuals who have been in close contact with tuberculosis or meningitis.
The mechanism of action of Rifampicin involves inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. This action helps to stop the growth and spread of bacteria in the body.
However, Rifampicin is known to be a potent CYP450 liver enzyme inducer, which can cause hepatitis in some individuals. Additionally, it can cause orange secretions and flu-like symptoms. Therefore, it is important to use Rifampicin only as prescribed by a healthcare professional and to monitor any adverse effects that may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about her pregnancy. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and works as a nurse in a hospital. She has been informed that one of her patients has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus. She is worried about the potential impact on her baby's development.
What are the effects of cytomegalovirus on foetal development?Your Answer: Severe anemia and hydrops fetalis
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 infection in pregnant women can lead to severe anaemia and hydrops fetalis in the foetus. The virus suppresses fetal erythropoiesis, causing a halt in red blood cell production for approximately two weeks. Severe anaemia can result in high output heart failure, leading to left-heart failure and pulmonary oedema. This eventually leads to right heart failure and the accumulation of fluid in serous cavities, causing hydrops fetalis.
Chorioretinitis, diffuse intracranial calcifications, and hydrocephalus, as well as chorioretinitis, sensorineural hearing loss, and a blueberry muffin rash, are incorrect answers. These are classic triads associated with congenital toxoplasmosis and congenital cytomegalovirus, respectively. Granulomatosis infantiseptica is also an incorrect answer, as it is a condition caused by listeria monocytogenes infection. Increased risk of neural tube defects is also an incorrect answer, as it is typically caused by folate deficiency or teratogenic side-effects of certain medications.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Correct
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Which mechanism is not involved in the development of physiological jaundice in newborns?
Your Answer: Bilirubin present in breast milk
Explanation:Physiological Jaundice in Newborns
After birth, newborns experience increased erythrocyte turnover which requires faster action of enzymes involved in bilirubin metabolism and excretion. However, there can be a relative lack of UDP-glucuronyltransferase, leading to dysfunctional erythropoeisis and excess haem production that is metabolized to bilirubin. Meconium, which contains beta-glucuronidase, can further exacerbate the situation by changing conjugated bilirubin to an unconjugated form that is readily reabsorbed in the enterohepatic circulation.
Breast milk does not contain bilirubin, but it does contain substances that can inhibit the conjugation reaction, slowing the metabolism of bilirubin and allowing unconjugated bilirubin levels in the blood to rise. While physiological jaundice in newborns is usually not harmful, levels of unconjugated bilirubin above 170-200 µmol/l can lead to kernicterus, which can cause seizures, brain damage, or death. To prevent this, infants are treated with phototherapy at 450 nm, which disrupts the strong hydrogen bonds holding together molecules of unconjugated bilirubin, allowing the structure to unfold and become more soluble. This facilitates its excretion and reduces serum concentrations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Correct
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A newborn is delivered at 34 weeks' gestation. The obstetrician suspects intrauterine growth restriction.
What sign indicates a possible diagnosis of intrauterine growth restriction?Your Answer: Birth weight less than 10th percentile for gestational age
Explanation:Low Birth Weight and Intrauterine Growth Restriction
Low birth weight (LBW) and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually have different definitions. LBW refers to a birth weight of less than 2500 g, regardless of gestational age. On the other hand, IUGR is a condition where the baby’s weight is not suitable for their gestational age. This can be determined by assessing if the birth weight is less than the 10th or 5th percentile for gestational age, less than 2,500 g and gestational age greater than or equal to 37 weeks, or less than two standard deviations below the mean value for gestational age.
It is important to note that LBW does not take into account prematurity, while IUGR requires an assessment of the baby’s weight in relation to their gestational age. While many babies with low birth weights can still be healthy, IUGR is considered pathological and can be caused by various factors such as placental diseases, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal abnormalities, congenital infections, maternal substance abuse, and maternal diseases.
the difference between LBW and IUGR is crucial in identifying potential health risks for newborns. The World Health Organization estimates that 13 million children are born with IUGR every year, highlighting the importance of proper prenatal care and monitoring. By identifying and addressing the underlying causes of IUGR, healthcare providers can help ensure the healthy development of the baby and reduce the risk of complications during and after birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following is not a cause of hyperkalemia?
Your Answer: Severe malnutrition
Explanation:There are various factors that can lead to an increase in serum potassium levels, which are abbreviated as MACHINE. These include certain medications such as ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, acidosis (both metabolic and respiratory), cellular destruction due to burns or traumatic injury, hypoaldosteronism, excessive intake of potassium, nephrons, and renal failure, and impaired excretion of potassium. Additionally, familial periodic paralysis can have subtypes that are associated with either hyperkalemia or hypokalemia.
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 25
Correct
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A 55-year-old man and his wife visit their primary care physician. The man's wife has noticed a change in the size of his chest and suspects he may be developing breast tissue. She mentions that his nipples appear larger and more prominent when he wears tight-fitting shirts. The man seems unconcerned. He has been generally healthy, with a medical history of knee osteoarthritis, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. He cannot recall the names of his medications and has left the list at home.
Which medication is most likely responsible for his gynecomastia?Your Answer: Ranitidine
Explanation:Gynaecomastia can be caused by H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine, which is a known drug-induced side effect. Clomiphene, an anti-oestrogen, is not used in the treatment of gynaecomastia. Danazol, a synthetic derivative of testosterone, can inhibit pituitary secretion of LH and FSH, leading to a decrease in estrogen synthesis from the testicles. In some cases, complete resolution of breast enlargement has been reported with the use of danazol.
Histamine-2 Receptor Antagonists and their Withdrawal from the Market
Histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonists are medications used to treat dyspepsia, which includes conditions such as gastritis and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. They were previously considered a first-line treatment option, but have since been replaced by more effective proton pump inhibitors. One example of an H2 receptor antagonist is ranitidine.
However, in 2020, ranitidine was withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA) in products from multiple manufacturers. This led to concerns about the safety of the medication and its potential to cause cancer. As a result, patients who were taking ranitidine were advised to speak with their healthcare provider about alternative treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 26
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and comes in for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about how her pregnancy might impact her renal function, given her history of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. Her baseline eGFR is 100 ml/min/1.73m2. What is the expected eGFR measurement at present?
Your Answer: 150ml/min/1.73m2
Explanation:During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.
The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.
Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.
The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.
Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.
The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness, photophobia, and a non-blanching rash. Despite being vaccinated, they are experiencing these symptoms. During a lumbar puncture, the fluid obtained is turbid, with low glucose and an elevated opening pressure. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:The most common cause of meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is also the likely pathogen in this patient’s case. His symptoms and lumbar puncture results suggest bacterial meningitis, with turbid fluid, raised opening pressure, and low glucose. While Escherichia coli is a common cause of meningitis in infants under 3 months, it is less likely in a 29-year-old. Haemophilus influenzae B is also an unlikely cause in this patient, who is up-to-date with their vaccinations and beyond the age range for this pathogen. Staphylococcus pneumoniae is a rare but serious cause of pneumonia, but not as likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.
Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults
Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 28
Correct
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Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger?
Your Answer: Deep ulnar
Explanation:PAD and DAB can be remembered as a mnemonic for the actions of the palmar and dorsal interossei muscles. The palmar interossei muscles ADduct the fingers towards the midline of the hand, while the dorsal interossei muscles ABduct the fingers away from the midline.
Interossei: Muscles of the Hand
Interossei are a group of muscles located in the hand that occupy the spaces between the metacarpal bones. There are three palmar and four dorsal interossei, each with a specific origin and insertion point. Palmar interossei originate from the metacarpal of the digit on which it acts, while dorsal interossei come from the surface of the adjacent metacarpal on which it acts. The interosseous tendons, except the first palmar, pass to one or other side of the metacarpophalangeal joint posterior to the deep transverse metacarpal ligament. They become inserted into the base of the proximal phalanx and partly into the extensor hood.
All interossei are innervated by the ulnar nerve and have specific actions. Dorsal interossei abduct the fingers, while palmar interossei adduct the fingers. Along with the lumbricals, the interossei flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. They are responsible for fine-tuning these movements.
In cases where the interossei and lumbricals are paralyzed, the digits are pulled into hyperextension by extensor digitorum, resulting in a claw hand. Understanding the function and innervation of the interossei is important in diagnosing and treating hand injuries and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old weightlifter comes to your clinic with a painful shoulder. He has been experiencing a dull, intermittent ache in the posterior aspect of his shoulder for the past 10 days, which is triggered by his usual weightlifting exercises. Upon examination, there is tenderness on the posterior aspect of the shoulder, and the pain is induced by abducting the arm against resistance. Quadrangular space syndrome is one of your differentials for this patient. What are the questions you should ask based on the nerve's functions that pass through the quadrangular space?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The nerve that passes through the quadrangular space is the axillary nerve. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the rhomboids and levator scapulae muscles, while the musculocutaneous nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm and provides sensory innervation to the lateral surface of the forearm. The radial nerve passes through the triangular interval in the arm and supplies the posterior compartment of the arm. The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch and supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. Quadrangular space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery as they pass through the quadrangular space, and can cause shoulder pain and deltoid muscle wasting.
Anatomy of the Axilla
The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.
One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.
The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Correct
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Which one of the following structures does not pass through the foramen ovale?
Your Answer: Maxillary nerve
Explanation:OVALE is a mnemonic that stands for Otic ganglion, V3 (Mandibular nerve: 3rd branch of trigeminal), Accessory meningeal artery, Lesser petrosal nerve, and Emissary veins.
Foramina of the Base of the Skull
The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.
The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.
The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducens nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 31
Correct
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β-adrenergic receptor antagonists, like propranolol, are commonly prescribed in medical practice. In which of the following conditions are β-adrenergic receptor antagonists not recommended for use in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Beta Blockers and Asthma
Beta blockers are commonly used to treat various cardiovascular diseases due to their negative chronotropic and inotropic effects. However, they can be detrimental to individuals with asthma. This is because beta blockers antagonize beta-2 receptors, which can lead to bronchoconstriction and trigger asthma attacks. As a result, beta blockers are not recommended as a treatment for asthma. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential adverse effect and to consider alternative medications for patients with asthma who require cardiovascular treatment. Proper management of both conditions is crucial to ensure optimal health outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 32
Correct
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Which one of the following statements relating to the pharmacology of warfarin is false?
Your Answer: Warfarin has a large volume of distribution
Explanation:To impair fibrin formation, warfarin impacts the carboxylation of glutamic acid residues in clotting factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. Factor 2 has the lengthiest half-life of around 60 hours, so it may take up to three days for warfarin to take full effect. Warfarin is protein-bound, resulting in a small distribution volume.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 33
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl has recently been diagnosed with focal seizures. She reports feeling tingling in her left leg before an episode, but has no other symptoms. Upon examination, her upper limbs, lower limbs, and cranial nerves appear normal. She does not experience postictal dysphasia and is fully oriented to time, place, and person.
Which specific region of her brain is impacted by the focal seizures?Your Answer: Posterior to the central gyrus
Explanation:Paraesthesia is a symptom that can help localize a seizure in the parietal lobe.
The correct location for paraesthesia is posterior to the central gyrus, which is part of the parietal lobe. This area is responsible for integrating sensory information, including touch, and damage to this region can cause abnormal sensations like tingling.
Anterior to the central gyrus is not the correct location for paraesthesia. This area is part of the frontal lobe and seizures here can cause motor disturbances like hand twitches that spread to the face.
The medial temporal gyrus is also not the correct location for paraesthesia. Seizures in this area can cause symptoms like lip-smacking and tugging at clothes.
Occipital lobe seizures can cause visual disturbances like flashes and floaters, but not paraesthesia.
Finally, the prefrontal cortex, which is also located in the frontal lobe, is not associated with paraesthesia.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 34
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP for a routine check-up of her symptoms and disease progression. She complains of a gradual onset of shortness of breath that exacerbates with physical exertion.
Upon conducting tests, it is found that the patient is positive for rheumatoid factor, an autoantibody that attaches to the part of IgG that interacts with immune cells.
Which part of IgG does this autoantibody bind to?Your Answer: Fragment crystallisable (Fc) region
Explanation:Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 35
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and profuse diarrhoea. He has been experiencing up to 10 bowel movements per day for the past 48 hours. The patient has a history of prostatitis and has recently finished a course of ciprofloxacin. He denies any recent travel but did consume a takeaway meal earlier in the week.
The following investigations were conducted:
Stool microscopy Gram-positive bacillus
What is the probable organism responsible for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive bacillus that is responsible for pseudomembranous colitis, which can occur after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This is the correct answer for this patient’s condition. Ciprofloxacin, which the patient recently took, is a common antibiotic that can cause Clostridium difficile (C. diff) diarrhoea. Other antibiotics that can increase the risk of C. diff infection include clindamycin, co-amoxiclav, and cephalosporins.
Campylobacter jejuni is not the correct answer. This gram-negative bacillus is the most common cause of food poisoning in the UK and is also associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome. However, the patient’s stool culture results do not support a diagnosis of Campylobacter jejuni infection.
Escherichia coli is another possible cause of diarrhoea, but it is a gram-negative bacillus and is typically associated with travellers’ diarrhoea and food poisoning.
Shigella dysenteriae is also a gram-negative bacillus that can cause diarrhoea and dysentery, but it is not the correct answer for this patient’s condition.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 36
Correct
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A pharmaceutical company is striving to develop a novel weight-loss drug that imitates the satiety-inducing effects of the endogenous peptide hormone cholecystokinin (CCK).
What are the cells that naturally synthesize and secrete this hormone?Your Answer: I cells in the upper small intestine
Explanation:CCK is a hormone produced by I cells in the upper small intestine that enhances the digestion of fats and proteins. When partially digested proteins and fats are detected, CCK is synthesized and released, resulting in various processes such as the secretion of digestive enzymes from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi, decreased gastric emptying, and a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. These processes lead to the breakdown of fats and proteins and suppression of hunger.
B cells, on the other hand, are part of the immune system and produce antibodies as part of the B cell receptors. They are produced in the bone marrow and migrate to the spleen and lymphatic system, but they do not play a role in satiety.
Somatostatin is a hormone released from D cells in the pancreas and stomach that regulates peptide hormone release and gastric emptying. It is stimulated by the presence of fat, bile salt, and glucose in the intestines.
Gastrin is a hormone that increases acid release from parietal cells in the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach in response to distension of the stomach, stimulation of the vagus nerves, and the presence of peptides/amino acids in the lumen.
Secretin is a hormone that regulates enzyme secretion from the stomach, pancreas, and liver. It is released from the S cells in the duodenum in response to the presence of acid in the lumen.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 37
Correct
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A 20-year-old medical student comes to you with complaints of shoulder pain and limited mobility after a rough tackle during a rugby match. Upon examination, you observe that his shoulder is visibly dislocated, leading you to suspect an anterior shoulder dislocation. Can you identify which nerve is most vulnerable to injury in this case?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:Nerve Injuries in the Upper Arm
When the proximal humerus moves downward, it can cause damage to the nerves of the brachial plexus, particularly the axillary nerve. Signs of axillary nerve damage include sensory loss on the lateral side of the upper arm, inability to raise the arm (deltoid), and weakened lateral rotation (teres minor).
Other nerve injuries in the upper arm include median nerve damage, which can cause tingling in the thumb and first two and a half digits, as well as loss of function in the thenar muscles. Musculocutaneous nerve damage can lead to tingling in the lateral forearm and inability to flex the elbow. Radial nerve damage can cause tingling in the posterior compartment of the forearm and dorsum of the hand, as well as wrist drop. Ulnar nerve damage can result in tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger, as well as loss of grip strength.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 38
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Physiotherapy
Explanation:Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome
Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.
In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 39
Correct
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A teenage boy suddenly collapses outside his home. He is found to be in cardiac arrest and unfortunately passed away in the hospital. Posthumously, he is diagnosed with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. What alterations would this condition bring about in the heart?
Your Answer: Myocardium replaced by fatty and fibrofatty tissue
Explanation:Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death, is associated with asymmetrical thickening of the septum. Left ventricular hypertrophy can be caused by hypertension, aortic valve stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and athletic training. While arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy can cause ventricular dilation in later stages, it is not transient. Transient ballooning would suggest a diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, which is triggered by acute stress.
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), also known as arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia or ARVD, is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death or syncope. It is considered the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals, following hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression, and it is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Approximately 50% of patients with ARVC have a mutation in one of the several genes that encode components of desmosome.
The presentation of ARVC may include palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. ECG abnormalities in V1-3, such as T wave inversion, are typically observed. An epsilon wave, which is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex, is found in about 50% of those with ARVC. Echo changes may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall, although these changes may be subtle in the early stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in showing fibrofatty tissue.
Management of ARVC may involve the use of drugs such as sotalol, which is the most widely used antiarrhythmic. Catheter ablation may also be used to prevent ventricular tachycardia, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator may be recommended. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessive variant of ARVC that is characterized by a triad of ARVC, palmoplantar keratosis, and woolly hair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 40
Correct
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A father brings his 3-year-old child to the pediatrician with a 3-week history of perianal itching that is not improving. The father mentions that the itching seems to be more severe at night. He is worried because his older son, who shares a room with the affected child, has also started experiencing similar symptoms in the past few days.
What organism is most likely causing these symptoms?Your Answer: Enterobius vermicularis
Explanation:A 3-year-old child is experiencing perianal itching, especially at night, which may be caused by Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm). This condition is usually asymptomatic, but the itching can be bothersome. Diagnosis involves applying sticky tape to the perianal area and sending it to the lab for analysis.
Clonorchis sinensis infection is caused by eating undercooked fish and can lead to biliary tract obstruction, resulting in symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and jaundice. It is also a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma.
Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is commonly found in farmers who keep sheep. Dogs can become infected by ingesting hydatid cysts from sheep, and the eggs are then spread through their feces. Patients may not experience symptoms for a long time, but they may eventually develop abdominal discomfort and nausea. A liver ultrasound scan can reveal the presence of hepatic cysts.
Taenia solium is another type of tapeworm that is often transmitted through the consumption of undercooked pork. It can cause neurological symptoms and brain lesions that appear as a swiss cheese pattern on imaging.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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