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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old male comes to you with a complaint of sudden vision loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male comes to you with a complaint of sudden vision loss. He denies any previous symptoms or head injury and reports no pain. Upon conducting a fundoscopy, you observe significant retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg in a motor vehicle accident. She sustained a severe contusion around the neck and head of the fibula.
      Which nerve is susceptible to compression at the lateral head and neck of the fibula?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Anatomy of the Leg: Common Peroneal, Deep Peroneal, Superficial Peroneal, Saphenous, and Tibial Nerves

      The leg is innervated by several nerves, each with its own specific functions. One of these nerves is the common peroneal nerve, which descends through the popliteal fossa and runs parallel to the biceps femoris insertion tendon. It then curves around the fibular head and neck before dividing into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve innervates the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. On the other hand, the superficial peroneal nerve supplies the peroneus longus and brevis before providing cutaneous innervation to the dorsal skin of the foot.

      Another nerve that supplies cutaneous innervation to the leg is the saphenous nerve. It passes superficial to the femoral triangle and is not likely to be damaged in injuries involving the fibula.

      Finally, the tibial nerve arises in the distal third of the thigh and passes deep through the popliteal fossa. It does not pass close to the fibula but instead leaves the fossa, passing through the two heads of the gastrocnemius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency department with a painful, swollen right eye. She is compliant with her hydroxychloroquine medication and has had three arthritic flares in the past year, all of which responded well to IV steroids. The patient frequently uses artificial teardrops for foreign body sensation, but her current ocular symptoms are not improving with this treatment. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.

      The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.

      In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.

      Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of right-sided iliac fossa pain, right tip shoulder pain and a scanty brown per vaginum (PV) bleed. She missed her last menstrual period which was due eight weeks ago. She has an intrauterine device (IUD) in place.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      One of the most likely diagnoses for a woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This is especially true if the patient has a history of using an intrauterine device (IUD), has missed a period, and experiences scanty bleeding. However, other possible differential diagnoses include appendicitis, ovarian cysts, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Appendicitis may cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other symptoms and history suggest an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. A femoral hernia is inconsistent with the clinical findings. Ovarian cysts may also cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other features from the history point to an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not consistent with the history described, as there is no offensive discharge and no sexual history provided. Additionally, pelvic inflammatory disease does not cause a delay in the menstrual period.

      It is important to always test for pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain, regardless of contraception use or perceived likelihood of pregnancy. Early diagnosis and treatment of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy can be life-saving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history of vomiting and regurgitation of non-bilious materials, mostly consisting of ingested milk. The vomiting has lately become projectile. On examination, an olive-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant, and a periodic wave of peristalsis is visible in the epigastric region. The neonate has puffy hands and feet and redundant skin in the neck. A systolic murmur is noted on the cardiac apex. Laboratory tests reveal hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tracheoesophageal fistula

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Neonate with Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis and Other Symptoms

      Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes gastric outlet obstruction and is more common in neonates with Turner syndrome. Other symptoms in this scenario include puffy hands and feet due to lymphoedema, redundant skin in the neck due to early resolution of cystic hygroma, and a systolic murmur likely caused by coarctation of the aorta. Non-bilious vomiting distinguishes pyloric stenosis from duodenal atresia.

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia presents with vomiting, hypoxia, and a scaphoid abdomen, but is not typically associated with chromosomal abnormalities.

      Down syndrome is characterized by flat and broad facies, epicanthal folds, simian creases, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

      Duodenal atresia is associated with Down syndrome and presents with bilious vomiting, while this scenario involves non-bilious vomiting.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula is associated with Down syndrome and VACTERL association, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      125
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are requested to assess a patient with chronic kidney disease who needs...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a patient with chronic kidney disease who needs antibiotics for a systemic bacterial infection. As the patient has renal impairment, you are apprehensive about prescribing drugs that are excreted by the kidney. The microbiology department has provided you with the culture and sensitivity results and suggested the following options for antibiotics: Ceftazidime, Metronidazole, Meropenem, Piperacillin-tazobactam, and Vancomycin. Which of these options would necessitate therapeutic drug monitoring in a patient with renal dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Piperacillin-tazobactam

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.

      Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What distinguishes haemodialysis from haemofiltration as methods of renal replacement therapy? ...

    Correct

    • What distinguishes haemodialysis from haemofiltration as methods of renal replacement therapy?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis removes solutes by osmosis

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis vs Haemofiltration

      Haemodialysis and haemofiltration are two methods of renal replacement therapy used to treat patients with kidney failure. Haemodialysis involves removing blood at a high flow rate and passing it through a dialyser with dialysis fluid running in the opposite direction. This creates a constant diffusion gradient, allowing solutes to diffuse across and be removed from the blood. Haemodialysis is administered intermittently and is highly effective at solute removal due to the high flow rates and constant diffusion gradient.

      On the other hand, haemofiltration is less efficient and requires high volumes to achieve the same degree of solute clearance. It works by passing the blood at low flow rates but high pressures through the dialyser without dialysate fluid. Instead, a transmembrane pressure gradient is created, allowing fluid to be squeezed out. However, it is less efficient at solute clearance. Haemofiltration requires replacement fluid to be administered to avoid hypovolaemia due to the large volumes filtered.

      In summary, haemodialysis and haemofiltration are two different methods of renal replacement therapy. Haemodialysis is highly effective at solute removal due to the high flow rates and constant diffusion gradient, while haemofiltration is more efficient at clearing fluid but less efficient at solute clearance. Both methods have their advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of therapy depends on the patient’s individual needs and medical condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of vaginal itching and a change...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of vaginal itching and a change in discharge. She has been experiencing thick, white discharge for the past 3 days and the itching has become unbearable today. She is sexually active with her partner and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. She denies having a fever, abdominal pain, painful intercourse, or any new sexual partners. What is the most suitable course of action for managing the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral fluconazole once daily for 3 days

      Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole single dose

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for non-pregnant women with symptoms of vaginal thrush, such as a curd-like discharge and itching, is a single dose of oral fluconazole. This medication can often be obtained directly from a pharmacist without needing to see a GP. Using low dose topical corticosteroids until symptoms improve is not an appropriate treatment for managing the fungal infection. Similarly, taking oral cetirizine daily for two weeks is not the recommended course of action, although it may be used for treatment-resistant thrush. Oral fluconazole should be tried first before considering cetirizine. Lastly, a three-day course of oral fluconazole is not the appropriate duration of treatment for this patient population.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old woman, who has been homebound for several years due to difficulty...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman, who has been homebound for several years due to difficulty with mobility, presents with worsening bone pain. She appears unsteady on her feet but has no other specific complaints. Laboratory tests are conducted.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 118 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Calcium 2.01 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate 9.8 mmol/l 15–50 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 450 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Bone Disorders: Causes and Symptoms

      Osteomalacia and rickets are caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, resulting in decreased levels of serum calcium and phosphate and bone matrix hypomineralisation. This condition is often characterised by difficulty mobilising and general fragility. Osteitis fibrosa cystica, on the other hand, is caused by hyperparathyroidism, resulting in raised serum calcium, low phosphate, and elevated ALP. Patients with osteitis fibrosa cystica may also experience kidney stones, nausea, or constipation. Osteopetrosis involves impaired bone remodelling due to failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone, resulting in increased bone mass and skeletal fragility. In contrast, osteoporosis is characterised by reduced bone mass, while Paget’s disease involves pathological increased bone turnover. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these different bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a suspected opioid overdose....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a suspected opioid overdose. After prompt treatment, he quickly regains consciousness. This patient has been frequenting the emergency department for the same issue over the past few months. Inpatient treatment for addiction is offered and the patient is admitted to a ward. What is the most suitable medication for this individual?

      Your Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for opioid detoxification should be methadone or buprenorphine. Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist that effectively eliminates withdrawal symptoms, while buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist. Both medications can be used as the initial treatment for patients undergoing detoxification for opioid dependence. Acamprosate, chlordiazepoxide, and naloxone are not appropriate first-line treatments for opioid detoxification as they are used for other purposes such as maintaining abstinence in alcohol dependence, managing alcohol withdrawal, and emergency management of opioid overdose, respectively.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations that began a few hours ago. Her heart rate is 180/min and an ECG reveals atrial fibrillation. The attending cardiologist plans to use flecainide to pharmacologically convert the patient back to sinus rhythm. What pre-treatment measure should be taken before administering flecainide?

      Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Before using flecainide for atrial fibrillation, signs of structural heart disease should be checked.

      Understanding Flecainide: A Class 1c Antiarrhythmic

      Flecainide is a type of antiarrhythmic medication that belongs to the Vaughan Williams class 1c. It works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channels, which slows down the conduction of the action potential. This can cause the QRS complex to widen and the PR interval to prolong. Flecainide is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and SVT associated with accessory pathway, such as Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

      However, it is important to note that Flecainide is contraindicated in certain situations. For example, it should not be used in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or have structural heart disease, such as heart failure. It is also not recommended for patients with sinus node dysfunction or second-degree or greater AV block, as well as those with atrial flutter.

      While Flecainide can be effective in treating certain arrhythmias, it can also have adverse effects. It may cause negative inotropic effects, which can affect the heart’s ability to contract. It can also cause bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, and may even lead to proarrhythmic effects. Some patients may also experience oral paraesthesia or visual disturbances.

      In summary, Flecainide is a class 1c antiarrhythmic medication that works by blocking sodium channels. It is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and SVT associated with accessory pathway. However, it is contraindicated in certain situations and can have adverse effects. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before taking any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of a community acquired pneumonia. Unfortunately, he was not accompanied by a family member and the history provided by the patient seems confused. Upon arrival of the daughter, she confirms that her father has been confusing real events with those from his imagination. Through this process he appears to be able to maintain a superficial conversation despite significant cognitive impairment.
      Which of the following describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Confabulation, Delusions, and Other Psychiatric Phenomena

      Confabulation, delusions, and other psychiatric phenomena can be confusing and difficult to differentiate. Confabulation is a phenomenon where patients fabricate imaginary experiences due to memory loss, often seen in patients with cognitive impairment. Delusions, on the other hand, are beliefs held with strong conviction despite evidence to the contrary, commonly seen in conditions such as schizophrenia. Flight of ideas, pressure of speech, and hallucinations are other psychiatric phenomena that can be seen in different conditions. Understanding the differences between these phenomena is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You review a 56-year-old woman in the clinic who has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 56-year-old woman in the clinic who has a history of type 2 diabetes. She is currently treated with metformin 1g PO BD. On examination her BP is 150/80 mmHg, pulse is 78 and regular. Her chest is clear. Her abdomen is soft and non tender, her BMI is 31. Her bA1c is elevated at 9.1%, creatinine is 110 µmol/l. You decide to add dapagliflozin to her treatment plan. What is the correct mode of action of dapagliflozin?

      Your Answer: Increases glucose secretion in the distal renal tubule

      Correct Answer: Reduces glucose reabsorption

      Explanation:

      How Dapagliflozin Reduces Blood Glucose Levels

      Dapagliflozin is a medication that inhibits the SGLT-2 (sodium glucose transporter) in the kidneys, which reduces the reabsorption of glucose. This means that around 30% of glucose present in the glomerular filtrate is not reabsorbed and is instead passed out into the urine. As a result, blood glucose levels are reduced without causing weight gain, and even with minor weight loss in clinical trials. However, increased loss of glucose into the urine has been associated with a higher risk of urinary tract infections.

      It is important to note that dapagliflozin’s effects on insulin sensitivity are indirect. On the other hand, SGLT-1 inhibitors block the absorption of glucose from the intestine. Overall, dapagliflozin’s ability to reduce glucose reabsorption in the kidneys is a key mechanism in its effectiveness as a medication for managing blood glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old woman undergoes a left hemicolectomy for colon cancer. The pathology report...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman undergoes a left hemicolectomy for colon cancer. The pathology report reveals that the tumour has invaded the muscle layer surrounding the colon but there is no lymph node involvement or distant metastasis on the CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis. What is the Dukes stage of the tumour in this patient?

      Your Answer: B

      Explanation:

      The tumour in this patient is classified as Duke Stage B, as it has invaded the local tissue outside of the mucosa but does not involve any lymph nodes, which would make it Duke Stage C. Duke Stage D would involve distant metastases. Staging is crucial in determining prognosis and further management.

      While Dukes staging is still widely used, TNM classification is gradually replacing it for colorectal tumours. Tumours that are still within the mucosal wall are classified as T1 or T2, while those that have spread outside the mucosal wall are classified as T3 or T4. Lymph node involvement is classified as N0 (no involvement), N1 (up to 3 regional lymph nodes), or N2 (4 or more regional lymph nodes). Metastasis is classified as either M0 (no metastasis) or M1 (metastasis present).

      Duke Stage B can be classified as either T3N0M0 or T4N0M0.

      Dukes’ Classification: Stages of Colorectal Cancer

      Dukes’ classification is a system used to describe the extent of spread of colorectal cancer. It is divided into four stages, each with a different level of severity and prognosis. Stage A refers to a tumour that is confined to the mucosa, with a 95% 5-year survival rate. Stage B describes a tumour that has invaded the bowel wall, with an 80% 5-year survival rate. Stage C indicates the presence of lymph node metastases, with a 65% 5-year survival rate. Finally, Stage D refers to distant metastases, with a 5% 5-year survival rate (although this increases to 20% if the metastases are resectable).

      Overall, Dukes’ classification is an important tool for doctors to use when determining the best course of treatment for patients with colorectal cancer. By understanding the stage of the cancer, doctors can make more informed decisions about surgery, chemotherapy, and other treatments. Additionally, patients can use this information to better understand their prognosis and make decisions about their own care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists and forearms. The papules are extremely pruritic and some of them have a central depression. Similar papules are seen along the scratch line at the volar surface of the forearm. The patient is a nurse and has had at least three needlestick injuries during the past 2 years. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is negative. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-HBc antibody are negative, but anti-HBs antibody is positive. Anti-hepatitis C (HCV) antibody is positive.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Associated Antibodies

      Lichen Planus: This skin condition is associated with viral hepatitis, specifically hepatitis B and C. Antibodies may indicate the presence of hepatitis and other conditions such as erythema multiforme, urticaria, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemia, and porphyria cutanea tarda.

      Chronic Hepatitis B: A negative anti-HBc antibody status suggests that the patient has not been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. A positive anti-HBs antibody status may indicate vaccination.

      Dermatitis Herpetiformis: This condition is characterized by extremely itchy papulovesicles on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. It is often associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Autoantibodies such as anti-gliadin, anti-endomysial, and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present.

      Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia: This condition presents with palpable purpura and arthritis, among other signs of systemic vasculitis. It is also associated with hepatitis C virus infection, and rheumatoid factor is usually positive.

      Dermatomyositis: Gottron’s papules, which are violet, flat-topped lesions, are associated with dermatomyositis and the anti-Jo-1 autoantibody. They are typically seen over the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joints.

      Skin Conditions and Their Antibody Associations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 85-year-old woman presents in the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman presents in the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of increasing confusion and falls. Routine investigations reveal:
      FBC: Hb 123 g/l, MCV 86 fl, WCC 7.9 × 109/l, platelets 478 × 109/l
      U&Es: Na+ 109 mmol/l, K+ 4.9 mmol/l, urea 5.2 mmol/l, creatinine 76 μmol/l
      Which of the following would clinically exclude a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure (BP) = 120/70 mm Hg sitting; BP = 133/74 mm Hg standing

      Correct Answer: Gross peripheral oedema and ascites

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Exclusion Criteria for SIADH: Causes of Hyponatremia in the Elderly

      Hyponatremia is a common incidental finding in the unwell elderly, and its causes can be understood by knowing the exclusion criteria for SIADH. SIADH secretion should not be diagnosed in the presence of hypovolemia, hypotension, Addison’s disease, signs of fluid overload (such as effusions, ascites, and peripheral edema), hypothyroidism, or drugs that cause hyponatremia. Once these are excluded or corrected, the diagnosis is confirmed by sending paired serum and urinary specimens for sodium and osmolality measurements. SIADH is confirmed when one has hyponatremia and a low measured serum osmolality, with measurable urinary sodium and a relatively concentrated urinary osmolality. Causes are found in the chest and in the head, so all patients with unexplained hyponatremia should have a chest X-ray and, if this is normal, a computed tomography brain scan.

      Understanding the Exclusion Criteria for SIADH: Causes of Hyponatremia in the Elderly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      84.8
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  • Question 17 - You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her...

    Incorrect

    • You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her booking visit. In addition to the standard antenatal bloods she also had her rubella status checked as she didn't have the MMR vaccine as a child. She is currently in good health.
      Rubella IgG NOT detected
      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise weekly human normal immunoglobulin injections until > 20 weeks gestation + avoid infectious contacts

      Correct Answer: Advise her of the risks and the need to keep away from anyone who has rubella

      Explanation:

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue. He reports experiencing 'abdominal complaints' for the past 6 years, without relief from any treatments. Upon examination, he appears severely pale and has glossitis. He has been having bowel movements five to six times per day. The only significant history he has is that he had to undergo surgery at the age of 4 to remove a swallowed toy. Blood tests show the following results: Hemoglobin - 98 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), Vitamin B12 - 60 pmol/l (normal range: 160-900 pmol/l), Folate - 51 μg/l (normal range: 2.0-11.0 μg/l), and Cholesterol - 2.7 mmol/l (normal range: <5.2 mmol/l). What is the appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 replacement

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)

      Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, and megaloblastic anemia. It is often caused by a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, such as decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility. Patients who have had intestinal surgery are also at an increased risk of developing SIBO.

      The most effective treatment for SIBO is a course of antibiotics, such as metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, or rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.

      In contrast, a gluten-free diet is the treatment for coeliac disease, which presents with malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia. Steroids are not an appropriate treatment for SIBO or coeliac disease, as they can suppress local immunity and allow further bacterial overgrowth.

      Vitamin B12 replacement is necessary for patients with SIBO who have megaloblastic anemia due to B12 malabsorption and metabolism by bacteria. There is no indication of intestinal tuberculosis in this patient, but in suspected cases, intestinal biopsy may be needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      59.4
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  • Question 19 - Liam is an 8-year-old boy brought in by his father with a 2...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is an 8-year-old boy brought in by his father with a 2 day history of fever and sore throat. Today he has developed a rash on his torso. He is eating and drinking well, but has not been to school for the last 2 days and has been feeling tired.

      On examination, Liam is alert, smiling and playful. He has a temperature of 37.8°C. His throat appears red with petechiae on the hard and soft palate and his tongue is covered with a white coat through which red papillae are visible. There is a blanching rash present on his trunk which is red and punctate with a rough, sandpaper-like texture.

      What is the appropriate time for Liam to return to school, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Once the rash has resolved

      Correct Answer: 24 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Explanation:

      If a child has scarlet fever, they can go back to school after 24 hours of starting antibiotics. The symptoms described are typical of scarlet fever, including a strawberry tongue and a rough-textured rash with small red spots on the palate called Forchheimer spots. Charlotte doesn’t need to be hospitalized but should take a 10-day course of phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V). According to NICE, the child should stay away from school, nursery, or work for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. It’s also important to advise parents to take measures to prevent cross-infection, such as frequent handwashing, avoiding sharing utensils and towels, and disposing of tissues promptly.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      28.8
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  • Question 20 - A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke occasionally and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome. At what point do the microscopic changes of acute MI become visible?

      Your Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct

      Explanation:

      The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes

      Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.

      Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.

      Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.

      If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.

      In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is referred by his GP to...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is referred by his GP to hospital as today’s blood test shows an elevated calcium level.
      Which of the following is the next most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: IV 0.9% normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Electrolyte Imbalances: Fluids and Medications

      Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypercalcaemia and hyperkalaemia, can have serious consequences if left untreated. The following are some common treatments for these conditions:

      IV 0.9% normal saline: Rehydration is crucial in managing hypercalcaemia. Up to 3 liters of normal saline can be given daily to correct elevated calcium levels. Bisphosphonates may also be used after fluids are administered.

      Insulin dextrose: This is used to treat hyperkalaemia.

      Alendronic acid: While this medication can be given after fluids in patients with hypercalcaemia, fluid administration is the preferred management strategy.

      Calcium Resonium: This medication is used after the acute treatment of hyperkalaemia.

      Calcium gluconate: This medication is used to treat hyperkalaemia.

      Overall, a combination of fluids and medications may be necessary to effectively manage electrolyte imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old woman was admitted to hospital seven days ago with moderate symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman was admitted to hospital seven days ago with moderate symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia and was treated with amoxicillin. She has developed a fever, maculopapular skin rash and haematuria over the last two days. You suspect that her new symptoms may be due to acute tubulointerstitial nephritis caused by a reaction to the amoxicillin she was given.
      Which of the following investigations would provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kidney biopsy

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

      Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to renal failure if left untreated. There are several investigations that can be done to help diagnose this condition.

      Kidney Biopsy: This is the most definitive investigation for tubulointerstitial nephritis. It involves taking a small sample of kidney tissue for examination under a microscope. This is usually only done if other tests have been inconclusive or if the diagnosis is unclear.

      Full Blood Count: This test can help identify the presence of eosinophilia, which is often seen in cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis. However, the absence of eosinophilia does not rule out the condition.

      Kidney Ultrasound: This test can help rule out other conditions such as chronic renal failure, hydronephrosis, or renal calculi. In cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis, the kidneys may appear enlarged and echogenic due to inflammation.

      Serum Urea and Electrolytes: This test measures the levels of urea and creatinine in the blood, which can be elevated in cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Urinalysis: This test can detect the presence of low-grade proteinuria, white blood cell casts, and sterile pyuria, which are all indicative of tubulointerstitial nephritis. However, it is not a definitive diagnostic tool.

      In conclusion, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose tubulointerstitial nephritis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      14.4
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  • Question 23 - A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a complaint of numbness in the skin over his scrotum. Can you identify the nerve responsible for supplying sensation to this area?

      Your Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply to Male Genitalia

      The male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve provides sensory nerve supply to the surface of the scrotum. On the other hand, the pudendal nerve, which gives rise to the dorsal nerve of the penis, is responsible for innervations of the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles, which are essential for erectile and ejaculatory functions.

      However, the long course of the genitofemoral nerve, which includes travel through the superficial inguinal ring along with the spermatic cord, makes it susceptible to injury. Any damage to this nerve can result in sensory loss in the scrotum, leading to discomfort and pain.

      The inferior anal and rectal nerve, which is also a branch of the pudendal nerve, provides sensory and motor innervation to the anal canal and rectum. These nerves play a crucial role in bowel and bladder control, and any damage to them can result in fecal and urinary incontinence.

      In summary, the male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions, and any damage to these nerves can result in discomfort, pain, and loss of function. It is essential to understand the anatomy and function of these nerves to prevent injury and provide appropriate treatment in case of damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 86-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 86-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, there is decreased airflow in the left base. A chest X-ray shows an air-fluid level located behind the mediastinum. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia of the left lower lobe of the lung

      Correct Answer: Diaphragmatic hiatal hernia

      Explanation:

      Diaphragmatic Hiatal Hernia

      Diaphragmatic hiatal hernia is a condition where the fundus or gastro-oesophageal junction of the stomach herniates upwards in the chest due to an abnormal defect in the diaphragm. A chest X-ray may reveal gastric air and fluid behind the mediastinum, and reduced air entry at the lung bases due to compression of the lung lobes. Immediate management involves stabilizing the patient with ABCDE and seeking an urgent surgical review for a possible Nissen fundoplication.

      Other conditions such as early cholangitis, aspiration pneumonia of the left lower lobe of the lung, ruptured left ventricle, or ruptured right ventricle may present with different symptoms and would not cause the air and fluid level behind the mediastinum seen in diaphragmatic hiatal hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman is on day one postpartum, following a normal vaginal delivery....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is on day one postpartum, following a normal vaginal delivery. She has called the midwife, as she is struggling to establish breastfeeding and correct positioning of the baby to the breast. She reports pain when the baby is breastfeeding.
      Which of the following is a feature of a poor latch?

      Your Answer: Clicking noises are heard

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs of a Good Latch for Successful Breastfeeding

      Latching on the breast is crucial for successful breastfeeding, but many women struggle with it. A poor latch can lead to pain and frustration, causing some women to give up on breastfeeding altogether. However, there are clear signs of a good latch that can help mothers and babies achieve successful breastfeeding.

      One indicator of a poor latch is clicking noises, which can be painful for the mother and indicate that the baby is chewing on the nipple. In contrast, a good latch is associated with visible and audible swallowing, a rhythmic suck, and relaxed arms and hands of the infant. The baby’s chin should touch the breast, with the nose free, and the lips should be rolled out, not turned in. The mouth should be open wide, and the tongue positioned below the nipple, with the latter touching the palate of the baby’s mouth.

      Another sign of a good latch is that less areola should be visible below the chin than above the nipple. This indicates that the baby is taking in not only the nipple but also the areola, which is essential for effective milk expression and feeding. By understanding these signs of a good latch, mothers can ensure successful breastfeeding and a positive experience for both themselves and their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He feels she is distant and suspects she is spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of feeling uninterested in past relationships and struggles with mood swings. He expresses feeling alone in the world and that even his friends are against him. Although he self-harms, he denies any suicidal thoughts. A referral to psychiatry leads to a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)

      Explanation:

      Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      71.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the most effective tool for assessing a patient who is suspected...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective tool for assessing a patient who is suspected of having occupational asthma?

      Your Answer: Serial measurements of ventilatory function performed before, during, and after work

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by conditions and factors present in a particular work environment. It is characterized by variable airflow limitation and/or airway hyper-responsiveness. This type of asthma accounts for about 10% of adult asthma cases. To diagnose occupational asthma, several investigations are conducted, including serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. A consistent fall in peak flow values and increased intraday variability on working days, along with improvement on days away from work, confirms the diagnosis of occupational asthma. It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of occupational asthma to prevent and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with concerns about not having started...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with concerns about not having started her periods. She has also not developed any other secondary sexual characteristics. Upon examination, she is found to be proportionate but notably short in stature. Additionally, she has wide-spaced nipples, low-set ears, and subtle neck webbing. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic coarctation

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Turner’s syndrome (XO) often exhibit physical characteristics such as a webbed neck, low set ears, and widely spaced nipples. Short stature and primary amenorrhea are common, along with a degree of puberty failure. Other physical features to look for include a wide carrying angle, down-sloping eyes with partial ptosis, and a low posterior hairline. Turner’s syndrome is frequently linked to aortic coarctation and bicuspid aortic valve, while other cardiac abnormalities may be associated with different genetic conditions.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.3
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  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with severe abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with severe abdominal pain and hypotension. A CT scan reveals a ruptured diverticular abscess, and he undergoes a Hartmann's procedure and faecal peritonitis washout. postoperatively, he is transferred to HDU and given broad spectrum IV antibiotics. During surgery, he had poor urine output and low blood pressure, prompting the anaesthetist to administer fluids. The next day, the F1 for surgery notes that the patient had a urine output of 5 mls per hour for three hours and then complete anuria overnight. His blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, and his CVP is 10 cm. What is the probable cause of his anuria?

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute Tubular Necrosis and Tubulo-Interstitial Nephritis

      Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a condition that occurs when the kidneys experience prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion, leading to the death of tubular epithelium. This can result in complete anuria, which is the absence of urine output. While a blocked catheter is unlikely, a bladder scan should be performed to rule it out. ATN can also be caused by nephrotoxins and sepsis. The condition usually recovers over a few days to weeks, but if the patient has underlying renal disease, the recovery may be partial, leading to long-term chronic kidney disease (CKD). Therefore, pre-renal failure should be corrected as quickly as possible to prevent irreversible damage.

      Tubulo-interstitial nephritis (TIN) is a histological diagnosis that occurs when the tubules and interstitium of the kidney become inflamed due to drugs or infections. This can lead to the release of cytokines and infiltration by acute inflammatory cells, particularly lymphocytes and eosinophils. If the causative agent is removed, TIN can resolve. However, if it persists, tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis may occur, leading to end-stage renal failure. Oral steroids can be used to dampen the inflammation and prevent fibrosis, but they need to be started early in the disease course.

      In summary, ATN and TIN are two conditions that can cause kidney damage and lead to CKD or end-stage renal failure. While ATN is caused by prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion, TIN is caused by drugs or infections. Early intervention is crucial to prevent irreversible damage and promote recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      79.7
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  • Question 30 - A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her mother takes her to the emergency doctor at their GP clinic later that day as the bleeding has not stopped. The cut is not very big and is on the girl's calf. They immediately applied pressure to the wound and then a bandage, however on examination the wound is still bleeding a little bit. The girl's mother knows that there is a bleeding disorder in her family.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give recombinant factor 8

      Correct Answer: Give desmopressin and tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bleeding Disorders: Haemophilia A and Von Willebrand Disease

      Haemophilia A, a genetic bleeding disorder affecting men, is characterized by a propensity to bleed with minor injuries. Diagnosis is made through a prolonged APTT on a background of normal PT and bleeding time. Treatment for minor bleeds includes desmopressin and tranexamic acid, while major bleeds require infusion with recombinant factor 8. Fresh-frozen plasma and platelets are used in major trauma as replacement therapy, while heparin is an anticoagulant and should be avoided. Von Willebrand factor is given once the diagnosis of Von Willebrand disease is confirmed. Children with severe haemophilia A should receive prophylactic infusion of factor 8 at least once a week until physical maturity, and those undergoing elective surgery or pregnant women will require prophylactic treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      15.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Nephrology (2/2) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed